Gi and Nutrition II Flashcards

1
Q

The symptoms of pellagra can be remembered as the “3 D’s”:

D: Dermatitis (hyperpigmented, scaly skin in sun-exposed areas)

D: […]

D: Dementia

A

The symptoms of pellagra can be remembered as the “3 D’s”:

D: Dermatitis (hyperpigmented, scaly skin in sun-exposed areas)

D: Diarrhea

D: Dementia

causes include malnutrition, isoniazid use, carcinoid syndrome (due to deficiency of tryptophan), and Hartnup disease (impaired absorption of tryptophan)

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2
Q

The symptoms of pellagra can be remembered as the “3 D’s”:

D: Dermatitis (hyperpigmented, scaly skin in sun-exposed areas)

D: Diarrhea

D: […]

A

The symptoms of pellagra can be remembered as the “3 D’s”:

D: Dermatitis (hyperpigmented, scaly skin in sun-exposed areas)

D: Diarrhea

D: Dementia

causes include malnutrition, isoniazid use, carcinoid syndrome (due to deficiency of tryptophan), and Hartnup disease (impaired absorption of tryptophan)

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3
Q

The symptoms of Whipple’s disease may be remembered with the mnemonic “Whipped cream in a CAN”:

C: […]

A: arthralgias

N: neurologic symptoms

A

The symptoms of Whipple’s disease may be remembered with the mnemonic “Whipped cream in a CAN”:

C: cardiac symptoms

A: arthralgias

N: neurologic symptoms

other common symptoms are lymphadenopathy, chronic cough, and GI symptoms

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4
Q

The symptoms of Whipple’s disease may be remembered with the mnemonic “Whipped cream in a CAN”:

C: cardiac symptoms

A: […]

N: neurologic symptoms

A

The symptoms of Whipple’s disease may be remembered with the mnemonic “Whipped cream in a CAN”:

C: cardiac symptoms

A: arthralgias

N: neurologic symptoms

other common symptoms are lymphadenopathy, chronic cough, and GI symptoms

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5
Q

The symptoms of Whipple’s disease may be remembered with the mnemonic “Whipped cream in a CAN”:

C: cardiac symptoms

A: arthralgias

N: […]

A

The symptoms of Whipple’s disease may be remembered with the mnemonic “Whipped cream in a CAN”:

C: cardiac symptoms

A: arthralgias

N: neurologic symptoms

other common symptoms are lymphadenopathy, chronic cough, and GI symptoms

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6
Q

Toxic megacolon is a medical emergency that requires nasogastric decompression, antibiotics, IV fluids +/- […] (if IBD associated).

A

Toxic megacolon is a medical emergency that requires nasogastric decompression, antibiotics, IV fluids +/- steroids (if IBD associated).

if the colitis does not resolve, emergency surgery may be required

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7
Q

Weight loss, jaundice, and a non-tender, distended gallbladder are consistent with tumors in the […] of the pancreas.

A

Weight loss, jaundice, and a non-tender, distended gallbladder are consistent with tumors in the head of the pancreas.

other symptoms include pruritus, pale stools, and dark urine (obstructive jaundice)

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8
Q

What acid-base disturbance is classically found in patients with laxative abuse?

A

Metabolic alkalosis

versus the metabolic acidosis typically found with diarrhea

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9
Q

What age should patients with average risk of colon cancer begin screening?

A

50 years

either with fecal occult blood testing, flexible sigmoidoscopy, or colonoscopy

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10
Q

What anti-seizure medication is a common cause of drug-induced pancreatitis?

A

Valproic acid

other common drug classes include diuretics and antibiotics (e.g. metronidazole)

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11
Q

What antibiotic regimen is used to treat fulminant C. difficile colitis?

A

IV metronidazole + oral vancomycin

fulminant disease includes patients with shock, hypotnesion, ileus, or megacolon; rectal vancomycin may be used in patients with ileus

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12
Q

What antibiotic should be started for patients with a first episode of non-fulminant C. difficile colitis?

A

Oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin

oral metronidazole may be used if the above agents are unavailable

note: these are NEW guidelines (2018), older guidelines may list metronidazole as the first-line treatment

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13
Q

What antibiotic should be started for patients with a first recurrence of C. difficile colitis?

A

Oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin

use whichever antibiotic was not used for the initial infection (e.g. if initial infection treated with vancomycin, treat with fidaxomicin)

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14
Q

What antibody is associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A

p-ANCA

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15
Q

What antibody is characteristically elevated in primary biliary cholangitis?

A

Anti-mitochondrial antibody

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16
Q

What are first-line agents (2) used to lower NH3 levels in hepatic encephalopathy?

A

lactulose and rifaximin

neomycin may be used to treat HE in patients unresponsive to lactulose and unable to tolerate rifaximin

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17
Q

What AST:ALT ratio is indicative of heavy alcohol use?

A

>2:1 AST:ALT

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18
Q

What AST:ALT ratio is typically seen in non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)?

A

< 1 AST:ALT

useful distinguishing feature from alcoholic hepatitis, which is characterized by >2:1 AST:ALT ratio

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19
Q

What biliary disease is characterized by a “beads-on-a-string” appearance on imaging?

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

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20
Q

What characteristics (growth pattern, histology) of colonic adenomatous polyps suggest greater malignant potential?

A

sessile growth and villous histology

other signs of malignant potential include large size (> 1 cm) and high number (> 3 concurrent adenomas)

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21
Q

What class of analgesics are associated with pill esophagitis?

A

NSAIDs

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22
Q

What class of antibiotics is associated with pill esophagitis?

A

Tetracyclines

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23
Q

What class of osteoporosis drugs are associated with pill esophagitis?

A

Bisphosphonates

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24
Q

What combined antibiotic regimen can be used for C. difficile colitis in patients with multiple recurrences?

A

Vancomycin followed by rifaximin

alternatives to this treatment option include oral vancomycin (prolonged course), oral fidaxomicin, or fecal microbiota transplant

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25
Q

What CT or ultrasound finding is often found in patients with acute cholangitis?

A

Common bile duct dilation

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26
Q

What cutaneous findings (2) arise due to hyperestrinism in cirrhotic patients?

A

palmar erythema and spider angiomas

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27
Q

What diagnosis should be suspected in patients with multiple duodenal ulcers refractory to treatment or ulcers distal to the duodenum?

A

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

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28
Q

What dietary habits decrease the risk of diverticulosis complications (e.g. hemorrhage, diverticulitis)?

A

High fiber intake

physical activity is also inversely correlated with the risk of complications

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29
Q

What dietary habits increase the risk of diverticulosis complications (e.g. hemorrhage, diverticulitis)?

A

Heavy meat consumption

NSAIDs, obesity, and possibly smoking are also correlated with increased complications

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30
Q

What does an abnormal Reitan trail test (timed connect-the-numbers test) indicate?

A

Altered mental status

useful for detecting subtle mental status changes

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31
Q

What does colonoscopy reveal in a patient with irritable bowel syndrome?

A

Normal colonic mucosa

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32
Q

What hormone analog is useful for the treatment of variceal hemorrhage?

A

Octreotide (somatostatin analog)

causes splanchnic vasoconstriction and reduces portal blood flow by inhibiting release of glucagon; prophylactic antibiotics (e.g. IV ceftriaxone) should be administered as well

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33
Q

What IBD complication presents with colonic dilation on X-ray and fever, tachycardia, leukocytosis, and/or anemia?

A

Toxic megacolon

may also have severe bloody diarrhea; highest risk of developing toxic megacolon is early on in the disease

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34
Q

What imaging modality is most useful for diagnosing acute pancreatitis if laboratory testing is unclear?

A

Contrast-enhanced CT scan

nearly 30% of patients have an ileus with bowel gas that prevents ultrasound from fully visualizing the pancreas

35
Q

What imaging modality is preferred for detecting pancreatic head tumors (e.g. jaundiced patients)?

A

Abdominal ultrasound

if ultrasound is not diagnostic, CT scan may be used

36
Q

What imaging modality is preferred for detecting pancreatic tumors of the body/tail (e.g. non-jaundiced patients)?

A

Abdominal CT scan

ultrasound is less sensitive for visualizing the pancreatic body/tail due to overlying bowel gas

37
Q

What imaging modality is preferred for diagnosis of chronic mesenteric ischemia?

A

CT angiography

38
Q

What imaging modality is preferred for the diagnosis of acalculous cholecystitis?

A

Ultrasound

abdominal CT scan or HIDA scans are more sensitive and specific; use if US is unclear

39
Q

What imaging modality is recommended to evaluate patients with suspected gallstone pancreatitis?

A

Ultrasound (RUQ)

CT is not as sensitive as US for detecting gallstones

40
Q

What imaging modality is used to aid in the diagnosis of toxic megacolon?

A

Abdominal X-ray

diagnosis made by radiologic evidence of colonic distention with manifestations of severe systemic toxicity (e.g. fever, tachycardia, leukocytosis, anemia)

41
Q

What imaging study is used to confirm the diagnosis of a colovesical fistula?

A

Abdominal CT with oral or rectal contrast (not IV)

42
Q

What imaging test is used to evaluate bright red blood per rectum in a patient < 40 years old with no risk factors for CRC?

A

Anoscopy

43
Q

What imaging test is used to evaluate bright red blood per rectum in a patient > 50 years old or < 50 years old with risk factors for CRC?

A

Colonoscopy

44
Q

What imaging test is used to evaluate bright red blood per rectum in patients 40 - 49 years old with no risk factors for CRC?

A

sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy

45
Q

What infectious disease should be considered in patients with regional pain without evidence of disease in local internal organs?

A

Herpes zoster (Shingles)

the pain may precede the rash by several days

46
Q

What inherited disorder should patients with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome be screened for?

A

MEN1

i.e. assays for parathyroid hormone, ionized calcium, and prolactin

47
Q

What is the appropriate interpretation of the following serological test results:

HBsAg: Negative

Anti-HBs: Positive

Anti-HBc: Negative

Anti-HBe: Negative

A

What is the appropriate interpretation of the following serological test results:

HBsAg: Negative

Anti-HBs: Positive

Anti-HBc: Negative

Anti-HBe: Negative

Vaccinated for HBV

48
Q

What is the appropriate interpretation of the following serological test results:

HBsAg: Negative

Anti-HBs: Positive

Anti-HBc: Positive

Anti-HBe: Negative

A

What is the appropriate interpretation of the following serological test results:

HBsAg: Negative

Anti-HBs: Positive

Anti-HBc: Positive

Anti-HBe: Negative

Resolved HBV infection

49
Q

What is the appropriate interpretation of the following serological test results:

HBsAg: Negative

Anti-HBs: Positive

Anti-HBc: Positive

Anti-HBe: Positive

A

What is the appropriate interpretation of the following serological test results:

HBsAg: Negative

Anti-HBs: Positive

Anti-HBc: Positive

Anti-HBe: Positive

Recovery phase HBV infection

presence of anti-HBe indicates recovery phase rather than full recovery

50
Q

What is the appropriate interpretation of the following serological test results:

HBsAg: Positive

Anti-HBs: Negative

IgG Anti-HBc: Positive

Anti-HBe: Negative

A

What is the appropriate interpretation of the following serological test results:

HBsAg: Positive

Anti-HBs: Negative

IgG Anti-HBc: Positive

Anti-HBe: Negative

Chronic HBV infection

51
Q

What is the cause of hypotension in severe acute pancreatitis?

A

Increased vascular permeability

release of activated pancreatic enzymes and inflammatory mediators leads to widespread vasodilation and vascular permeability

52
Q

What is the colonoscopy screening recommendation for patients with familial adenomatous polyposis?

A

begin at age 10-12; repeat every year

53
Q

What is the colonoscopy screening recommendation for patients with family history of CRC?

A

begin at age 40 or 10 years before age of first diagnosis in the relative; repeat every 3-5 years

54
Q

What is the colonoscopy screening recommendation for patients with inflammatory bowel disease?

A

begin 8 years post-diagnosis; repeat every 1-2 years

may begin at 12-15 years post-diagnosis if only left colon involved; prophylactic colectomy is advised if dysplasia is identified

55
Q

What is the colonoscopy screening recommendation for patients with Lynch syndrome (HNPCC)?

A

begin at age 20-25; repeat every 1-2 years

56
Q

What is the first test/imaging study that should be ordered to diagnose pancreatitis in a patient with acute epigastric abdominal pain that radiates to the back?

A

Serum amylase and lipase

if amylase or lipase is > 3x normal, may not need confirmatory imaging for diagnosis

57
Q

What is the first-line treatment for autoimmune hepatitis?

A

Oral glucocorticoids

58
Q

What is the first-line treatment for diffuse esophageal spasm?

A

Calcium channel blockers (e.g. diltiazem)

alternatives include nitrates or TCAs

59
Q

What is the first-line treatment for giardiasis?

A

Metronidazole

60
Q

What is the initial management for a patient with suspected GERD who has a bitter taste, substernal chest pain, dysphagia and weight loss?

A

Endoscopy

endoscopy is preferred over a PPI trial in patients with alarm symptoms (e.g. weight loss, GI bleed) or men age > 50 with > 5 years of symptoms or cancer risk factors (e.g. smoking)

61
Q

What is the initial management for a young patient with suspected GERD who has a bitter taste and substernal chest pain after meals?

A

PPI trial

62
Q

What is the likely cause of a solitary liver lesion in a patient with iron deficiency anemia and positive fecal occult blood screen?

A

Liver metastasis (from CRC)

while multiple hepatic nodules are typically seen, solitary lesions are not uncommon

63
Q

What is the likely diagnosis for a patient with an acute, massive increase in AST/ALT in the setting of hypotension?

A

Ischemic hepatic injury (shock liver)

characterized by massive increases in AST/ALT with only modest elevations in total bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase

64
Q

What is the likely diagnosis for a patient with atherosclerosis who complains of postprandial epigastric pain, food aversion, and weight loss?

A

Chronic mesenteric ischemia

“intestinal angina”; usually due to atherosclerosis of the celiac or superior mesenteric arteries

65
Q

What is the likely diagnosis for a solid liver mass in a young woman on oral contraceptives?

A

Hepatic adenoma

typically seen as a well-demarcated, hyperechoic lesion

66
Q

What is the likely diagnosis for an adult with episodic, painless dark maroon-colored stool?

A

Angiodysplasia

typically right-sided (versus diverticulosis, which is typically left-sided with passage of bright red blood); anemic patients may be treated with cautery

67
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a female with frequent, watery, nocturnal diarrhea and melanosis coli on colonoscopy?

A

Factitious diarrhea (laxative abuse)

typically in a healthcare worker; diagnosis is supported by positive stool screen for laxatives

68
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a middle-aged man with fatigue, pruritus, ulcerative colitis, and elevated alkaline phosphatase?

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

69
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a middle-aged woman with fatigue, pruritus, hepatomegaly, and xanthelasmas?

A

Primary biliary cholangitis

PBC is commonly associated with severe hyperlipidemia (elevation of HDL out of proportion to LDL), hence the xanthelasmas

70
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a patient on warfarin who complains of weakness and back pain with new-onset anemia (CT below)?

A

Retroperitoneal hematoma

71
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a patient status-post Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery who presents with abdominal bloating, diarrhea, and macrocytic anemia?

A

Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth

macrocytic anemia due to vitamin B12 and folate deficiencies

72
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a patient who has symptoms of malabsorption with villous atrophy on small-bowel biopsy?

A

Celiac disease

73
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with a history of alcohol use and chronic, intermittent epigastric abdominal pain that is relieved by leaning forward?

A

Chronic pancreatitis

other common symptoms include steatorrhea, weight loss, and diabetes

74
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with abdominal pain and hematemesis following recent use of alcohol, aspirin, and cocaine?

A

Acute erosive gastropathy

characterized by development of severe hemorrhagic lesions after exposure to various injurious agents

75
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with chronic, episodic epigastric pain that suddenly worsens (X-ray findings below)?

A

Perforated peptic ulcer

76
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with cirrhosis and ascites who presents with low-grade fever, diffuse abdominal discomfort, and AMS?

A

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

may also have paralytic ileus, hypotension, and hypothermia with severe infection; thought to occur due to translocation of enteric organisms across the intestinal wall

77
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with diverticulosis, pneumaturia, and frequent UTI?

A

Colovesical fistula

78
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with episodes of dysphagia, regurgitation, and chest pain with radiation to the back that is precipitated by emotional stress?

A

Diffuse esophageal spasm

symptoms may be relieved by nitrates or calcium channel blockers, which relax myocytes in the esophagus

79
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with extensive alcohol use who presents with severe retrosternal pain and subcutaneous emphysema after vomiting?

A

Esophageal perforation (Boerhaave syndrome)

other symptoms include dyspnea, odynophagia, and signs of sepsis; it is a surgical emergency

80
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with fever, jaundice, tender hepatomegaly, and AST:ALT ratio > 2?

A

Alcoholic hepatitis

81
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with GERD who complains of difficulty swallowing solid foods and has symmetric, circumferential narrowing on barium swallow?

A

Esophageal stricture

other causes of peptic strictures include radiation, systemic sclerosis, and caustic ingestion; biopsy is necessary to rule out malignancy (typically asymmetric narrowing)

82
Q
A
83
Q
A
84
Q
A