GI and Nutrition I Flashcards

1
Q

A positive urine bilirubin assay is typically indicative of a buildup of […] bilirubin.

A

A positive urine bilirubin assay is typically indicative of a buildup of conjugated bilirubin.

plasma buildup of conjugated bilirubin (water soluble) leaks into urine, causing dark urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A positive urine urobilinogen assay is typically indicative of a buildup of […] bilirubin.

A

A positive urine urobilinogen assay is typically indicative of a buildup of unconjugated bilirubin.

excess unconjugated bilirubin (water insoluble) undergoes regular conjugation, forming urobilinogen, which is excreted in urine and feces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A secretin stimulation test is positive if gastrin levels remain […] after administration of secretin.

A

A secretin stimulation test is positive if gastrin levels remain elevated after administration of secretin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) […] g/dL indicates that the ascites is due to portal hypertension.

A

A serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) > 1.1 g/dL indicates that the ascites is due to portal hypertension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A high stool osmotic gap is indicative of […] diarrhea (osmotic or secretory).

A

A high stool osmotic gap is indicative of osmotic diarrhea (osmotic or secretory).

> 125 mOsm/kg; due to non-absorbed and unmeasured osmotically active agents in the GI tract (e.g. lactose intolerance)

SOG = plasma osmolality - 2 x (stool sodium +stool potassium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A […] stool osmotic gap is indicative of osmotic diarrhea (osmotic or secretory).

A

A high stool osmotic gap is indicative of osmotic diarrhea (osmotic or secretory)

> 125 mOsm/kg; due to non-absorbed and unmeasured osmotically active agents in the GI tract (e.g. lactose intolerance)

SOG = plasma osmolality - 2 x (stool sodium +stool potassium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A low stool osmotic gap is indicative of […] diarrhea (osmotic or secretory).

A

A low stool osmotic gap is indicative of secretory diarrhea (osmotic or secretory).

< 50 mOsm/kg; due to increased secretions of ions (e.g. bacterial/viral infection, congenital disorders of ion transport, postsurgical changes)

SOG = plasma osmolality - 2x (stool sodium + stool potassium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A […] stool osmotic gap is indicative of secretory diarrhea (osmotic or secretory).

A

A low stool osmotic gap is indicative of secretory diarrhea (osmotic or secretory).

< 50 mOsm/kg; due to increased secretions of ions (e.g. bacterial/viral infection, congenital disorders of ion transport, postsurgical changes)

SOG = plasma osmolality - 2x (stool sodium + stool potassium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Acetaminophen toxicity results from overproduction of the toxic metabolite […], which leads to hepatic necrosis.

A

Acetaminophen toxicity results from overproduction of the toxic metabolite NAPQI, which leads to hepatic necrosis.

normally safely detoxified through glucuronidation in the liver; process may be impaired by chronic alcohol use, which depletes glutathione

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Acute liver failure is defined as severe acute liver injury (elevated AST/ALT) with […] and impaired synthetic function (INR > 1.5) in a patient without cirrhosis or underlying liver disease.

A

Acute liver failure is defined as severe acute liver injury (elevated AST/ALT) with encephalopathy and impaired synthetic function (INR > 1.5) in a patient without cirrhosis or underlying liver disease.

the presence of hepatic encephalopathy differentiates acute liver failure from acute hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Acute liver failure is defined as severe acute liver injury (elevated AST/ALT) with encephalopathy and impaired synthetic function (INR > […]) in a patient without cirrhosis or underlying liver disease.

A

Acute liver failure is defined as severe acute liver injury (elevated AST/ALT) with encephalopathy and impaired synthetic function (INR > 1.5) in a patient without cirrhosis or underlying liver disease.

the presence of hepatic encephalopathy differentiates acute liver failure from acute hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

All patients with cirrhosis should have a screening ultrasound every […] (duration) +/- alpha-fetoprotein.

A

All patients with cirrhosis should have a screening ultrasound every 6 months (duration) +/- alpha-fetoprotein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Angiodysplasia is more common in patients with advanced […] disease and von Willebrand disease.

A

Angiodysplasia is more common in patients with advanced renal disease and von Willebrand disease.

also may be seen with aortic stenosis due to disruption of vWF multimers as they traverse the turbulent valve space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Are hepatic adenomas typically benign or malignant?

A

Benign

possible long-term complications include progressive growth, rupture, and malignant transformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Ascitic fluid with a PMN count > […]/mm3 and positive peritoneal fluid culture confirm the diagnosis of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis.

A

Ascitic fluid with a PMN count > 250/mm3 and positive peritoneal fluid culture confirm the diagnosis of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Carcinoid tumors are typically not symptomatic until they’ve metastasized to the […] (i.e. carcinoid syndrome).

A

Carcinoid tumors are typically not symptomatic until they’ve metastasized to the liver (i.e. carcinoid syndrome).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cholesterol emboli may result in GI complications, such as acute […] and mesenteric ischemia.

A

Cholesterol emboli may result in GI complications, such as acute pancreatitis and mesenteric ischemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia with predominantly elevated […] is suggestive of intra- or extra-hepatic cholestasis.

A

Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia with predominantly elevated alkaline phosphatase is suggestive of intra- or extra-hepatic cholestasis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia with predominantly elevated […] is suggestive of intrinsic liver disease.

A

Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia with predominantly elevated AST/ALT is suggestive of intrinsic liver disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia with […] AST/ALT and alkaline phosphatase is suggestive of inherited bilirubin metabolism disorders.

A

Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia with normal AST/ALT and alkaline phosphatase is suggestive of inherited bilirubin metabolism disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CXR findings consistent with esophageal perforation include left-sided pleural effusion, subcutaneous emphysema, and […] mediastinum.

A

CXR findings consistent with esophageal perforation include left-sided pleural effusion, subcutaneous emphysema, and widened mediastinum.

pleural effusion is typically left-sided because the esophagus is positioned on the left anatomically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Diagnosis of C. difficile colitis is made by stool assay for […].

A

Diagnosis of C. difficile colitis is made by stool assay for toxins.

the presence of C. difficile itself does not indicate infection as many individuals (8-15%) are asymptomatic carriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Dilation of the pancreatic duct and common bile duct (double duct sign) may occur with tumors of the […] of the pancreas.

A

Dilation of the pancreatic duct and common bile duct (double duct sign) may occur with tumors of the head of the pancreas.

i.e. both intra- and extra-hepatic biliary tract dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Do normal levels of amylase/lipase exclude a diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Do tumors in the body/tail of the pancreas typically present with jaundice?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Does achalasia result in dysphagia to solids, liquids, or both?

A

Both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Duodenal ulcers are characterized by pain that […] with eating (improves or worsens).

A

Duodenal ulcers are characterized by pain that improves with eating (improves or worsens).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Elevated titers of antinuclear antibodies and anti-smooth muscle antibodies suggests a diagnosis of […].

A

Elevated titers of antinuclear antibodies and anti-smooth muscle antibodies suggests a diagnosis of autoimmune hepatitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Hepatic hydrothorax is a possible complication of cirrhosis that results in transudative pleural effusions due to small defects in the […], especially on the right.

A

Hepatic hydrothorax is a possible complication of cirrhosis that results in transudative pleural effusions due to small defects in the diaphragm, especially on the right.

right-sided due to a less muscular hemidiaphragm; diagnosis of exclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How do levels of gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT) and ferritin typically change in alcoholic hepatitis?

A

Increased

GGT is an enzyme found in the liver and other cells; ferritin is an acute phase reactant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How do total levels of triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) change in patients with cirrhosis?

A

Decreased

due to decreased thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG); however, free T3 and T4 levels are unchanged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How does baseline body temperature change in patients with cirrhosis?

A

Decreased (hypothermic)

thus any temperature > 100°F (37.8°C) warrants investigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How does the BUN:creatinine ratio change in patients with upper GI bleed?

A

Increased

possibly due to increased urea production (intestinal breakdown of Hb) and increased urea reabsorption (hypovolemia)

34
Q

How often should patients with an average risk for colon cancer be screened if using colonoscopy?

A

Every 10 years

35
Q

How often should patients with an average risk for colon cancer be screened if using fecal occult blood testing?

A

Annually

36
Q

How often should patients with an average risk for colon cancer be screened if using flexible sigmoidoscopy with fecal occult blood testing?

A

sigmoidoscopy every 5 years with FOBT every 3 years

37
Q

In addition to antibiotics, risk factors for C. difficile colitis include age > 65 and […] use.

A

In addition to antibiotics, risk factors for C. difficile colitis include age > 65 and PPI use.

38
Q

In addition to antibiotics, risk factors for C. difficile colitis include age > […] and PPI use.

A

In addition to antibiotics, risk factors for C. difficile colitis include age > 65 and PPI use.

39
Q

In addition to colon cancer, patients with Lynch syndrome also have increased risk for […] and ovarian cancer.

A

In addition to colon cancer, patients with Lynch syndrome also have increased risk for endometrial and ovarian cancer.

thus, prophylactic hysterectomy and bilateral oophorectomy is recommended at age 40 or after childbearing is complete (patients with a uterus should have annual endometrial biopsies beginning at age 30-35)

40
Q

In addition to colon cancer, patients with Lynch syndrome also have increased risk for endometrial and […] cancer.

A

In addition to colon cancer, patients with Lynch syndrome also have increased risk for endometrial and ovarian cancer.

thus, prophylactic hysterectomy and bilateral oophorectomy is recommended at age 40 or after childbearing is complete (patients with a uterus should have annual endometrial biopsies beginning at age 30-35)

41
Q

Is diarrhea that occurs during fasting/sleeping characteristic of secretory or osmotic diarrhea?

A

Secretory

42
Q

Is megaloblastic anemia secondary to folate/cobalamin deficiency characterized by sufficient reticulocytosis?

A

No (low-normal reticulocyte count despite anemia)

43
Q

Is needle biopsy recommended for a patient with a hepatic adenoma?

[…]

A

No (due to risk of bleeding)

surgical excision is preferred

44
Q

Lactose intolerance is characterized by a […] hydrogen breath test (positive or negative).

A

Lactose intolerance is characterized by a positive hydrogen breath test (positive or negative).

i.e. rise in the measured breath hydrogen level after the ingestion of lactose

45
Q

Lactose intolerance is characterized by a […] stool test for reducing substances (positive or negative).

A

Lactose intolerance is characterized by a positive stool test for reducing substances (positive or negative).

46
Q

Lactose intolerance is characterized by low stool pH and […] stool osmotic gap (low or high).

A

Lactose intolerance is characterized by low stool pH and high stool osmotic gap (low or high).

due to fermentation products (stool pH) and unmetabolized lactose and organic acids (osmotic gap)

47
Q

Low serum ceruloplasmin with elevated urinary copper excretion suggests a diagnosis of […].

A

Low serum ceruloplasmin with elevated urinary copper excretion suggests a diagnosis of Wilson disease.

other diagnostic features include Kayser-Fleischer rings and increased copper content on liver biopsy

48
Q

Lung cancer screening via low-dose chest CT is recommended for those between […] to […] years old who have a > 30-pack-year history and are current smokers/quit within the last 15 years.

A

Lung cancer screening via low-dose chest CT is recommended for those between 55 to 80 years old who have a > 30-pack-year history and are current smokers/quit within the last 15 years.

49
Q

Lung cancer screening via […] is recommended for those between 55 to 80 years old who have a > 30-pack-year history and are current smokers/quit within the last 15 years.

A

Lung cancer screening via low-dose chest CT is recommended for those between 55 to 80 years old who have a > 30-pack-year history and are current smokers/quit within the last 15 years.

50
Q

Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease is associated with peripheral […] resistance.

A

Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease is associated with peripheral insulin resistance.

leads to increased peripheral lipolysis and thus increased hepatic uptake of fatty acids

51
Q

PAS-positive material in the lamina propria of the small intestine is a classic biopsy finding of […].

A

PAS-positive material in the lamina propria of the small intestine is a classic biopsy finding of Whipple’s disease.

52
Q

Patients who complain of persistent abdominal pain after cholecystectomy should be evaluated for […] syndrome.

A

Patients who complain of persistent abdominal pain after cholecystectomy should be evaluated for post-cholecystectomy syndrome.

evaluated via abdominal imaging (e.g. ultrasound) followed by direct visualization (e.g. ERCP, MRCP) to find the causative factor; etiologies include both biliary (e.g. retained CBD) or extra-biliary (e.g. pancreatitis) causes

53
Q

Patients with enzyme deficiencies (e.g. pancreatic insufficiency) will have […] levels of urinary D-xylose.

A

Patients with enzyme deficiencies (e.g. pancreatic insufficiency) will have normal levels of urinary D-xylose.

D-xylose is a monosaccharide that only depends on viable mucosa (not enzymatic breakdown) for absorption in the proximal small bowel

54
Q

Patients with hepatopulmonary syndrome typically have increased dyspnea or O2 desaturation while […] (lying down or upright).

A

Patients with hepatopulmonary syndrome typically have increased dyspnea or O2 desaturation while upright (lying down or upright).

known as platypnea and orthodeoxia, respectively

55
Q

Patients with small intestinal mucosal disease (e.g. Celiac) will have […] levels of urinary D-xylose.

A

Patients with small intestinal mucosal disease (e.g. Celiac) will have decreased levels of urinary D-xylose.

D-xylose is a monosaccharide that only depends on viable mucosa (not enzymatic breakdown) for absorption in the proximal small bowel

56
Q

Pellagra is due to vitamin […] deficiency.

A

Pellagra is due to vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency.

often seen with impaired nutritional intake (developed countries) or in developing countries that subsist primarily on corn products

57
Q

Pharmaceutical treatment for Wilson disease includes zinc and […].

A

Pharmaceutical treatment for Wilson disease includes zinc and copper chelators (e.g. D-penicillamine, trientine).

58
Q

Pleural fluid analysis in Boerhaave syndrome is typically exudative with low PH and very high […] (> 2,500 IU/L).

A

Pleural fluid analysis in Boerhaave syndrome is typically exudative with low PH and very high amylase (> 2,500 IU/L).

due to saliva in the esophageal contents

59
Q

Porcelain gallbladder is associated with an increased risk for […] and usually requires cholecystectomy.

A

Porcelain gallbladder is associated with an increased risk for gallbladder adenocarcinoma and usually requires cholecystectomy.

often found in patients with chronic cholecystitis

60
Q

Primary biliary cholangitis is an autoimmune disease characterized by destruction of […]-hepatic bile ducts.

A

Primary biliary cholangitis is an autoimmune disease characterized by destruction of intra-hepatic bile ducts.

61
Q

Rotor syndrome and Dubin-Johnson syndrome are characterized by elevated levels of […] bilirubin with normal LFTs and CBC.

A

Rotor syndrome and Dubin-Johnson syndrome are characterized by elevated levels of conjugated bilirubin with normal LFTs and CBC.

due to a defect in hepatic secretion of conjugated bilirubin into the biliary system

62
Q

Serum triglycerides generally must be > […] mg/dL to cause pancreatitis.

A

Serum triglycerides generally must be > 1,000 mg/dL to cause pancreatitis.

can also cause eruptive xanthomas; diagnosis confirmed with a fasting serum lipid profile

63
Q

Should patients with cirrhosis undergo a screening endoscopy for varices?

A

Yes

64
Q

Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth may be diagnosed via carbohydrate breath testing or […] aspirate/culture.

A

Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth may be diagnosed via carbohydrate breath testing or jejunal aspirate/culture.

65
Q

The absolute values of AST and ALT in alcoholic hepatitis are almost always [] IU/L.

A

The absolute values of AST and ALT in alcoholic hepatitis are almost always less than 500 IU/L.

usually < 300 IU/L (versus other causes of hepatitis, which cause much greater elevations)

66
Q

The Charcot triad for acute cholangitis consists of […], […], and […].

A

The Charcot triad for acute cholangitis consists of fever, jaundice, and RUQ pain.

also may have hypotension and altered mental status (Reynolds pentad)

67
Q

The Charcot triad for […] consists of fever, jaundice, and RUQ pain.

A

The Charcot triad for acute cholangitis consists of fever, jaundice, and RUQ pain.

also may have hypotension and altered mental status (Reynolds pentad)

68
Q

The diagnosis of carcinoid syndrome can be confirmed by elevated 24-hour urinary […] in most patients.

A

The diagnosis of carcinoid syndrome can be confirmed by elevated 24-hour urinary 5-HIAA in most patients.

69
Q

The diagnosis of esophageal perforation is confirmed with Gastrografin-contrast esophagram or […] (if esophagram results are equivocal).

A

The diagnosis of esophageal perforation is confirmed with Gastrografin-contrast esophagram or CT (if esophagram results are equivocal).

Gastrografin is water-soluble contrast that is preferred over barium (barium can induce an inflammatory response)

70
Q

The most common causes of acute liver failure are […] and acute viral hepatitis.

A

The most common causes of acute liver failure are drug toxicity and acute viral hepatitis.

71
Q

The most common causes of acute liver failure are drug toxicity and […].

A

The most common causes of acute liver failure are drug toxicity and acute viral hepatitis.

72
Q

The presence of an “abdominal succussion splash” suggests a diagnosis of […].

A

The presence of an “abdominal succussion splash” suggests a diagnosis of gastric outlet obstruction.

the physician places the stethoscope over the upper abdomen and rocks the patient back and fourth at the hips; definitive diagnosis requires endoscopy

73
Q

The presence of elevated serum gastrin (> 1000 pg/mL) with normal gastric acid (pH < 4) suggests a diagnosis of […] syndrome.

A

The presence of elevated serum gastrin (> 1000 pg/mL) with normal gastric acid (pH < 4) suggests a diagnosis of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome.

a gastrin level < 110 pg/mL rules out gastrinoma; values in between 110 - 1000 pg/mL require secretin stimulation testing

74
Q

The presence of IgA anti-endomysial and anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies are highly predictive of […] disease.

A

The presence of IgA anti-endomysial and anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies are highly predictive of celiac disease.

absence does not rule out celiac disease as many patients have concurrent selective IgA deficiency

75
Q

The presence of pancreatic calcifications on abdominal imaging helps establish a diagnosis of […].

A

The presence of pancreatic calcifications on abdominal imaging helps establish a diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis.

76
Q

The primary inciting event of acute cholecystitis is typically a gallstone obstructing the […], with subsequent inflammation and infection.

A

The primary inciting event of acute cholecystitis is typically a gallstone obstructing the cystic duct, with subsequent inflammation and infection.

77
Q

The symptoms of carcinoid syndrome may be remembered with the mnemonic “Be FDR”:

Be: […]

F: Flushing

D: Diarrhea

R: Right-sided heart disease

A

The symptoms of carcinoid syndrome may be remembered with the mnemonic “Be FDR”:

Be: Bronchospasm

F: Flushing

D: Diarrhea

R: Right-sided heart disease

78
Q

The symptoms of carcinoid syndrome may be remembered with the mnemonic “Be FDR”:

Be: Bronchospasm

F: […]

D: Diarrhea

R: Right-sided heart disease

A

The symptoms of carcinoid syndrome may be remembered with the mnemonic “Be FDR”:

Be: Bronchospasm

F: Flushing

D: Diarrhea

R: Right-sided heart disease

79
Q

The symptoms of carcinoid syndrome may be remembered with the mnemonic “Be FDR”:

Be: Bronchospasm

F: Flushing

D: […]

R: Right-sided heart disease

A

The symptoms of carcinoid syndrome may be remembered with the mnemonic “Be FDR”:

Be: Bronchospasm

F: Flushing

D: Diarrhea

R: Right-sided heart disease

80
Q

The symptoms of carcinoid syndrome may be remembered with the mnemonic “Be FDR”:

Be: Bronchospasm

F: Flushing

D: Diarrhea

R: […]

A

The symptoms of carcinoid syndrome may be remembered with the mnemonic “Be FDR”:

Be: Bronchospasm

F: Flushing

D: Diarrhea

R: Right-sided heart disease

81
Q

The symptoms of pellagra can be remembered as the “3 D’s”:

D: […]

D: Diarrhea

D: Dementia

A

The symptoms of pellagra can be remembered as the “3 D’s”:

D: Dermatitis (hyperpigmented, scaly skin in sun-exposed areas)

D: Diarrhea

D: Dementia