practice questions

Question 1

Baby john was admitted with streptococcal pharyngitis. Upon discharge his mother was told to return to the doctors in 2 weeks with a urine specimen. The urine would mostly be examined

a) For fat and lipids to see if the kidneys are working
b) For protein to determine if acute glomerulonephritis is developing
c) To determine if the child is developing otitis media
d) To determine if the child should be kept on a liquid diet or progressed to a soft

Answer 1

b) For protein to determine if acute glomerulonephritis is developing

Question 2

Reduction of complications of rheumatic fever can be accomplished through which of the following interventions

a) Administration of penicillin to children with strep throat or impetigo
b) Beginning speech therapy to reserve damage after antibiotics are completed
c) Pushing children with chorea to perform activities requiring fine motor movement to strengthen muscles
d) Withholding salicylates to prevent joint haemorrhage

Answer 2

a) Administration of penicillin to children with strep throat or impetigo

Question 3

Newborns with heart disease are frequently brought to health professionals initially because the infant is having

a) Difficulty sleeping
b) Irritability and restlessness
c) Difficulty feeding
d) Cyanotic spells

Answer 3

c) Difficulty feeding

Question 4

Amy is 3 months old, with a 2 day history of vomiting. Which of the following is NOT indicative of a decreased hydration status

a) Sunken fontanelle
b) Decreased number of wet nappies
c) Skin that is hot to the touch
d) Increased heart rate

Answer 4

c) Skin that is hot to the touch

Question 5

Erikson’s theory of human development describes

a) Eight psychosocial crises all people are thought to face
b) Four psychosocial stages and a period of latency
c) The same number of stages as Freud but with different names
d) A stage theory that is not psychoanalytic

Answer 5

a) Eight psychosocial crises all people are thought to face

Question 6

According to Piaget, the stage of cognitive development that generally characterises pre school children is the

a) Preoperational stage
b) Sensorimotor stage
c) Oral stage
d) Psychosocial stage

Answer 6

a) Preoperational stage

Question 7

Pediculosis is common childhood infestation. It is commonly known as

a) Pin worms
b) Foot eczema
c) Head lice
d) Scabies

Answer 7

c) Head lice

Question 8

While caring for a child recovering from viral pneumonia, you examine his lungs for evidence of exudate and fluid. Which finding would suggest cause for concern

a) A respiratory rate of 20 heard on auscultation
b) Dullness of his lower lobes heard on percussion
c) A longer inspiratory than expiratory rate noticed on inspection
d) Fine rhonchi heart in the upper lobe on auscultation

Answer 8

b) Dullness of his lower lobes heard on percussion

Question 9

You take an infant’s apical pulse before administering digoxin. What is the usually accepted level of pulse rate considered safe for administering digoxin to an 8 month
old baby

a) 60 bpm
b) 80 bpm
c) 100 bpm
d) 150 bpm

Answer 9

c) 100 bpm

Question 10

Which of the following nursing diagnosis would best apply to a child with rheumatic fever

a) Ineffective breathing pattern related to cardiomegaly
b) Activity intolerance related to inability of heart to sustain extra workload
c) Sleep pattern disturbance related to hyperexcitability
d) High risk of violence related to development of cerebral anoxia

Answer 10

b) Activity intolerance related to inability of heart to sustain extra workload

Question 11

Which of the following statements is NOT true

a) Health professionals recommend exclusive breast feeding until the age of 4
months
b) Uterine involution is slowed by breast feeding
c) Almost all drugs are excreted to some extent in breast mild
d) Oxytocin is released by breastfeeding

Answer 11

b) Uterine involution is slowed by breast feeding

Question 12

Which of the following statements is NOT true of bacterial meningitis

a) Bacterial meningitis often presents with flu like symptoms initially
b) A rash may or may not be present
c) There is usually no associated temperature rise
d) A rash, if present, does not blanch under direct pressure

Answer 12

c) There is usually no associated temperature rise

Question 13

Fill in the gaps in the following statement
Type I (insulin dependent) diabetes is characterised by almost no __________ secretion. This contributes to a build up of __________ in the blood stream. If exogenous insulin is not administered __________ and __________ will develop

a) Insulin, glucose, hyperglycaemia and ketoacidosis
b) Glucose, insulin, hyperglycaemia and ketoacidosis
c) Glucose, insulin, hypoglycaemia, and unconsciousness
d) Insulin, hormones, ketoacidosis and unconsciousness

Answer 13

a) Insulin, glucose, hyperglycaemia and ketoacidosis

Question 14

Which of the following would the nurse explain to the mother of a child receiving digoxin (lanoxin) as the primary reason for giving this drug

a) To relax the walls of the hearts arteries
b) To improve the strength of the heartbeat
c) To prevent irregularities in ventricular contractions
d) To decrease inflammation of the heart wall

Answer 14

b) To improve the strength of the heartbeat

Question 15

The causative organism for rheumatic fever is

a) Haemophilus influenzae
b) Staphylococcus bacteria
c) Syncytial virus
d) Group A streptococcal bacteria

Answer 15

d) Group A streptococcal bacteria

Question 16

The most serious complication of rheumatic fever is

a) Endocarditis
b) Pneumonia
c) Arthritis
d) Meningitis

Answer 16

a) Endocarditis

Question 17

After teaching a group of school teachers about seizures, the teachers’ role play a scenario involving a child experiencing a generalised tonic clonic seizure. Which of the following actions, when performed first, indicates that the nurses teaching has been successful

a) Asking the other children what happened before the seizure
b) Moving the child to the nurses office for privacy
c) Removing any nearby objects that could harm the child
d) Placing a padded tongue blade between the child’s teeth

Answer 17

c) Removing any nearby objects that could harm the child

Question 18

Which of the following statements obtained from the nursing history of a toddler would alert the nurse to suspect the child has had a febrile seizure

a) The child has had a low grade fever for several weeks
b) The family history is negative for convulsions
c) The seizure resulted in respiratory arrest
d) The seizure occurred when the child had a respiratory infection

Answer 18

d) The seizure occurred when the child had a respiratory infection

Question 19

Which of the following, if described by the parents of a child with cystic fibrosis, indicates that the parents understand the underlying problem of the disease

a) An abnormality in the body’s mucus secreting glands
b) Formation of fibrous cysts in various body organs
c) Failure of the pancreatic ducts to develop properly
d) Reaction to the formation of antibodies against streptococcus

Answer 19

a) An abnormality in the body’s mucus secreting glands

Question 20

A father brings his 3 month old infant to the clinic, reporting that the infant has a cold, is having trouble breathing and just doesn’t seem to be acting right. Which of the following actions would the nurse do first

a) Check the infants heart rate
b) Weight the infant
c) Assess the infants oxygen saturation
d) Obtain more information from the father

Answer 20

c) Assess the infants oxygen saturation

Question 21

Which of the following would be an important assessment finding for an 8 month old infant admitted with severe diarrhoea

a) Absent bowel sounds
b) Pale yellow urine
c) Normal skin elasticity
d) Depressed anterior fontanel

Answer 21

d) Depressed anterior fontanel

Question 22

Which of the following would first alert the nurse to suspect that a child with severe gastroenteritis who has been receiving intravenous therapy for the past several hours may be developing circulatory overload

a) A drop in blood pressure
b) Change to slow, deep respirations
c) Auscultation of moist crackles
d) Marked increase in urine output

Answer 22

c) Auscultation of moist crackles

Question 23

The stool culture of a child with profuse diarrhoea reveals salmonella bacilli. After teaching the mother about the course of salmonella enteritis, which of the following statements by the mother indicates effective teaching

a) Some people become carriers and stay infectious for a long time
b) After the acute state passes, the organism is usually not present in the stool
c) Although the organism may be alive indefinitely, in time it will be of no danger to
anyone
d) If my child continues to have the organism in the stool, an antitoxin can help
destroy the organism

Answer 23

a) Some people become carriers and stay infectious for a long time

Question 24

A mother of a 1 month old infant state that she is curious as to whether her infant is developing normally. Which of the following developmental milestones would the nurse expect the infant to perform

a) Smiling and laughing out loud
b) Rolling from side to side
c) Holding a rattle briefly
d) Turning the head from side to side

Answer 24

d) Turning the head from side to side

Question 25

Which of the following age groups are most susceptible to meningococcal meningitis
a) Children below 5 years of age
b) Children between 3.6 years (preschool)
c) School age children
d) Adolescents

Answer 25

a) Children below 5 years of age

Question 26

Persons with an acute psychotic illness have most difficulty in
a) Meeting dependency needs
b) Maintaining grooming and personal hygiene
c) Distinguishing between reality and unreality
d) Displaying personal feelings

Answer 26

c) Distinguishing between reality and unreality

Question 27

People who have a personality disorder
a) Frequently progress to a psychotic illness
b) Become psychotic under severe stress
c) Are known as borderline personalities
d) Have ongoing difficulties in relating to others

Answer 27

d) Have ongoing difficulties in relating to others

Question 28

Neurotic disorders are associated with
a) Inadequacy and poor stress management
b) Maladaptive behaviour related to anxiety
c) Inability to cope with demands and perceived stress
d) Family patterns of inappropriate behaviour

Answer 28

b) Maladaptive behaviour related to anxiety

Question 29

Which of the following statements about tardive dyskinesia is true

a) Symptoms are often permanent and do not improve with antiparkinsonian medication
b) Symptoms will diminish as the client adjusts to long term treatment
c) Clients are seldom concerned about features of tardive dyskinesia
d) Antiparkinsonian medication will suppress the main features of tardive dyskinesia

Answer 29

a) Symptoms are often permanent and do not improve with antiparkinsonian medication

Question 30

persons who have a neurotic disorder

a) have a minor disorder that will diminish with time and maturity
b) respond well to electro convulsive therapy
c) do not develop psychotic features
d) frequently have insight into their behaviour

Answer 30

d) frequently have insight into their behaviour

Question 31

a social factor contributing to the incidence of eating disorders is

a) economic disadvantage
b) educational disadvantage
c) gender stereotyping
d) unemployment

Answer 31

c) gender stereotyping

Question 32

The most common features of chronic organic psychosis are

a) fluctuating confusion and disorientation
b) persistent elated mood and hyperactivity
c) thought blocking and concrete thinking
d) social withdrawal and paranoid ideation

Answer 32

d) social withdrawal and paranoid ideation

Question 33

phobia is best described as

a) a fear related to an identifiable traumatic event in one’s life
b) an irrational fear of a specific situation or object
c) a series of repetitive behaviours designed to relieve anxiety
d) a general sense of impending doom

Answer 33

b) an irrational fear of a specific situation or object

Question 34

the most appropriate treatment for phobias is

a) anxiolytic drugs
b) cognitive restructuring
c) relaxation exercises
d) systematic desensitisation
most appropriate treatment for phobias is

Answer 34

b) cognitive restructuring

Question 35

anxiety is best described as

a) mild form of psychosis
b) disorder of mood
c) response to stress
d) distorted sense of perception

Answer 35

c) response to stress

Question 36

A person who is currently acutely depressed expresses an intention to self harm. Your initial response would be to

a) Distract the client by talking about less depressing thoughts or ideas
b) Encourage the client to discuss their ideas of suicide to establish potential for self
harm
c) Suggest the client involves themselves with other clients to establish supportive
relationships
d) Ask the client to explain their reasons for contemplating self harm
person who is currently acutely depressed expresses an intention to self harm. Your

Answer 36

b) Encourage the client to discuss their ideas of suicide to establish potential for self
harm

Question 37

A depressed client is prescribed amitriptyline. This would have the effect of

a) Clarifying his thought processes
b) Helping to raise his mood
c) Eliminating negative ideas
d) Promoting greater self awareness

Answer 37

b) Helping to raise his mood

Question 38

For a client suffering from mania who is unable to sleep the best approach is to

a) Fully involve the client in physical activities and exercise programmes during
daytime
b) Encourage the client to talk about underlying feelings or stressors
c) Nurse in low stimulus environment and administer prescribed antipsychotic medication
d) Place in seclusion using medication only as a last resort

Answer 38

c) Nurse in low stimulus environment and administer prescribed antipsychotic medication

Question 39

A client who is subject to a community treatment order section 29 of the mental health act (1992) must

a) Accept prescribed medication and attend any specified treatment center
b) Report on a weekly basis to a community mental health centre
c) Return to hospital after a period of three months for a psychiatric assessment
d) Name a primary caregiver who will accept responsibility for the clients care and
supervision

Answer 39

a) Accept prescribed medication and attend any specified treatment center

Question 40

One reason for ordering an individual charged with an offence to have psychiatric examination is to determine whether that person

a) Is likely to have committed the offence he is charged with
b) Has a previous personal or family history of psychiatric illness
c) Was suffering from a mental illness at the time of the alleged offence
d) Has a mental illness which would respond to a programmed of treatment

Answer 40

c) Was suffering from a mental illness at the time of the alleged offence

Question 41

The drug most commonly used in the long term treatment of bi polar disorder is

a) Diazepam
b) Lithium carbonate
c) Clozapine
d) Sodium Amytal

Answer 41

b) Lithium carbonate

Question 42

A client who is committed under the mental health act (1992) is discharged from hospital on leave. When visited by the community mental health nurse he refused his injection of antipsychotic medication which is due that day. The best initial approach to this would be to

a) Explain that this will mean his immediate return to hospital
b) Visit again the next day and attempt to persuade the client to accept his medication
c) Inform the medical staff so that the clients legal status can be changed
d) Explore with the client alternative forms of treatment to medication

Answer 42

a) Explain that this will mean his immediate return to hospital

Question 43

A client expresses the belief that he is the illegitimate son of a famous family. This is an example of

a) Paranoid thinking
b) Pressure of speech
c) A delusion of grandeur
d) Ideas of reference

Answer 43

c) A delusion of grandeur

Question 44

Long term use of benzodiazepine drugs (minor tranquillisers) such as diazepam
(valium) can lead to

a) Tardive dyskinesia
b) Dependence
c) Renal impairment
d) Akathisia

Answer 44

b) Dependence

Question 45

Long acting intramuscular antipsychotic medication is used in the treatment of schizophrenia because it

a) Has fewer side effects than oral medication
b) Has a greater antipsychotic action
c) Is more rapidly absorbed than oral medication
d) Ensures that clients receive their medication

Answer 45

c) Is more rapidly absorbed than oral medication

Question 46

Which of the following statements related to the treatment, with lithium carbonate, of person with bipolar disorder is true

a) Most will need to take lithium carbonate for an extended period of time, perhaps for life
b) Once the persons mood becomes euthymic, treatment can be discontinued in most cases
c) Because of the need to maintain constant blood levels, long term injections is the preferred form of treatment
d) Treatment is most effective in the acute stage of the illness although some people will need long term treatment

Answer 46

d) Treatment is most effective in the acute stage of the illness although some people
will need long term treatment

Question 47

The highest priority nursing action relative to alcohol withdrawal delirium would be

a) Orientation to reality
b) Application of restraints
c) Identification and social supports
d) Replacement of fluids and electrolytes

Answer 47

a) Orientation to reality

Question 48

While interviewing Mr. d, the nurse notes he uses neologisms and has losses associations. This would most likely indicate the presence of

a) Mania
b) Depression
c) Defensive coping
d) Schizophrenia or psychosis

Answer 48

c) Defensive coping

Question 49

Culturally safe nursing care can best be achieved when the nurse has

a) An in depth knowledge of the treaty of Waitangi
b) An awareness of Maori perspectives of health
c) An awareness and acceptance of your own limits in meeting someone’s else’s
health and cultural need
d) A knowledge of Maori protocol

Answer 49

c) An awareness and acceptance of your own limits in meeting someone’s else’s health and cultural need

Question 50

The school nurse is caring for a child with haemophilia who is actively bleeding from
the leg. Which of the following would the nurse apply

a) Direct pressure, checking every few minutes to see if the bleeding has stopped
b) Ice to the injured leg area several times a day
c) Direct pressure to the injured area continuously for 10 minutes
d) Ice bag with elevation of the leg twice a day

Answer 50

c) Direct pressure to the injured area continuously for 10 minutes

Question 51

Home health nurses visit a blind diabetic patient who lives alone to monitor the patients glucose level and administer the patients daily insulin. Evaluation of outcome management for this patient would include

a) An absence of complications of diabetes
b) A reduction in hospitalizations for glycemic control
c) The ability of the patient to learn to use adaptive syringes
d) The patients evaluation of the services provided by the nurses

Answer 51

b) A reduction in hospitalizations for glycemic control

Question 52

In teaching about cancer prevention, the nurse stresses promotion of exercise, normal body weight, and low fat diet because

a) General aerobic health is an important defence against cellular mutation
b) Obesity is a factor that promotes cancer growth; if it is reversed, the risk of cancer
can be decreased
c) People who are overweight usually consume large amounts of fat, which is a chemical carcinogen
d) The development of fatty tumours, such as lipomas, is increased when there is an abundance of fatty tissue

Answer 52

b) Obesity is a factor that promotes cancer growth; if it is reversed, the risk of cancer can be decreased

Question 53

A 40 year old divorced mother of four school children is hospitalized with metastatic cancer of the ovary. The nurse finds the patient crying, and she tells the nurse that she does not know what will happen to her children when she dies. The most appropriate response by the nurse is

a) Why don’t we talk about the options you have for the care of your children
b) You are going to live for a long time yet, and your children will be just fine
c) I wouldn’t worry about that right now. You need to concentrate on getting well
d) Wont your ex husband take the children when you can’t care for them anymore

Answer 53

a) Why don’t we talk about the options you have for the care of your children

Question 54

During the primary assessment of a trauma victim, the nurse determines that the patient has a patent airway. The next assessment the nurse makes includes

a) The level of consciousness
b) Observation for external bleeding
c) The status of the patients respiration
d) The rate and character of carotid or femoral pulses

Answer 54

c) The status of the patients respiration

Question 55

Which of the following viruses is usually transmitted by airborne droplets

a) Varicella zoster virus
b) Cytomegalovirus
c) Herpes simplex virus
d) Hepatitis a virus

Answer 55

a) Varicella zoster virus

Question 56

Which of the following would the nurse do when suspecting that a child has been abused by the mother

a) Continue to collect information until there is no doubt in the nurses mind that
abuse has occurred
b) Ensure that any and all findings are reported to the proper state and legal
authorities
c) Keep the finding confidential, because they represent legal privileged communication between the nurse and the mother
d) Report the findings to the physician because that falls within the responsibilities of medical practise

Answer 56

b) Ensure that any and all findings are reported to the proper state and legal
authorities

Question 57

When a trauma victim expresses fear that AIDS may develop as a result of a blood transfusion, the nurse should explain that

a) Blood is treated with radiation to kill the virus
b) Screening for HIV antibodies has minimised the risk
c) The ability to directly identify HIV has eliminated this concern
d) Consideration should be given to donating own blood for transfusion

Answer 57

b) Screening for HIV antibodies has minimised the risk

Question 58

A mother tells the nurse that one of her children has chicken pox and asks what she should do to care for that child. When teaching the mother, which of the following would be most important to prevent

a) Acid base imbalance
b) Malnutrition
c) Skin infection
d) Respiratory infection

Answer 58

c) Skin infection

Question 59

Following a petit mal seizure a person is likely to be

a) Confused
b) Hostile
c) Hyperactive
d) Euphoric

Answer 59

c) Hyperactive

Question 60

After being bitten by an unknown insect, a patient allergic to wasp stings is brought to a clinic by a co worker. Upon arrival the patient is anxious and is having difficulty breathing. The first action by the nurse is to

a) Administer oxygen
b) Maintain the patients airway
c) Remove the stinger from the site
d) Place the patient in recumbent position with his legs elevated

Answer 60

b) Maintain the patients airway

Question 61

The role of the Nursing Council of New Zealand is

a) to protect the unregulated and regulated health workforce.
b) to regulate doctors to protect public safety.
c) to regulate nursing to protect public safety.
d) to protect the nursing workforce.

Answer 61

c) to regulate nursing to protect public safety.

Question 62

While at work you answer a phone call from a person who is very distressed but won’t give you their name. You should

a) Tell them to ring back when they are less upset
b) Introduce yourself and tell them what you do.
c) Explain that you need to see them to talk to properly.
d) Establish a rapport to obtain useful information.

Answer 62

d) Establish a rapport to obtain useful information.

Question 63

A person’s response to surgery is influenced by many factors. When a person is admitted for surgery you should explore

A) their perceptions and expectations for the admission.
B) the risks they are exposed to during surgery.
C) the reason for surgery instead of more conservative treatment.
D) how psychological stress affects their long-term prognosis.

Answer 63

a) their perceptions and expectations for the admission.

Question 64

A patient tells you they are worried about their surgery. You can most effectively help to relieve their concerns by

a. explaining what will happen before the surgery.
b. explaining how pain will be controlled after the operation.
c. encouraging them to discuss their perceptions of the operation.
d. explaining how post-operative complications can be prevented.

Answer 64

c) encouraging them to discuss their perceptions of the operation.

Question 65

While admitting a patient for a surgical procedure they ask you why they need to be weighed. Your best reply would be

a) “Surgery is not carried out on people who are above the ideal body weight.”
b) “We need to compare your weight on admission with that on your discharge.”
c) “Some drug dosages are calculated according to body weight.”
d) “It is routine for all admission to this unit.”

Answer 65

c) “Some drug dosages are calculated according to body weight.”

Question 66

Prior to surgery a patient is to have nothing to eat or drink. This is necessary to

a) assist in the proper absorption of the anaesthetic.
b) prevent nausea and vomiting immediately after surgery.
c) avoid the danger of inhaling stomach contents.
d) avoid incontinence during surgery.

Answer 66

c) avoid the danger of inhaling stomach contents.

Question 67

One of your responsibilities when caring for a patient in the post-operative phase is to observe for signs of haemorrhage. The type of shock resulting from haemorrhage is

a) hypovolaemic.
b) vasogenic.
c) neurogenic.
d) cardiogenic.

Answer 67

a) hypovolaemic.

Question 68

For eight hours following surgery your patient has had an intravenous infusion running but they are having difficulty passing urine. Your most appropriate action would be to

a) Offer adequate analgesia so that they are able to use their abdominal muscles.
b) Assist the patient to stand and pass urine.
c) Increase oral fluids to counteract any dehydration.
d) Contact the house surgeon and prepare a tray for catheterisation.

Answer 68

d) Contact the house surgeon and prepare a tray for catheterisation.

Question 69

To form a basis of trust in your professional relationship with a patient it is essential for you to
a) show an interest in the patient’s problems.
b) be honest and authentic when interacting with the patient.
c) make a special time each day to meet with the patient.
d) be open to any activity that the patient wishes to be involved in.

Answer 69

b) be honest and authentic when interacting with the patient.

Question 70

A patient’s partner is worried that the patient is not getting enough to eat. They want to feed them. Your most appropriate response is
a) “I’m sure your partner would appreciate you doing this for them.”
b) “What makes you think they are not getting enough to eat?”
c) “We want to encourage your partner’s independence.”
d) “I will discuss your partner’s dietary needs with the dietician.”

Answer 70

d) “I will discuss your partner’s dietary needs with the dietician.”

Question 71

What is a core principle of culturally safe nursing practice in New Zealand?

a) Avoiding patient education
b) Respecting and integrating patient values
c) Prioritizing nurse’s values over patient’s values
d) Minimizing interactions with patients

Answer 71

b) Respecting and integrating patient values

Question 72

Which document influences healthcare delivery by emphasizing partnership and protection for Māori patients?

a) Nursing Code of Ethics
b) The Treaty of Waitangi
c) Health and Safety Act
d) Privacy Act

Answer 72

Answer: b) The Treaty of Waitangi

Question 73

Which of the following is NOT an ethical principle in nursing?

a) Autonomy
b) Non-maleficence
c) Neglect
d) Justice

Answer 73

c) Neglect

Question 74

Which communication technique is essential when working with patients from diverse backgrounds?

a) Medical jargon
b) Avoiding eye contact
c) Active listening
d) Interrupting for clarity

Answer 74

c) Active listening

Question 76

Advocacy in nursing primarily involves:

a) Supporting the nurse’s opinions over the patient’s choices
b) Assisting patients in making informed decisions
c) Avoiding involvement in patient concerns
d) Deferring decisions to family members

Answer 76

b) Assisting patients in making informed decisions

Question 77

Which of the following is a key component of a comprehensive health assessment?

a) Reviewing only the respiratory system
b) Checking vitals, physical, and mental status
c) Observing the patient without interaction
d) Focusing only on patient history

Answer 77

b) Checking vitals, physical, and mental status

Question 78

What is a priority nursing action for a patient showing signs of respiratory distress?

a) Increasing fluid intake
b) Monitoring blood sugar
c) Assessing oxygen saturation
d) Checking for skin integrity

Answer 78

c) Assessing oxygen saturation

Question 79

Which of the following is subjective data in an assessment?

a) Blood pressure readings
b) Patient’s description of pain
c) Temperature measurement
d) Respiratory rate

Answer 79

b) Patient’s description of pain

Question 80

Which condition is characterized by the heart’s inability to pump effectively, causing fluid buildup?

a) Pneumonia
b) Heart failure
c) Diabetes
d) Stroke

Answer 80

b) Heart failure

Question 81

Which nursing intervention is essential post-operatively to prevent respiratory complications?

a) Administering pain medication only when requested
b) Encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises
c) Keeping the patient immobile
d) Restricting fluid intake

Answer 81

b) Encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises

Question 82

What are the five rights of medication administration?

a) Right drug, right dose, right route, right frequency, right place
b) Right drug, right dose, right patient, right route, right time
c) Right drug, right nurse, right room, right frequency, right route
d) Right patient, right time, right frequency, right nurse, right drug

Answer 82

b) Right drug, right dose, right patient, right route, right time

Question 83

Statins are commonly used to treat which of the following conditions?

a) Hypertension
b) Dyslipidemia
c) Diabetes
d) Asthma

Answer 83

b) Dyslipidemia

Question 84

Which of the following side effects is common with opioid medications?

a) Increased energy
b) Constipation
c) Increased blood pressure
d) Dry skin

Answer 84

b) Constipation

Question 85

Dyslipidemia and Cardiovascular Health
Which medication class is commonly used to lower cholesterol?

a) ACE inhibitors
b) Beta-blockers
c) Statins
d) Diuretics

Answer 85

c) Statins

Question 86

Which is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease?

a) Low cholesterol levels
b) Physical inactivity
c) Moderate alcohol use
d) Normal blood pressure

Answer 86

b) Physical inactivity

Question 87

Which of the following is a common symptom of depression?

a) Increased social interactions
b) Decreased energy and interest in activities
c) Hyperactivity
d) Increased appetite

Answer 87

b) Decreased energy and interest in activities

Question 88

The Mental Health Act in New Zealand ensures that:

a) All mental health patients are held involuntarily
b) Patients have the right to access appropriate care
c) Patients are always discharged within 24 hours
d) All mental health services are private

Answer 88

b) Patients have the right to access appropriate care

Question 89

What is the purpose of monitoring fetal heart rate during labor?

a) To measure contractions
b) To assess fetal well-being
c) To monitor the mother’s heart rate
d) To determine fetal length

Answer 89

b) To assess fetal well-being

Question 90

Which of the following practices helps prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?

a) Placing the infant to sleep on their stomach
b) Placing soft pillows in the crib
c) Ensuring the infant sleeps on their back
d) Wrapping the infant in multiple blankets

Answer 90

c) Ensuring the infant sleeps on their back

Question 91

Which of the following is a key responsibility of a community health nurse?

a) Focus only on in-hospital patient care
b) Promote health and prevent illness in the community
c) Only treat patients with chronic illnesses
d) Focus solely on family health

Answer 91

b) Promote health and prevent illness in the community

Question 92

What does chronic disease management in community nursing involve?

a) Focusing solely on acute symptoms
b) Assisting patients in long-term management of their conditions
c) Only providing emergency services
d) Ignoring patient lifestyle factors

Answer 92

b) Assisting patients in long-term management of their conditions

Question 93

Which document outlines the professional behavior expected of nurses in New Zealand?

a) Nursing Code of Ethics
b) Code of Conduct for Nurses
c) Patient Rights Act
d) Healthcare Act

Answer 93

b) Code of Conduct for Nurses

Question 94

What should a nurse do if a patient refuses to consent to a procedure?

a) Proceed with the procedure
b) Respect the patient’s decision and document it
c) Insist the patient consents
d) Ignore the refusal

Answer 94

b) Respect the patient’s decision and document it

Question 95

What aspect of the Treaty of Waitangi is most relevant when implementing culturally safe care in nursing?

a) The principle of self-determination
b) The principle of partnership
c) The principle of privacy
d) The principle of confidentiality

Answer 95

b) The principle of partnership

Question 96

In which scenario would respecting a patient’s autonomy conflict with the principle of beneficence?

a) A patient refuses a blood transfusion despite being severely anemic
b) A patient consents to an invasive procedure after thorough education
c) A patient requests extra pain medication within prescribed limits
d) A patient asks to speak with family members privately about their diagnosis

Answer 96

a) A patient refuses a blood transfusion despite being severely anemic

Question 97

Cultural safety in nursing care is primarily intended to:

a) Acknowledge the nurse’s values and beliefs
b) Empower patients to express their cultural needs without fear of judgment
c) Ensure nurses are proficient in foreign languages
d) Limit cultural expression to avoid misunderstandings

Answer 97

b) Empower patients to express their cultural needs without fear of judgment

Question 98

Which assessment finding would prompt a nurse to prioritize monitoring for signs of hypovolemia?

a) Elevated heart rate and low blood pressure
b) Slow capillary refill with normal vital signs
c) High respiratory rate with stable blood pressure
d) Low temperature with rapid pulse

Answer 98

a) Elevated heart rate and low blood pressure

Question 99

A nurse notes a patient’s respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation of 88%, and a cyanotic appearance. The first action should be to:

a) Increase the patient’s oxygen flow rate
b) Notify the attending physician
c) Administer a sedative to calm the patient
d) Position the patient flat to aid breathing

Answer 99

a) Increase the patient’s oxygen flow rate

Question 100

A key component of the nursing process that allows continual adaptation of the care plan is:

a) Diagnosis
b) Assessment
c) Planning
d) Evaluation

Answer 100

d) Evaluation

Question 101

Which of the following is an example of objective data?

a) The patient reports a headache
b) The patient’s blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg
c) The patient feels dizzy when standing
d) The patient states, “I feel nauseated.”

Answer 101

b) The patient’s blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg

Question 102

Which of the following lab findings is most concerning for a patient with suspected heart failure?

a) Elevated creatinine
b) Low potassium levels
c) High B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
d) Increased liver enzymes

Answer 102

c) High B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

Question 103

A patient recovering from surgery shows signs of pulmonary embolism. Which symptom is least likely to present?

a) Sudden onset of shortness of breath
b) Sharp chest pain that worsens with breathing
c) Increased heart rate and blood pressure
d) Productive cough with green sputum

Answer 103

d) Productive cough with green sputum

Question 104

Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to be seen in a patient with chronic kidney disease?

a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypocalcemia
c) Hypernatremia
d) Hypomagnesemia

Answer 104

a) Hyperkalemia

Question 105

Which is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with a new diagnosis of congestive heart failure?

a) Educate the patient on a low-fat diet
b) Assess for peripheral edema and lung sounds
c) Encourage ambulation to prevent muscle atrophy
d) Monitor for signs of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

Answer 105

b) Assess for peripheral edema and lung sounds

Question 106

In managing postoperative pain for a patient, which medication is preferred for patients with a risk of bleeding?
a) Ibuprofen
b) Acetaminophen
c) Aspirin
d) Naproxen

Answer 106

b) Acetaminophen

Question 107

When administering a drug with a narrow therapeutic index, a nurse should prioritize:

a) Adjusting the dose based on patient tolerance
b) Monitoring for signs of toxicity and therapeutic levels
c) Giving the medication on an empty stomach
d) Increasing fluid intake to prevent toxicity

Answer 107

b) Monitoring for signs of toxicity and therapeutic levels

Question 108

What is the purpose of a loading dose of medication?

a) To sustain therapeutic levels over time
b) To increase absorption by the liver
c) To rapidly achieve therapeutic levels in the bloodstream
d) To maintain a steady-state concentration

Answer 108

c) To rapidly achieve therapeutic levels in the bloodstream

Question 109

Which of the following medications is contraindicated in a patient with a history of severe asthma?

a) Metoprolol
b) Atorvastatin
c) Furosemide
d) Enalapril

Answer 109

a) Metoprolol

Question 110

A patient with a known penicillin allergy is prescribed a cephalosporin. The nurse should:

a) Administer the drug with caution
b) Inform the patient that cross-reactivity is not a concern
c) Withhold the drug and notify the provider
d) Double-check for other drug allergies

Answer 110

c) Withhold the drug and notify the provider

Question 111

When instructing a patient on warfarin therapy, which dietary advice should the nurse provide?

a) Increase intake of foods high in vitamin K
b) Avoid sudden increases in vitamin K-rich foods
c) Avoid all dairy products
d) Consume more foods high in vitamin C

Answer 111

b) Avoid sudden increases in vitamin K-rich foods

Question 112

Which symptom is most indicative of a panic attack rather than generalized anxiety disorder?

a) Persistent worry about daily events
b) Gradual onset of fear and worry
c) Sudden onset of intense fear and heart palpitations
d) Trouble sleeping and fatigue

Answer 112

c) Sudden onset of intense fear and heart palpitations

Question 113

A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine. Which adverse effect should the nurse closely monitor for?

a) Tachycardia
b) Weight loss
c) Agranulocytosis (severly low white blood count)
d) Orthostatic hypotension

Answer 113

c) Agranulocytosis (severly low white blood count)

Question 114

In a patient with depression, which neurotransmitter is most often associated with the condition?

a) Dopamine
b) Acetylcholine
c) Serotonin
d) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

Answer 114

c) Serotonin

Question 115

Which is the most important intervention when caring for a patient at risk of suicide?

a) Encouraging social activities
b) Providing structured daily routines
c) Ensuring close supervision and safety precautions
d) Educating family members on symptoms of depression

Answer 115

c) Ensuring close supervision and safety precautions

Question 116

What would be the primary goal of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) for a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

a) To reduce medication dependence
b) To eliminate all obsessive thoughts
c) To alter response patterns to obsessive thoughts
d) To improve interpersonal relationships

Answer 116

c) To alter response patterns to obsessive thoughts