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Private Lecture > Lessons 1 & 2 > Flashcards

Lessons 1 & 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is airworthy?

A

The Pilot in Command.

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2
Q

Who is responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition?

A

The owner/operator.

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3
Q

Who is the operator of an aircraft?

A

Person who is operating the aircraft.

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4
Q

Who is the owner of an aircraft?

A

Person who owns the aircraft.

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5
Q

What is the definition of Pilot in Command?

A

The pilot responsible for the operation and safety of an aircraft. Has final authority and responsibility for operation and safety of flight, determined pre-flight.

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6
Q

Are checklists required to be onboard for an aircraft to dispatch?

A

Yes.

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7
Q

What is the purpose of highlighted items on the checklist?

A

Action items that must be completed from memory.

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8
Q

What are the required documents on board any standard certificated aircraft?

A

Airworthiness Certificate.
Current Registration Certificate
Radio Station License, flights outside the US or planes greater than 12500lbs.
Operating Limitations
Current Weight and Balance Data
Compass Correction Card, if required
External Data Plate

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9
Q

Does the airworthiness certificate ever expire?

A

No, as long as the required maintenance and inspections are kept up to date.

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10
Q

What is the duration of federal registration? When must the weight and balance data card be reissued?

A

Fed - 7 Years
W&B - When items are added or removed.

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11
Q

Where can I find a list of placards that must be onboard the aircraft?

A

Pilot Operating Handbook Section 2

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12
Q

What are the hazardous attitudes and their antidotes?

A

Anti-Authority - Follow the rules, they’re usually right.
Impulsivity - Not so fast, think first.
Invulnerability - It could happen to me.
Macho - Taking chances is foolish.
Resignation - I’m not helpless, I can make a difference.

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13
Q

What does IMSAFE stand for?

A

Illness
Medication
Stress
Alcohol
Fatigue
Emotion/Eating

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14
Q

What does the DECIDE model stand for?

A

Detect
Estimate
Choose
Identify
Do
Evaluate

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15
Q

What should one do if they notice that something is inoperable in flight, to allow the next pilot to know?

A

Write it on the dispatch sheet under SQUAWKs.

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16
Q

Where is the fire extinguisher located?

A

Between the front seats.

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17
Q

What type of fuel does Sporty’s use?

A

100LL or AVGAS

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18
Q

What color should the aircrafts fuel be?

A

Blue

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19
Q

What is it often called when a pilot their capabilities and the aircrafts limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in low visibility and ceilings?

A

Scud Running.

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20
Q

Aeronautical Decision Making can be defined as -

A

a Systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in a given set of circumstances.

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21
Q

In the aeronautical decision making process, what is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude?

A

Recognizing hazardous thoughts.

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22
Q

What is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a non-controlled airport?

A

Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.

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23
Q

The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is?

A

to enter at 45 degrees at the midpoint of the downward leg at traffic pattern altitude.

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24
Q

When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used?

A

Ailerons down on the side from which the wind is blowing.

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25
Q

What aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds?

A

Ailerons up from the side which the winds are blowing.

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26
Q

What wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped high-wing aircraft?

A

Quartering Tailwind

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27
Q

How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle gear equipped plane into a left quartering tailwind?

A

Left aileron up, elevator neutral

28
Q

When do most mid-air accidents occur?

A

Clear days.

29
Q

The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway that the runway is oriented approximately -

A

90 and 270 degrees magnetic

30
Q

If an airport doesn’t have a wind indicator, what else can one use?

A

Smoke, Trees, Flags. AWOS, ATIS, METAR (if equipped)

31
Q

Describe a runway hold short line.

A

4 yellow lines, two solid followed by 2 dashed lines. Mark the runway boundary area.

32
Q

What must one do prior to crossing a hold short line at a non-controlled field?

A

Pilots must ensure adequate separation from other aircraft.

33
Q

What are the 5 W’s of radio communication?

A

Who you are talking to,
Who you are,
Where you are,
What do you want,
Who you are talking to (repeated).

34
Q

What are the legs of a traffic pattern?

A

Upwind, Crosswind, Downwind, Base, Final

35
Q

What are the appropriate traffic pattern exit procedures?

A
  1. Continue straight down the departure leg for atleast 500ft before making any turns.
  2. Depart 45 degrees off the departure leg in the direction of the traffic pattern at traffic pattern altitude.
36
Q

What is the difference between CTAF and UNICOM?

A

CTAF is used around non-controlled airports in order to allow pilots to give positioning reports to one another in the air.
UNICOM is an air to ground radio communication used primarily to provide airport information at public use airports.

37
Q

What is a runway incursion?

A

Any occurrence in the airport runway environment involving an aircraft, vehicle, person, or object on the ground that creates a collision hazard.

38
Q

List the various exterior lights and when they would be required to be in use.

A

Position Lights - Operated on the surface and while in flight from sunset to sunrise.
Anti-Collision/Strobe - Operated during all types of operations, day and night.
Rotating Beacons - Operated whenever aircraft engine is in operation.
Taxi Light - Operated prior to taxi, especially at night

39
Q

Describe the method for traffic scanning.

A

Systematic scanning using 10 degree increments.

40
Q

What aircraft has the right of way over all aircraft.

A

Aircraft in distress.

41
Q

What is the Clermont Practice area frequency?

A

122.75

42
Q

What are the 4 forces acting on a plane in flight?

A

lift, weight, drag, thrust

43
Q

When are the 4 forces in equilibrium?

A

In unaccelerated flight.

44
Q

What are the four flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft?

A

Straight & Level, Turns, Climbs, Descents

45
Q

The term angle of attack is defined as the angle -

A

between the wing chord line and the relative wing.

46
Q

What is the relationship between lift, weight, drag, and thrust when the airplane is in straight and level flight?

A

lift = weight
thrust = drag

47
Q

What are the 2 types of pressure Bernoulli recognized?

A

Static/Dynamic
Low/High

48
Q

How does Newtons third law have anything to do with lift?

A

Through Bernoulli’s Principle, lift is created by smooth airflow that hits the leading edge and separates, going over the top and under the airfoil. Since the air going over the top needs to move faster (due to the longer distance created by the curve of the airfoil) to meet the air going underneath, this creates a difference in pressure: low pressure on top and high pressure below. These two pressure differences are then what can explained through newtons third law. (every action has a equal and opposite reaction).

49
Q

What is AOA?

A

Defined as the acute angle between the chord line of the airfoil and direction of the relative wind.

49
Q

Lift is always produced perpendicular to what?

A

the relative wind
the flight path through the center of lift
the lateral axis

50
Q

What is induced drag and how is it created?

A

As a result of lift, the air tends to flow from the high pressure area below the wingtip upward to the low pressure area on the upper surface. Near the wingtips, there is a tendency for these pressures to equalize, resulting in a lateral flow outward from the underside to the upper surface. This creates vortices that trail behind the airfoil. These vortices are induced drag.

51
Q

What happens to induced drag as AOA increases?

A

As AOA increases, induced drag increases proportionally.

52
Q

The two types of drag are?

A

Parasite and Induced

53
Q

What happens to parasitic drag as airspeed increases.

A

Parasite drag increases as the square of the airspeed.

54
Q

What airspeed is achieved at the intersection of parasitic and induced drag?

A

(L/D) Max
Minimum Drag
- Best Glide Airspeed.

55
Q

What is a aerodynamic stall and what causes it to occur?

A

A stall is a rapid decrease in lift caused by the separation of airflow from the wings surface brought on by exceeding the critical AOA.

56
Q

What is a spin and what causes it to occur?

A

A spin is a aggravated stall condition that may result after a stall occurs. It occurs when at least one of the airplanes wings exceed the critical AOA with a sideslip or yaw acting on the airplane at, or beyond, the actual stall.

57
Q

What are the 4 left turning tendencies?

A

Torque effect
Spiraling
Gyroscopic Precession
P-Factor

58
Q

What is P-Factor and when is it most prevalent?

A

P-Factor is the tendency for an aircraft to yaw to the left due to the descending propellor blade on the right producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left. Most prevalent when the aircrafts longitudinal axis is in a climbing altitude in relation to the relative wind.

59
Q

What is torque effect?

A

the yawing direction that is created as the internal engine parts and propeller revolve in one direction, an equal force is trying to rotate the aircraft in the opposite direction.

60
Q

During descent how does P-factor affect the rudder required?

A

becomes less prevalant, will need less right rudder, possible will even have to use left rudder.

61
Q

What happens to lift during a turn?

A

lift is separated into horizontal and vertical components.

62
Q

What is the purpose of flaps?

A

Flaps provide an increase in lift and drag.

63
Q

An airplane will always stall when?

A

When an aircraft exceeds its critical AOA.

64
Q

How do you recover from a stall?

A

decrease your AOA.

65
Q

Describe how lift is created.

A

Lift is created by smooth airflow that hits the leading edge and separates, going over the top and under the bottom of an airfoil. Since the air going over the top of the wing needs to move faster (due to the longer distance created by the curve of the airfoil) to meet the air going underneath, this creates a difference in pressure: low pressure on top and high pressure below. This difference in pressure causes the two pressures to want to equalize, the high pressure moving “up” to meet the low pressure. This creates lift.

Private Lecture (22 decks)

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