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Private Lecture > Private Pilot Oral Exam > Flashcards

Private Pilot Oral Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What are the eligibility requirements to become a private pilot?

A

Atleast 17 years old
Read, Speak, Write, and understand English
Third Class Medical Minimum
Received required ground and flight endorsements
Pass the knowledge and practical tests

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2
Q

As a private pilot, what documents must you have on your person to fly?

A

Government Issued ID
Current Medical
Pilots License

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3
Q

Can you get paid to fly an airplane?

A

No, not as a private pilot.

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4
Q

Are you allowed to split cost when flying an airplane as a private pilot?

A

Yes. Pro-rate share

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5
Q

What is a TAA aircraft?

A

Technically Advanced Airplane
- equipped with atleast a moving map display, an IFR approved GPS navigator, and an autopilot.

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6
Q

What makes an airplane “complex” & are you allowed to fly one?

A

A retractable gear
Flaps
A controllable pitch propeller
Receive proper training and endorsement

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7
Q

What makes an aircraft “high performance” & are you allowed to fly one?

A

A aircraft above 200 HP
NO - need 200 flight hours, and have Completed ground & flight training + endorsement

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8
Q

Are you allowed to fly a tail wheel airplane when you get your private pilots license?

A

If one has received an endorsement

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9
Q

What are the currency requirements to carry passengers during the day vs night.

A

3 takeoffs and landings during the day - day
3 takeoffs and landings to a full stop during at night - night

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10
Q

Do you have to log all flights that you go on?

A

No, only training and experience needed to meet certification standards

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11
Q

What are your personal minimums & why is it important to have personal minimums?

A

Tot Wind - 11-15
Crosswind - 6-10
Vis 5 or more miles

Maneuvers 3500 Feet
Clouds atleast 3000AGL (4000 MSL)
Establishes standards to stop you from flying in dangerous weather.

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12
Q

If you move, how many days do you have to notify the FAA of your address change?

A

30 days

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13
Q

What type of medical do you have & how long is it good for?

A

First Class - 12 Months
First Class but with third class privileges - 48 more months
60 Months Total

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14
Q

If you are over 40, how does it affect the length that your medical is valid for?

A

First Class - 6 Months, additional 18 months third class

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15
Q

Are you allowed to fly while taking medication? How would you verify?

A

Yes, as long as the FAA deems it safe. Should always check on the FAA website.

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16
Q

What is basic med? As a private pilot, can you fly using basic med? How would you obtain? What are some limitations?

A

BasicMed is an alternate way for pilots to fly without a medical certificate. (Former Medical after 7/14/06 and driver’s license). Fill out a form and take to doctor+ taking a course. Yes
- less than 6 occupants
- less than 6000lbs
- under 250kts & 18000 MSL

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17
Q

What documents are required on board the airplane?

A

Airworthiness Certificate
Registration
Radio Operators License (if applicable)
POH
Weight and Balance

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18
Q

Does the airplanes airworthiness certificate expire?

A

No

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19
Q

For an aircraft to be considered airworthy, what conditions must be met?

A

It meets approved type design
It’s in a condition for safe operation
Maintenance and alterations are performed with accordance to FAR 21, 43, 91

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20
Q

Where must the airworthiness certificate be located?

A

At the cabin/cockpit entrance so that it is legible to passengers and/or crew

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21
Q

Who is responsible for making sure an aircraft is maintained to airworthy condition?

A

Owner/Operator

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22
Q

How long is the registration on a plane good for?

A

7 years

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23
Q

When is a radio station license required?

A

When traveling international and/or coming into the country.

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24
Q

What are Airworthiness Directives? Are they mandatory? How many types are there?

A

Legally enforceable rules issued by the FAA to correct unsafe condition in a product. Yes. 2 -
- Final Rule
- Emergency AD’s

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25
Q

What is a Service Bulletin? Are they mandatory?

A

Change in procedures in the original recommended method of service, issued by manufacturer. Possibly.

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26
Q

What is a Supplemental Type Certificate?

A

a type certificate issued when an applicant has received FAA approval to modify an aeronautical product from its original design.

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27
Q

What are the required test and inspections for our aircraft?

A

Annual Inspection
VOR every 30 days (IFR only)
100 Hour (For Hire only)
Altimeter/Pitostatic System (Every 24 Calendar Months)
Transponder (Every 24 Calendar Months)
ELT (Every 12 Calendar Months) unless
- ELT has been on for over 1 hour
- or battery dropped below 50% capacity

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28
Q

Do all airplanes require 100 hour inspections?

A

No, only for hire planes.

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29
Q

Can you fly past a 100 hour inspection?

A

Yes, if required to move plane to be inspected. May need to prove it wasn’t for hire. Also, if the plane passes 100 hour during flight it can still be flown until landed.
- can only go 10hr past after alr airborne.

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30
Q

If an airplane is past its required annual inspection, is there a way to legally fly it to another airport for an inspection?

A

Yes, with a ferry permit. - Contact local FSDO

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31
Q

What type of Aircraft Mechanic must sign off on an annual inspection?

A

Only a Certified Mechanic holding an inspection authorization.

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32
Q

Can you legally fly an airplane with inoperative equipment?

A

Yes, but always check the CEL to make sure.

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33
Q

What is a MEL? Do we have one? What is a CEL? Do we have one?

A

Minimum Equipment List. No
Comprehensive Equipment List. Yes, in POH

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34
Q

What equipment is required for VFR Day flight? VFR night flight?

A

Airspeed Indicator
Tachometer
Oil Pressure
Manifold Pressure
Altimeter
Temp Gauge
Oil Temp Gauge
Fuel Gauge
Landing Gear Position Indicator
Anti-collision Lights
Magnetic Compass
ELT
Seatbelts
-
Fuses (Spare)
Landing Light
Anti-collision Lights
Position Lights
Source of Power

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35
Q

What are some examples of preventative maintenance? Are student pilots or private pilots allowed to do preventative maintenance?

A
  • remove and install tires
  • Replenish Hydraulic Fluid
  • replace safety belts
  • oil changes
    Part 43 Appendix A Paragraph C
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36
Q

Are airplanes allowed to be flown past engine TBO times?

A

Yes, as long as you meet the mandatory service bulletins and airworthy directives.

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37
Q

What are the different types of weather briefings?

A

Standard
Outlook
Abbreviated

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38
Q

What is a legal weather briefing? And does ForeFlight satisfy the requirements?

A

Refer to 91.103 FAR/AIM. Yes, if you download briefing (120 days).

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39
Q

What is a METAR? Are there different types? Are they forecasts or observations?

A

Meteorological Aerodrome Report. 2 types, METAR and SPECI - issued if dangerous conditions emerge. Observation

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40
Q

What is a TAF? Are they forecasts or Observations?

A

Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts

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41
Q

What area does a TAF cover?

A

5 statute mile radius

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42
Q

What type of weather conditions define VFR vs Marginal VFR weather?

A

VFR - ceilings greater than 3000ft and visibility greater than 5sm.
MVFR - 1-3k feet, & or visibility 3-5 Miles

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43
Q

What are the different types of AIRMETs & what type of weather would you expect with each type?

A

Zulu - Moderate Icing and/or freezing levels
Tango - Turbulence or sustained winds greater than 30kts
Sierra - IFR Flight rules and mountain obstructions

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44
Q

What is a SIGMET & what types of weather could you expect?

A

Non-convective. Severe icing, turbulence, volcanic ash, dust/sand storms that reduce visibility to less than 3 miles.

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45
Q

What is a Convective SIGMET & what types of weather could you expect? How long are the valid for?

A
  • Embedded Thunderstorms
  • Line of thunderstorms
  • Thunderstorms with heavy precipiation that affects visibility with an area of atleast 3000 square miles
    Surface Winds 50+ Knots due to severe thunderstorm
    Hail 3/4+ inches in Diameter
    Tornadoes
    2 Hours
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46
Q

Do SIGMETs forecast moderate or severe conditions? Are they hazardous to all aircraft? How long are they valid for?

A

Severe. All. 4 Hours

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47
Q

Do AIRMETs forecast moderate or severe conditions? Are they hazardous to all aircraft? How long are they valid for?

A

Moderate. Smaller Aircraft. 6 Hours

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48
Q

What types of clouds, turbulence, precipitation, & visibility would you expect in a stable vs unstable atmosphere?

A

Stable - stratus clouds, less turbulent, continuous prec., less vis.
Unstable - cumulous clouds, more turbulent, spotty prec., more vis

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49
Q

What are the different types of weather fronts? And what types of conditions would you expect with each front?

A

Warm - stratus clouds, less turb., less vis.
Cold - cumulous clouds, more turb., more vis.
Occluded - When a faster moving cold front meets a slower moving warm front.
Stationary - Warm & cold front pushed against each other, mixture of both weather that sticks around.

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50
Q

What is a trough? What does the symbol look like?

A

Elongated low pressure area, Area if rising air. - not good - orange dashed line

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51
Q

What is a ridge? What does the symbol look like?

A

Elongated high pressure area, long hollowed out area. - area of descending air, better weather, scaley symbol.

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52
Q

What are isobars?

A

Lines on map that connect areas of the same pressure.

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53
Q

What is wind shear? And why is it a concern to pilots?

A

Sudden, drastic change in wind speed and/or direction over a very small area. Can cause violent updrafts, downdrafts, and horizontal movement.

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54
Q

How do low & high pressures flow?

A

Low - in, rise, counterclockwise
High - out, sinks, clockwise

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55
Q

What are the 4 levels of turbulence?

A

Light - Slight Bumpiness
Moderate - Bumpiness, however aircraft remains in positive control at all times.
Severe - Severe Bumpiness, can cause momentary loss of control.
Extreme - Extreme Bumpiness, may cause structural damage to aircraft.

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56
Q

What conditions are needed for a thunderstorm to form?

A

Moisture, Lifting Force, Unstable Atmosphere

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57
Q

What are the 3 stages of a thunderstorm?

A

Cumulous, mature, dissipating

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58
Q

Why are thunderstorms dangerous?

A

Can produce extreme turbulence, hail, wind sheer, blinding downpours, gusting winds. Downdrafts/Updrafts 6000+fpm

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59
Q

What are microbursts?

A

Small scale, intense local downdrafts

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60
Q

What are the 3 types of structural icing?

A

Clear - after initial impact the remaining liquid portion flows over wings gradually freezing.
Rime - supercooled droplets freeze on impact.
Mixed

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61
Q

Define the term “Freezing level”.

A

Lowest level if their is freezing temperatures

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62
Q

Why is icing dangerous? What would you do if you ever encountered icing?

A

Spoils the smooth flow of air around the airfoil. Turn on Pitot Heat, decrease altitude.

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63
Q

What is a temperature inversion?

A

a layer in the atmosphere in which temperature increases with height

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64
Q

What are some different types of fog?

A

Radiation - Ground cools rapidly, causing the air to cool above it, most common in valleys, lakes and other low areas.
Advection - Warm moist air moves over a cooler surface, most common in coastal areas.
Upslope - moist air is forced up a slope, as air rises it cools and condenses to form fog
Freezing - temp below freezing causing water droplets in fog to freeze on contact with ground or other surfaces.
Steam- When a cold air mass moves over a warm and moist surface.
Precipitation Induced - when relatively warm rain falls through cool air.

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65
Q

If your air intake on the front of the airplane got completely blocked by ice, would the airplane still run?

A

Yes, alternate air intake would pop open.

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66
Q

Why is frost hazardous to flight? When would you expect it to form?

A

disrupts the smooth flow of air around the airfoil. When visible moisture is present and temps are below freezing.

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67
Q

What information should you be familiar with before all flights?

A

Any that could possibly affect the safety of the flight 91.103
- Weather
- NOTAMs
- Runway Lengths
- Performance Data
- W&B

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68
Q

What are NOTAMs?

A

Notice to Air Missions. Concern the establishment, condition or change of any component. (facility, service, procedure, hazards)(NWKRAFT)

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69
Q

What are some good & bad examples of landmarks to use when using pilotage or dead reckoning?

A

Good - Powerplants, Towns, Large Rivers
- Bad Train Tracks, Powerlines, smaller roads

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70
Q

What is the lowest altitude a pilot may fly over a US wildlife refuge or national park?

A

2,000 ft AGL

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71
Q

What is magnetic variation?

A

the angle between true and magnetic north

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72
Q

What are isogonic lines? What do they mean to you?

A

lines drawn showing areas with equal magnetic variation.

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73
Q

What is magnetic deviation? How do we account for it?

A

Deviation caused by magnetic fields in the aircraft. check the deviation card below compass.

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74
Q

What is a VFR flight plan? How do you use one?

A

Can file on foreflight and can also open and close on foreflight. Also, open and close via FSS.

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75
Q

What is a DVFR flight plan, & when would it be used?

A

If you are flying internationally or crossing a ADIZ.

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76
Q

Can you file flight plans on ForeFlight? Can you open and close them on ForeFlight?

A

Yes

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77
Q

If landing at a towered field will the control tower automatically close your VFR flight plan?

A

No, can only close IFR flight plans

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78
Q

What is flight following, & how does it differ from a VFR flight plan?

A

In radar coverage & and in communication with ATC during flight following. VFR flight plan doesn’t require either.

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79
Q

What is a VOR & how do you use one?

A

Ground Based Radio NAV Aid.

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80
Q

What indication will you get prior to crossing over a VOR? Then what indication once you are past the VOR?

A

Cone of confusion. Swinging then full scale deflection, To-From Switch as you cross over

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81
Q

What are the different types of VOR inspections?

A

Dual

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82
Q

Give a brief description of how the GPS in our airplane works? What is a WASS & RAIM?

A

RAIM - 4 Satellites + a 5th to ensure a Satellite isn’t faulty
WASS - 3 Satellites + Ground Based NAV

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83
Q

What is a ADSB?

A

ADSB-Outs broadcast an enhanced GPS position to the ground.
ADSB receivers receive this information at ATC.

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84
Q

What are the transponder codes for: Emergency, Radio Failure, & Hijacking?

A

7500 - Hijacking
7600 - Radio Failure
7700 - Emergency

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85
Q

Are you allowed to drop stuff from an airplane?

A

Yes, if necessary and doesn’t create hazard to person or property.

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86
Q

Are you allowed to participate in formation flying?

A

Yes, if certain conditions are met

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87
Q

What is the minimum safe altitude you may operate over a congested or non-congested area?

A

1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2000ft

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88
Q

What should you do if there is no altimeter setting available before your flight?

A

set to field elevation.

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89
Q

What is the speed limit for aircraft operating below 10,000’?

A

250 kts

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90
Q

What is the speed limit for aircraft operating in class B airspace?

A

250 kts

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91
Q

What are the VFR Day & Night fuel requirements?

A

Day - 30 min extra
Night - 45 min extra

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92
Q

At what altitude do the VFR cruising altitudes start?

A

3,000 ft AGL

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93
Q

When must supplemental oxygen be used on an aircraft?

A

12,500 - required min crew - 30 min oxy required
14,000 - required min crew must be on at all times
15,000 - everyone including passengers must be on

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94
Q

Are parachutes ever required to be worn while flying?

A

during aerobatic flight if a passenger is present
- 30 degree up or down, or 60 degree+ bank

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95
Q

As a private pilot are you allowed to fly in Class A Airspace?

A

No

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96
Q

What altitude does Class A airspace start & end? What type of airspace is above Class A?

A

18,000-60,000 feet MSL. Class E

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97
Q

What is the height of class E airspace in the practice area?

A

Ground to 18,000 Feet MSL

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98
Q

Where does Class airspace start at I69 & how can you tell?

A

Magenta ring = 700 AGL
no-magenta = 1200 AGL

99
Q

What are the VFR cloud clearance requirements?

A

B - 3sm, clear of clouds
C-E - 3sm 500ft below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal
G - 1sm 500ft below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal
—
E night - 5sm, 1sm above/below, 1sm horizontal

100
Q

What are the entry & equipment requirements for Class B airspace? What is the height generally speaking?

A

ATC Clearance, 2-Way Radio Communication, Mode-C Transponder, ADSB-Out. 10,000 Feet MSL

101
Q

What are the entry & equipment requirements for Class C airspace? What is the height generally speaking?

A

2-Way Radio Communication, Mode-C Transponder, ADSB-Out. 4,000 Feet AGL

102
Q

What are the entry & equipment requirements for Class D airspace? What is the height generally speaking?

A

2-Way Radio Communication. 2,500 Feet AGL

103
Q

If a tower is closed at class D airport, are you allowed to land?

A

Yes, however treat as non-towered field. Unless NOTAM stating not allowed to land.

104
Q

What is a special VFR? As a private pilot are you allowed to use it?

A

provides takeoffs and landings in conditions below basic VFR weather minimums. Yes, if its daylight out, however shouldnt.

105
Q

What are military training routes? Be prepared to show examples on the sectional.

A

routes in which military aircraft regularly fly low and fast = brown line on sectional

106
Q

What is a TFR? What are some examples of why one may be issued.

A

Temporary Flight Restrictions. Natural Disasters, Sporting Events, Emergency or national emergency situations, presidential travel.

107
Q

What is a TRSA? Can you fly in one as a private pilot?

A

Terminal Radar Service Areas. Yes

108
Q

How do you tell if an airport is Class E to the surface?

A

A Magenta Dashed line is present on a sectional

109
Q

What is a ADIZ? Are you allowed to cross one?Are their any equipment requirements?

A

Air Defense Identification Zone. Yes but a IFR or DVFR flight plan must be in use. Two way radio comms and Mode-C Transponder

110
Q

How do you tell if an airport has a rotating beacon?

A

Star on sectional

111
Q

How do you tell if an airport has right traffic pattern?

A

“RP” on sectional

112
Q

How do you tell if an airport has services?

A

Has “Tick” Marks

113
Q

What color are towered vs non-towered airports on a sectional?

A

Towered - Blue
Non-Towered - Pink

114
Q

How can you tell on a sectional if an airport is paved runway or grass?

A

Circle is filled in if paved, empty circle is grass

115
Q

What do VFR checkpoints on a map look like?

A

Little Flags

116
Q

What do VORs on a sectional look like?

A

Grey/ White Ring

117
Q

What factors affect takeoff and landing performance?

A

Temperature. Humidity.

118
Q

What are the differences between Vy & Vx?

A

Vy - Best Rate of Climb
Vx - Best Angle of Climb

119
Q

What is Vno & what is that speed?

A

Maximum Structural Cruising Speed - 129

120
Q

What is Vne & what is that speed?

A

Never Exceed Speed - 163

121
Q

What is Va & what is that speed? Does the speed change?

A

Maneuvering Speed - 105 - Changes based off weight

122
Q

What is Vso & what is that speed?

A

Stall Speed in Landing Configuration - 40

123
Q

What is Vs & what is that speed?

A

Stall Speed in Cruise Configuration - 48

124
Q

Roughly how far can a 172 glide at best glide speed for each 1000 feet lost of altitude loss?

A

1.5 nautical miles

125
Q

What are the differences between pressure & density altitude?

A

Density Altitude accounts for variations in standard temperature

126
Q

What are the 4 forces acting on an airplane?

A

Lift - Weight
Drag - Thrust

127
Q

What is the angle of attack?

A

Angle Between the wing chord line and relative wind

128
Q

What is the relative wind?

A

opposite the direction of flight

129
Q

What is Bernoulis principle?

A

When velocity increases, pressure decreases

130
Q

What are the 4 left turning tendencies of an aircraft?

A

P-Factor - Tendency for the aircraft to yaw to the left due to the descending propeller blade creating more thrust than the ascending
Torque Effect - yawing direction that is created as the internal engine parts all revolve in the same direction , equal force is trying to rotate aircraft in opposite direction
Spiraling - Propeller creates a “spiral” of air that goes around the aircraft eventually hitting the left side of the rudder
Gyroscopic Precession - More prevelent in tail draggers

131
Q

What is maneuvering speed?

A

Speed at which the aircraft will stall before it receives structural damage

132
Q

What causes an airplane to stall?

A

Exceeding the Critical AOA or too low airspeed

133
Q

When are spins most likely to occur?

A

Slow, High AOA, and while being cross-controlled

134
Q

How do you recover from a spin?

A

Throttle Idle
Ailerons Neutral
Rudder Opposite Direction
Push nose down

135
Q

What is ground effect? What are the good and bad parts about ground effect?

A

Condition of improved performance encountered when an aircraft is operating very close to the ground.
Good - Reduced Drag, Increased Lift, decreased stall speed
Bad - May “Float” or be unable to climb once off ground.

136
Q

How did you find the empty weight of your airplane?

A

Sporties Academy

137
Q

What does the term CG mean to you?

A

Center of Gravity, where you could balance the aircraft on a point

138
Q

What does the term Arm mean to you?

A

Position relative to the Datum Line

139
Q

How do you calculate the moment?

A

Weight x Arm

140
Q

What is the maximum takeoff weight for your aircraft?

A

2550 lbs

141
Q

What effect on flight would a forward CG have?

A

More stable, higher stall speed, more back pressure needed

142
Q

What effect on flight would a aft CG have?

A

Less elevator forces, Less stable, higher stall speed, harder to recover from a stall

143
Q

How do the flight controls on your aircraft work?

A

Cables

144
Q

What is the purpose of flaps?

A

increase angle of descent without increasing airspeed

145
Q

How do the brakes work?

A

Hydraulic

146
Q

How many logbooks are there for our airplane?

A

3 - Airframe, Propeller, Engine

147
Q

Should be fly with the logbooks?

A

No

148
Q

How do we verify maintenance and inspections have been completed before flying?

A

Check dispatch sheet

149
Q

What are squawks? How do you find if there are any on our airplane?

A

serves as a communication tool between pilots and maintenance.

150
Q

What are the 4 strokes of an engine?

A

Intake, Compression, Ignition, Exhaust

151
Q

What type of engine do we have?

A

LY Coming IO 360 L2A, 4 Cylinder, Fuel Injected, Horizontally Opposed, 360 Cubic Centimeter Displacement

152
Q

Why do we have 2 magnetos?

A

To increase engine performance and incase one fails

153
Q

When checking our magnetos, what is the max RPM drop we are looking for?

A

150 RPMs

154
Q

What are some of the things that oil does for our engine?

A

Lubricate, Cool, Protect, Clean

155
Q

How much fuel does our airplane hold?

A

56 Gallons (53 Useable)

156
Q

How many fuel pumps do we have?

A

2

157
Q

How many vents do we have in our fuel system?

A

3

158
Q

Where is the fuel system diagram located? Be prepared to show & explain it.

A

POH

159
Q

What type of fuel does our aircraft use? What color is it?

A

AVGAS. Blue

160
Q

What are some of the other fuel types & their associated colors?

A

Jet A&B - Clear
Octane 80&100 - Green and Red

161
Q

Will our airplane run on jet fuel? Why is it important to make sure we have the correct fuel?

A

Yes, will run long enough to get airborne but will subsiquently shut down. Prevent engine damage and maximize fuel economy

162
Q

Describe the electrical system for our airplane?

A

24 Volt Battery. 28 Volt System. 60 Amp Belt Driven Alternator

163
Q

If our battery dies in flight, what should happen? Will the airplane still run?

A

We will lose our electrical components + flaps. Yes

164
Q

What would you do if you saw discharge on the ammeter in flight?

A

Cycle the alternator (masterswitch)

165
Q

How does the heater work on our airplane?

A

Pulls heat off the exhaust shroud.

166
Q

What are the differences between anti-ice & de-ice equipment? Do we have either one?

A

Anti-icing equipment is turned on prior to entering icing conditions while de-icing equipment is designed to remove already existing ice from the airframe

167
Q

What is detonation?

A

an explosive ignition of the fuel-air mixture

168
Q

What is pre-ignition?

A

hot spot in engine cylinder which causes the fuel-air mixture to ignite premature.

169
Q

What would you do if you observed low oil pressure in flight, but the oil temperature gauge looked fine?

A

Reduce engine power and immediately divert to closest airport (establish Vglide)

170
Q

What would you do if your airplane started losing power during flight?

A

Pick a suitable landing spot and establish Vglide

171
Q

What would you do if you experienced an engine fire in flight?

A

Mixture Out
Fuel Shutoff Valve Out
Fuel Pump Off
Drop Nose to increase airspeed to 100+ knots to extinguish
Execute a Forced Landing

172
Q

What would you do if you experienced an electrical fire in flight?

A

All Electical Components Off Except Ignition
Masterswitch Off
Vents Heat/Air Closed
Spray Fire Extinguisher above your feet

173
Q

What would you do if you experienced engine failure in flight?

A

Immediately Establish Vg and pick Suitable landing Site
Fuel Selector Both
Fuel Shutoff Valve In
Mixture As Required
Fuel Pump On
Magnetos Start

174
Q

What are the pitot static instruments on our airplane? Are all the instruments connected to the pitot tube?

A

Airspeed, Altimeter, Vertical Speed Indicator. No, only Airspeed

175
Q

If our pitot tube freezes over, is there anything we can do?

A

turn Pitot Heat on

176
Q

If our pitot system becomes blocked, is there anything we can do?

A

turn Pitot Heat on

177
Q

What are the different types of airspeed?

A

Indicated - uncorrected airspeed read directly from airspeed indicator
True - speed of an aircraft relative to undisturbed air
Groundspeed - Indicated Airspeed adjusted for your ground track (wind speeds, instrument and position errors)
Calibrated - is the indicated airspeed of an aircraft corrected for position and instrument error

178
Q

What do the color coded marks on the airspeed indicator mean?

A

Different Speed Ranges

179
Q

Does our airplane have a vacuum system? Why or why not?

A

No. Now G5. Vacuum Systems are unreliable

180
Q

What are the gyroscopic instruments? How do they work?

A

Attitude Indicator, Heading Indicator, Turn Coordinator,

181
Q

How does the magnetic compass work?

A

Filled with kerosine that continuously points towards north

182
Q

What are some of the errors of the magnetic compass?

A

Variation, Deviation
Dip
Oscillation
Acceleration - ANDS
Northerly Turning Error - NOSE

183
Q

What is hypoxia & what are the symptoms? What are the 4 different types of hypoxia?

A

lack of oxygen. fatigue, muscle weakness,

184
Q

What would you do if you or a passenger was suspected to be suffering from hypoxia?

A

decrease altitude

185
Q

What is hyperventilation?

A

rapid breathing caused by anxiety or panic

186
Q

What would you do if you had a passenger that was hyperventilating?

A

Make them breathe into paper bag and if needed let them pass out

187
Q

What is carbon monoxide poisoning & what are the symptoms

A

Poisoning caused by breathing in large amounts of carbon dioxide. Headache, dizziness, blurred vision, muscle weakness

188
Q

When would carbon monoxide poisoning be more likely? Do our airplanes have anything to warn us? What would you do if you suspected it?

A

When cabin heat is in use. Orange Dot. Turn off Cabin Heat open windows

189
Q

What is spacial disorientation? What might cause it?

A

lack of orientation with regard to the position, attitude, or movement of the airplane in space. Being inside clouds

190
Q

What are the differences between acute & chronic fatigue?

A

Acute is normal and short term, normally from food and sleep.
Chronic is long term and normally has psychological roots or disease.

191
Q

How will a pilot’s performance be affected by fatigue or stress?

A

degrade the attention and concentration, impair coordination, and decrease our ability to communicate

192
Q

Why is it important to stay hydrated while flying?

A

can lead to dehydration, which can cause discomfort and fatigue

193
Q

What are some optical illusions that you might experience when landing?

A
194
Q

Can you go flying after scuba diving?

A

Yes, - if flight is below 8,000 MSL,
didnt require controlled descent - 12 hrs wait.
did require - wait 24 hours.
- if above 8,000 wait 24 hours regardless

195
Q

What are the regulations for pilots regarding the use of alcohol?

A

More than 8 hours since last drink
less than .04 BAC
No longer under influence

196
Q

Are you allowed to take an intoxicated passenger flying?

A

No

197
Q

Are you allowed to fly when taking over the counter medication? How would you verify?

A

Yes, if allowed by FAA. (Check their website)

198
Q

Explain single pilot resource management (SRM).

A

Set of skill competencies that must be evident in all tasks in this practical test standard as applied to single-pilot operation. - Making sure you are fully prepared and using all resources (pre & during flight)

199
Q

What are the 5Ps? And what are they for?

A

Plan
Plane
Pilot
Passengers
Programming

200
Q

Explain aeronautical decision making.

A

a Systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in a given set of circumstances.

201
Q

What is the DECIDE model & when would you use it?

A

Detect, Estimate, Choose, Identify, Do, Evaluate - Decision making and emergency situations

202
Q

What are the 5 hazardous attitudes & their antidotes?

A

Anti-Authority - Follow the rules, they’re usually right.
Impulsivity - Not so fast, think first.
Invulnerability - It could happen to me.
Macho - Taking chances is foolish.
Resignation - I’m not helpless, I can make a difference.

203
Q

Why is it important to use a checklist? What are the 2 different methods of checklist usage.

A

To ensure all steps are followed.
-Call-do Response
-Read-do & confirm checklist

204
Q

Explain situational awareness and why it is important.

A

Ability to perceive and comprehend the environment around you. Increases your anticipation of likely events.

205
Q

What is CFIT? And what are some factors that may increase the risk?

A

Controlled Flight Into Terrain
-VFR flying into IFR

206
Q

As a pilot how do you determine if you are fit to fly?

A

IMSAFE

207
Q

Who is responsible for determining if an airplane is safe and legal for flight?

A

Pilot in Command

208
Q

Where would you find the light gun signal chart?

A

Downloaded from Foreflight

209
Q

When flying at night, how can you tell what direction another airplane is heading?

A

Lights present on aircraft wind and tail
Red - Left
Green - Right
Continuous White - on back

210
Q

What are the two light sensitive cells in your eyes called? Which ones make night vision possible?

A

Rods - Detect Objects in shades of grey and Peripheral Items
Cones - Distinguish Color and Distant Items

RODS

211
Q

How long does it take your eyes to adapt to darkness?

A

30 Minutes

212
Q

What color lights should you use in the cockpit at night?

A

Red

213
Q

Are there any illusions that can happen at night?

A

False Horizon, Autokinesis

214
Q

When cruising above 5,000 feet at night, what does the AIM suggest?

A

Oxygen

215
Q

What colors are the rotating beacon at a regular airport?

A

white-green

216
Q

What colors are the rotating beacon at a military airport?

A

white-white-green

217
Q

When can you log night landings?

A

One hour after sunset-One hour before sunrise

218
Q

When can you log night flight hours?

A

When Civil Twilight Ends-beginning of morning twilight

219
Q

To carry passengers at night, what requirements must you meet?

A

3 takeoffs and landings at night

220
Q

What is an aircraft hot spot? How do you find them?

A

Where common mistakes happen on taxi diagram.

221
Q

What is a runway incursion?

A

Any occurrence in the airport runway environment involving an aircraft, person, vehicle, or object on the ground that creates a collision hazard.

222
Q

When taxiing at a towered field, when should you ask for progressive taxi instructions?

A

When you are unfamiliar with that airport

223
Q

What color are runway edge lights?

A

White

224
Q

What color are taxiway edge lights?

A

Blue

225
Q

If you are at a unfamiliar airport & the winds are calm how do you determine which runway to use?

A

Check if the airport has a preferred calm wind runway published in the Airport Directory.

226
Q

If two airplanes are approaching Clermont County Airport, which ones have right of way?

A

The one at the lower altitude

227
Q

In regard to different categories of aircraft which ones have the right of way?

A

balloon>glider>airship

228
Q

What is wake turbulence, & why is it a concern?

A

turbulence resulting from aircraft creating lift. Can damage aircraft, equipment, and people. Also can lead to loss of control

229
Q

If you are taking off behind a large airplane like a 747, what should you do? What should you do if landing behind a large airplane?

A

Go above and upwind from the larger airplanes flight path. Land beyond the larger aircrafts touchdown point.

230
Q

When taking off on runway 4 at Clermont, what marking must you pass before starting your takeoff? What is it called?

A

Orange Line - Demarkation Bar

231
Q

When landing on runway 4, what marking must you touchdown after? What is it called?

A

White Line - Displaced Threshold

232
Q

What do the 6 stripes below the number 4 on the runway mean? What are they called?

A

Threshold Bars - show how wide a runway is

233
Q

Looking at this picture, can you tell how wide the runway is?

A

No, but you can tell its a larger runway

234
Q

If a runway has an X painted on it, what does that mean?

A

Closed

235
Q

How long is a runway stripe?

A

120 feet long

236
Q

What are some scenarios that would require immediate notification to the NTSB?

A

Flight control system malfunctioned
Inability of crew member to perform normal duties
Failure of structural components
In-Flight Fire

237
Q

What is the difference between an accident and an incident?

A

accidents result in serious damage or losses while incidents do not result in either.

238
Q

What does the term serious injury mean?

A

Broken bones, internal injuries, or hospitalization for more than 48 hours

239
Q

What does the term substantial damage mean?

A

damage or failure which adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or characteristics.

240
Q

How do you file an accident or incident report? Within what time frame do you have to notify the NTSB?

A

Form 6120.1. 10 Days

241
Q

What is the ACS, & where can you find it?

A

Airmen Certification Standards - google “Private pilot ACS)

242
Q

What are the privileges and limitations of a Private Pilot Certificate?

A

Pro-rate Share
Salesmen (200 Hours)
Charity/Non-Profit
Rescue Operations
Incidental to Business
Production Test Flight
Towing a Glider
(PSCRIPT)
CANNOT BE PAID

243
Q
A

Private Lecture (23 decks)

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