Gi and Nutrition III Flashcards

1
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with melena and epigastric abdominal pain that is relieved with eating?

A

Peptic ulcer disease (duodenal ulcer)

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2
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with obesity and diabetes who presents with hepatomegaly and mildly elevated LFTs in the absence of other causes for secondary hepatic fat accumulation?

A

Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)

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3
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with recent travel history who develops foul-smelling stools, abdominal cramps, and bloating?

A

Giardiasis

common in rural areas and developing countries

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4
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with severe RUQ/shoulder pain that occurs after fatty meals and resolves within 6 hours?

A

Biliary colic

quick resolution and lack of fever, abdominal tenderness on palpation, and leukocytosis help distinguish this process from acute cholecystitis

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5
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with sudden-onset odynophagia and retrosternal pain with a discrete ulcer in the mid-esophagus?

A

Pill esophagitis

mid-esophagus most common due to compression by the aortic arch or an enlarged left atrium

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6
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a young patient with liver disease and neuropsychiatric symptoms?

A

Wilson disease

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7
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a young woman with alternating constipation/diarrhea and chronic abdominal pain that is relieved after a bowel movement?

A

Irritable bowel syndrome

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8
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in an alcoholic who presents with epigastric pain and hematemesis following multiple episodes of vomiting (normal X-ray)?

A

Mallory-Weiss tear

i.e. a longitudinal tear in the mucosa often near the GE junction; most heal spontaneously

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9
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in an elderly man with dysphagia, regurgitation, halitosis, and aspiration?

A

Zenker’s diverticulum

treatment is generally surgical

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10
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in an elderly patient with chronic constipation, LLQ abdominal pain, fever, and leukocytosis?

A

Acute diverticulitis

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11
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in an elderly patient with conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, elevated alkaline phosphatase, and painless jaundice?

A

Malignant biliary obstruction

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12
Q

What is the likely underlying cause of peptic ulcer disease in a patient who has emigrated from a low-income country?

A

H. pylori infection

symptoms include dyspepsia, nausea, and post-prandial fullness

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13
Q

What is the likely underlying etiology of ascites if the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) is > 1.1 g/dL?

A

Portal hypertension

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14
Q

What is the most common cause of esophageal rupture?

A

Endoscopy

other common causes include severe retching (Boerhaave syndrome) and penetrating trauma

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15
Q

What is the most common cause of gross lower GI bleeding in adults?

A

Diverticulosis

typically painless but may be associated with lightheadedness and hemodynamic instability with large-volume bleeds; usually resolves spontaneously

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16
Q

What is the most common site of colon cancer metastasis?

A

Liver

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17
Q

What is the most common source of liver metastases?

A

Colorectal cancer

in addition to tumors of the GI tract, lung and breast tumors also commonly metastasize to the liver

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18
Q

What is the most significant environmental risk factor for pancreatic cancer?

A

Smoking

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19
Q

What is the next step after an endoscopic biopsy is positive for gastric adenocarcinoma?

A

CT scan of abdomen/pelvis

imaging helps with disease staging, which determines prognosis and treatment options

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20
Q

What is the next step for establishing the diagnosis in a patient with conjugated hyperbilirubinemia and predominantly elevated alkaline phosphatase?

A

Abdominal imaging (US or CT)

presence of biliary dilatation is suggestive of extrahepatic cholestasis; absence of biliary dilatation suggests intrahepatic

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21
Q

What is the next step in management for a patient with acetaminophen toxicity that develops worsening acute liver failure despite N-acetylcysteine treatment?

A

Refer to liver transplant center

this is an ethically complicated issue, however, if there is no history of psychiatric illness or previous suicide attempt, liver transplantation is typically pursued

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22
Q

What is the next step in management for an elderly patient with newly discovered iron deficiency anemia?

A

colonoscopy and endoscopy

new IDA in an elderly patient is considered to be from GI blood loss until proven otherwise

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23
Q

What is the preferred diagnostic test for giardiasis?

A

Stool antigen assay

stool microscopy for oocysts and trophozoites may be used in resource-poor settings

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24
Q

What is the preferred initial study to evaluate patients with suspected oropharyngeal dysphagia?

A

Videofluroscopic modified barium swallow

evaluates swallowing mechanics, degree of dysfunction, and severity of aspiration

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25
Q

What is the recommended management for variceal hemorrhage if there is continued bleeding after endoscopic therapy?

A

Balloon tamponade (until TIPS or shunt surgery)

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26
Q

What is the recommended management for variceal hemorrhage if there is no further bleeding after endoscopic therapy?

A

Secondary prophylaxis (beta blocker) with repeat endoscopic band ligation 1-2 weeks later

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27
Q

What is the standard triple therapy for the treatment of H. pylori infection?

A

PPI, clarithromycin, and amoxicillin

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28
Q

What is the test of choice for confirming the diagnosis of Zenker’s diverticulum?

A

Barium esophagram

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29
Q

What is the treatment for acute pancreatitis from uncorrectable causes (e.g. ischemia, atheroemboli)?

A

analgesics and IV fluids (supportive care)

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30
Q

What is the underlying cause of edema in patients with cirrhosis?

A

Hypoalbuminemia (synthetic dysfunction)

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31
Q

What is the underlying cause of esophageal/anorectal varices and caput medusae in patients with cirrhosis?

A

Portal hypertension

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32
Q

What is the underlying cause of fat malabsorption in patients with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

A

pancreatic enzyme inactivation

due to excess gastric acid in the small intestine

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33
Q

What is the underlying cause of megaloblastic, macrocytic anemia in an alcoholic with elevated methylmalonic acid levels?

A

Cobalamin (B12) deficiency

elevated methylmalonic acid level is more sensitive in detecting B12 deficiency than serum vitamin levels alone

34
Q

What is the underlying cause of megaloblastic, macrocytic anemia in an alcoholic with normal methylmalonic acid levels?

A

Folate (B9) deficiency

35
Q

What is the underlying cause of splenomegaly in patients with cirrhosis?

A

Portal hypertension

the spleen drains into the portal vein via the splenic vein

36
Q

What is the underlying cause of testicular atrophy and gynecomastia in patients with cirrhosis?

A

Hyperestrinism

other manifestations include spider angiomas, palmar erythema, and loss of sexual hair

37
Q

What is the underlying etiology behind most MALT lymphomas of the stomach?

A

H. pylori infection

those with early-stage MALT lymphoma and confirmed H. pylori infection typically achieve complete remission with antibiotic treatment

38
Q

What is the underlying etiology of gallstones in patients on total parenteral nutrition?

A

Gallbladder stasis

proteins and fatty acids in the duodenum normally stimulate release of CCK which then stimulates gallbladder contraction; this stimulus is absent in TPN (typically manifests after > 2 weeks of TPN)

39
Q

What musculoskeletal pathologies are associated with primary biliary cholangitis?

A

osteoporosis/osteomalacia

precise etiology is not clear; other complications include malabsorption and hepatocellular carcinoma

40
Q

What pathological finding is found in the CT scan below (arrow)?

A

Porcelain gallbladder

41
Q

What pharmaceutical therapy is recommended for prophylactic treatment of non-bleeding esophageal varices?

A

Non-selective beta blockers (e.g. propanolol, nadolol)

endoscopic variceal ligation can be used as an alternate primary prevention therapy in patients with contraindications to beta blockers or those with large esophageal varices

42
Q

What pharmaceutical treatment is helpful for delaying the progression of primary biliary cholangitis?

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid

should be initiated as soon as the diagnosis of PBC is made; patients with advanced disease may require liver transplantation

43
Q

What procedure should be done prior to endoscopic treatment in patients with upper GI bleed who have a depressed level of consciousness and continued hematemesis?

A

Endotracheal intubation

these patients are at high risk for aspiration and must have their airway protected before upper endoscopy

44
Q

What serologic marker for HBV is indicative of infectivity?

A

HBeAg

45
Q

What serologic marker for HBV remains positive throughout the window period?

A

IgM anti-HBc

may be the only diagnostic marker for acute HBV infection during this time

46
Q

What serologic markers (2) should be measured to diagnose acute HBV infection?

A

HBsAg and IgM anti-HBc

both are elevated during the initial infection and anti-HBc

47
Q

What surgical procedure is preferred for biliary drainage for patients with acute cholangitis?

A

ERCP with sphincterotomy

other options include percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography and open surgical decompression

48
Q

What test can be used to evaluate for gastrinoma in patients with non-diagnostic serum gastrin levels?

A

Secretin stimulation test

a rise in gastrin levels following secretin administration indicates gastrinoma

49
Q

What test is most accurate for diagnosis of achalasia?

A

Esophageal manometry

findings include high LES resting pressure and incomplete LES relaxation; barium esophagram is sometimes used as an initial test

50
Q

What test is used to differentiate between achalasia and pseudo-achalasia?

A

Endoscopy

thus, endoscopy is recommended to exclude malignancy in all patients with suspected achalasia

51
Q

What test is used to establish the diagnosis of diffuse esophageal spasm?

A

Esophageal manometry

findings include repetitive, non-peristaltic, high-amplitude contractions

52
Q

What test is used to establish the diagnosis of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A

Paracentesis

diagnostic criteria: positive ascites fluid culture and PMN > 250/mm3; should be done before antibiotic therapy, which often results in negative ascites cultures

53
Q

What test/imaging study is used for diagnosis of acute diverticulitis?

A

Abdominal CT scan (oral and IV contrast)

sigmoid- and colonoscopy are contraindicated due to risk of perforation

54
Q

What test/imaging study is used to diagnose a Mallory-Weiss tear?

A

Endoscopy

55
Q

What test/imaging study is used to diagnose esophageal cancer?

A

Endoscopy with biopsy

may use CT or PET/CT for staging

56
Q

What test/procedure is used to exclude malignancy in patients diagnosed with achalasia?

A

Endoscopy

57
Q

What tuberculosis drug is most commonly associated with liver injury?

A

Isoniazid

idiosyncratic injury with histological features similar to those seen with viral hepatitis (e.g. hepatic cell necrosis, mononuclear infiltration)

58
Q

What tuberculosis drug occasionally causes pellagra?

A

Isoniazid

isoniazid may interrupt niacin metabolism secondary to vitamin B6 deficiency

59
Q

What vaccinations are especially important in patients with chronic HCV infection?

A

HAV and HBV

helps prevent further liver damage

60
Q

What vitamin/mineral supplements (2) are associated with pill esophagitis?

A

potassium chloride and iron

61
Q

Which diuretics (2) are first-line therapy for cirrhotic ascites?

A

furosemide and spironolactone

62
Q

Which form of dysphagia, oropharyngeal or esophageal, is characterized by coughing, choking, or nasal regurgitation on swallowing?

A

Oropharyngeal

63
Q

Which form of inflammatory bowel disease is characterized by continuous colonic involvement?

A

Ulcerative colitis

64
Q

Which form of inflammatory bowel disease is characterized by mucosal inflammation and crypt abscesses on biopsy?

A

Ulcerative colitis

65
Q

Which form of inflammatory bowel disease is characterized by non-continuous colonic involvement (skip lesions)?

A

Crohn disease

can involve any part of the GI tract from mouth to anus

66
Q

Which form of inflammatory bowel disease is characterized by transmural inflammation and non-caseating granulomas on biopsy?

A

Crohn disease

67
Q

Which form of inflammatory bowel disease may present with aphthous ulcers and perianal skin tags/fissures?

A

Crohn disease

68
Q

Which form of inflammatory bowel disease typically spares the rectum?

A

Crohn disease

69
Q

Which is more common, primary liver cancer or metastasis to the liver?

A

Metastasis to the liver

the most common sources of metastasis are the GI tract, lung, and breast

70
Q

Which laboratory value, amylase or lipase, is more sensitive (and useful) for diagnosis of acute pancreatitis?

A

Lipase

71
Q

Which side of the colon (right or left) does angiodysplasia typically occur?

A

Right

versus diverticulosis, which typically arises on the left

72
Q

Which trace mineral deficiency manifests as brittle hair, neurologic dysfunction, and sideroblastic anemia?

A

Copper deficiency

risk factors for deficiency include malabsorption, bowel resection, poor nutritional intake, and parenteral nutrition

73
Q

Which trace mineral deficiency manifests as impaired taste, alopecia, and pustular skin rash?

A

Zinc deficiency

other features of zinc deficiency include hypogonadism, impaired wound healing, and immune dysfunction; risk factors for deficiency include malabsorption, bowel resection, poor nutritional intake, and parenteral nutrition

74
Q

Which trace mineral deficiency manifests as thyroid dysfunction and cardiomyopathy?

A

Selenium deficiency

risk factors for deficiency include malabsorption, bowel resection, poor nutritional intake, and parenteral nutrition

75
Q

Which type of esophageal cancer is associated with GERD, Barrett esophagus, and obesity?

A

Adenocarcinoma

76
Q

Which type of esophageal cancer is associated with smoking and heavy alcohol consumption?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

77
Q

Zenker diverticulum occurs due to posterior herniation between the fibers of the […] muscle.

A

Zenker diverticulum occurs due to posterior herniation between the fibers of the cricopharyngeal muscle.

immediately above the upper esophageal sphincter

78
Q

[…] syndrome results from intrapulmonary vascular dilations in the setting of chronic liver disease.

A

Hepatopulmonary syndrome results from intrapulmonary vascular dilations in the setting of chronic liver disease.

79
Q

[…] describes a narrowing of the distal esophagus secondary to causes other than denervation.

A

Pseudo-achalasia describes a narrowing of the distal esophagus secondary to causes other than denervation.

e.g. malignancy; clues pointing to pseudo-achalasia include significant weight loss, rapid symptom onset (< 6 months), presentation at age > 60

80
Q

Cholesterol emboli may result in skin complications, such as […] (pictured below) and blue toe syndrome.

A

Cholesterol emboli may result in skin complications, such as livedo reticularis (pictured below) and blue toe syndrome.

81
Q

[…] emboli may result in skin complications, such as livedo reticularis (pictured below) and blue toe syndrome.

A

Cholesterol emboli may result in skin complications, such as livedo reticularis (pictured below) and blue toe syndrome.