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STATE EXAM > Exam practice questions quiz > Flashcards

Exam practice questions quiz Flashcards

1
Q

Plasma, the liquid component of blood is correctly identified as?

a. interstitual fluid
b. intravascular/extracellular fluid
c. intracellular fluid
d. 40% of total body fluid

A

extracellular fluid

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2
Q

Potassium functions as the….?

  1. chief electrolyte or extracellular fluid
  2. most abundant electrolyte in body
  3. major cation of intracellular fluid
  4. chief extracellular anion
A

Major cation of intracellular fluid

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3
Q

What should you use as the most reliable indicator of a person’s fluid balance status?

  1. intake and output
  2. skin turgor
  3. full blood examination
  4. daily weight
A

Daily weight

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4
Q

When developing a health education plan for a person at risk of hyperkalaemia, which foods should they avoid?

  1. carrorts and pumpkin
  2. canned soup and potato chips
  3. bananas and apricots
  4. wholegrain cereals and milk
A

Bananas and apricots

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5
Q

Which of the following is the most common underlying factor related to the problem of fluid volume excess?

  1. excessive IV infusion
  2. increased need for fluids secondary to fever
  3. abnormal fluid loss from vomting
  4. decreased fluid intake secondary to depression
A

Excessive IV infusion

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6
Q

What does sodium do in the body

  1. chief regulator of cellular enzyme activity and water content
  2. controls and regulates volume of body fluids and maintains water balance
  3. nerve impulse, blood clotting, muscle contraction, B12 absorption
  4. body’s primary buffer system
A

It controls and regulates volume of body fluids and maintains water balance

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7
Q

Alterations in fluid and electrolytes are most significant for?

  1. middle aged women
  2. marathon runners
  3. very young, elderly and those with chronic conditions
  4. children
A

The very young, the elderly and those with chronic conditions

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8
Q

A social factor contributing to the incidence of eating disorders is what?

a. economic disadvantage
b.gender stereotyping
c. educational disadvantage
d. unemployment

A

Gender stereotyping

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9
Q

Anxiety is best described as?

a. mild form of psychosis
b. disorder of mood
c. distorted sense of purpose
D. response to stress

A

D. response to stress

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10
Q

What is hypovolemia

  1. volume overload
  2. volume depletion
  3. being too cold
  4. overheating
A
  • volume depletion
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11
Q

What is hypernatremia

  1. excess sodium in body
  2. excess of calcium in body
  3. deficit of potassium
  4. deficit of sodium
A
  • excess of sodium in body
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12
Q

Which of the following is a common feature of anxiety?

  1. paranoid delusions
  2. impaired concentration
  3. social withdrawal
  4. auditroy hallucination
A

impaired concentration

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13
Q

A depressed client is prescribed amitryptyline. What effect would this have?

  1. Clarifying thought processes
  2. Helping to raise mood
  3. Eliminating negative ideas
  4. Promoting greater self-awareness
A

Helping to raise mood

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14
Q

A client states: ‘the sun is shining in Virginia. My son lives in Virginia, who’s afraid of Virginia Woolf’. This is called?

  1. Flight of ideas
  2. Concrete thinking
  3. Word salad
  4. Depersonalisation
A
  1. flight of ideas
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15
Q

A client with mania is unable to sleep. What is the best approach?

  1. Encourage physical activity
  2. Encourage them to talk about it
  3. Provide a low stimuli environment and medications
  4. Place them in seclusion and medicate
A

Provide a low stimuli environment and medications

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16
Q

A client who is subject to a community treatment order (Section 29 of the MH Act, 1992) must?
Question Background

  1. Accept prescribed medication and attend any specific treatment centre
  2. Report on a weekly basis to a community mental health service
  3. Return to hospital after three months for psychiatric asssessment
  4. Name a family member who will accept responsibility for their care
A

Accept prescribed medication and attend any specific treatment centre

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17
Q

People who have a personality disorder will….?

  1. Frequently progress to a psychotic illness
  2. Become psychotic under stress
  3. be known as Borderline personalities
  4. Have ongoing difficulties relating to others
A

Have ongoing difficulties relating to others

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18
Q

Features of tardive dyskinesia include ?

  1. Involuntary lip smacking and tongue movements
  2. dry mouth and blurred vision
  3. muscular rigidity and shuffling gait
  4. nausea and vomiting
A
  1. Involuntary lip smacking and tongue movements
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19
Q

Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic used in the treatment of ?

  1. Anxiety
  2. Depressive disorders
  3. Dementia
  4. Schizophrenia
A

Schizophrenia

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20
Q

Which of the following is the main reason for giving antipsychotic medication via depot injections

  1. They assist with the problem of non-adherence
  2. They reduce the incidence of side effects
  3. They are easier to administer than oral medication
  4. They are more effective than oral medication
A

They assist with the problem of non-adherence

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21
Q

Long term use of benzodiazepines can lead to ?

  1. Tardive dykinesia
  2. Renal impairment
  3. Akathesia
  4. Dependance
A

Dependance

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22
Q

A client expresses that he is the illegitimate son of the Royal Family. This is an example of ?

  1. A delusion of grandeur
  2. An idea of reference
  3. Paranoid thinking
  4. Pressure of speech
A

A delusion of grandeur

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23
Q

Intervention with an angry client who is threatening violence involves ?

  1. Asking the client to express their feelings verbally
  2. Giving brief, clear messages about what you want the client to do.
  3. Maintaining silence to avoid any escalation of anger
  4. Asking the client what happened to make them so angry
A

Giving brief, clear messages about what you want the client to do.

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24
Q

To facilitate communication the nurse should convey ?

1.Accurate empathy
2. Authenticity
3. Unconditional positive regards
4. All of the above

A

All of the above

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25
Q

A characteristic feature of a client who is elated is ?
Question Background

  1. Slowed speech
  2. Delusions of sin and guilt
  3. Increased motor and thought activity
  4. Depressed mood
A

Increased motor and thought activity

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26
Q

A client admitted under Section 13 of the MHA (1992) will have a period of assessment for how long?

  1. 14 days
  2. 6 months
  3. 7 days
  4. 5 days
A

14 days

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27
Q

A client states: ‘I’m so fed up, I don’t intend to go on like this’. What should the nurse do?

1.Ask them directly if they are considering suicide
2. Ignore the statement and continue with the conversation
3. Change the subject but report the incident to the charge nurse
4. Comment that others are worse off than they are

A

Ask them directly if they are considering suicide

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28
Q

Two signs of respiratory depression are?

  1. Decrease in muscle reflexes and mobility
  2. Decreased level of consciousness and hypotension
  3. Lowered respiratory rate and shallow breathing
  4. Bradycardia and petechiae
A

Lowered respiratory rate and shallow breathing

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29
Q

When assessing a patient at risk for increased intracranial pressure, the first thing you would check is ?

  1. Reaction to painful stimuli
  2. Level of consciousness
  3. Capillary return
  4. Motor function
A

Level of consciousness

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30
Q

A client has signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following is an early sign of deterioration?

  1. Widening pulse pressure
  2. Dilated fixed pupils
  3. Decrease in the pulse rate
  4. Decrease in motor response
A

Widening pulse pressure

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31
Q

Which symptoms should make the nurse suspect pulmonary embolus (PE)?

  1. Changes in pulse rate and slowing rising blood pressure
  2. Shortness of breath, chest pain and anxiety
  3. Frothy sputum and slow, deep respirations
  4. Crackles in the lung bases and pursed lip breathing
A
  1. Shortness of breath, chest pain and anxiety
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32
Q

Which of the following has made the biggest impact on mortality from infectious disease in the 20th Century?

1.Vaccination
2. Better housing and provision of clean water & sewage systems
3. Antimicrobials
4. 1Infection control

A

Infection control

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33
Q

A client’s condition remains stable after MI. Which of the following conditions should be the nurse priority assessment?

  1. Dyspnoea
  2. Oedema
  3. Cyanosis
  4. Weight loss
A

Dyspnoea

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34
Q

What is the most common diagnosis for children under 15 yrs presenting at ED?

  1. Fracture
  2. Head injury
  3. UTI
  4. Respiratory condition
A

Respiratory condition

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35
Q

What is one of the most common causes of uncomplicated urinary tract infections?

  1. Staphylococcus aureus
  2. Proteus mirabilis
  3. Escherichia coli (E-coli)
  4. Klebsiella pneumoniae
A

Escherichia coli (E-coli)

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36
Q

You are working with public health. A mother attends clinical asking for information regarding chicken pox. What is your best advice?

  1. The effects of chicken pox on the child are minimal
  2. Vaccination against chicken pox is free and can prevent or minimise serious illness and complications
  3. Chicken pox is a notifiable disease and the child must be seen by a GP
  4. Chicken pox is not contagious. Just treat the symptoms
A

Vaccination against chicken pox is free and can prevent or minimise serious illness and complications

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37
Q

James has a fracture requiring open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF). You explain that ORIF is surgery which ?

  1. Brings both bone ends into alignment held in position with plate or screws
  2. External manipulation held in position initially with a plaster cast
  3. Aligns bone ends by external manipulation which are held in position with pins and traction
  4. Aligns the bones which are held in position with plaster backslab and a firm bandage
A
  1. Brings both bone ends into alignment held in position with plate or screws
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38
Q

Plaster cast care includes ?

  1. Patient education encouraging elevation of limb to minimise swelling
  2. Assessment of colour, warmth, movement and sensation
  3. Pain assessment
  4. All of these
A

All of these

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39
Q

Jim (60yrs) has recently had bowel resection. Handover stated blood loss 700mL. What are signs of hypovolemia?

  1. Slowing of pulse rate, increase BP, elevated temp.
  2. Stable pulse, decreasing BP, normal temp
  3. Increasing pulse rate, stable BP, elevated temp
  4. Increasing pulse, decreasing BP, normal temp
A

Increasing pulse, decreasing BP, normal temp

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40
Q

Physiological compensation of hypovolemia will include all of the following except ?

  1. Vasoconstriction of the capillary beds
  2. Increased pumping efficiency of the heart
  3. Increased sodium excretion by the kidneys
  4. Fluid shift extra cellular to intravascular
A

Increased sodium excretion by the kidneys

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41
Q

Jim is prescribed a blood transfusion. How frequently will he need to have vital sign assessment ?

  1. Every 15 minutes
  2. 15 minutes after the infusion is started
  3. After all blood is infused
  4. Every hour
A

Every 15 minutes

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42
Q

After the blood transfusion Jim starts shivering and his pulse is recorded at 120 bpm. What should you do first?

  1. Take Jim’s temperature
  2. Give Jim a blanket
  3. Call for help
  4. Stop the blood transfusion
A

Stop the blood transfusion

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43
Q

Jim has a PCA (patient controlled analgesia) with fentanyl for pain control. When should you be concerned?

  1. A RR of 10 with respiration of normal depth
  2. Jim becomes confused
  3. Jim becomes sedated, sedation score 4
  4. Reports constipation
A

Jim becomes sedated, sedation score 4

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44
Q

Mr Young, an 80 yr old with diabetes type II has an indwelling urinary catheter. He has developed a UTI. What is the likely cause?

  1. Decreased immunity
  2. High urine glucose level
  3. Age related decreased muscle tone
  4. The indwelling urinary catheter
A

The indwelling urinary catheter

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45
Q

Pressure injury risk assessment is a priority for ?

  1. Post operative assessment
  2. Patients with decreased mobility
  3. Patients with decreased skin integrity
  4. All of these
A

all of these

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46
Q

When explaining about factors contributing to pressure injury, which factor would you describe as key?

  1. Moisture
  2. Smoking status
  3. Mobility
  4. All of these
A

All of these

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47
Q

Which hospitalised patient is most at risk of a pressure injury?

  1. A 70 year old with a fractured hip
  2. A 45 year old recovering from gallbladder surgery
  3. A 50 year old who has had a mild stroke
  4. A 16 year old with a spinal cord injury
A

A 70 year old with a fractured hip

48
Q

Wich term would you use to document wound drainage that is thick, odorous and green?

  1. Serous
  2. Sanguineous
  3. Serosanguineous
  4. Purulent
A

Purulent

49
Q

Mandy is 30/40wks pregnant with increased systolic BP, weight gain of 4kg and swelling in hands. This is suggestive of ?

1.Gestational hypertension
2.Pre-eclampsia
3.Eclampsia
4.Gestational diabetes

A

Pre-eclampsia

50
Q

Which measure would be least effective in relieving the signs and symptoms of mild pre-eclampsia?

1.Low salt diet
2.Bed rest
3.Relaxation techniques
4.Balanced diet with protein

A

Relaxation techniques

51
Q

Mandy delivers the baby early. The nurse is performing a 5min APGAR. Which of the following is included in the APGAR score.

1.Muscle tone
2.Weight
3.Blood pressure
4.Temperature

A

Muscle tone

52
Q

Vitamin K is given to the newborn to ?

1.Reduce bilirubin levels
2.Enhance blood clotting
3.Simulate surfactant formation
4.Increase red blood cells

A

Enhance blood clotting

53
Q

To support successful breastfeeding, the nurse should promote ?

1.Skin to skin contact as soon as possible following birth
2.Use of a pacifier
3.Decrease mum’s caffeine intake
4.Increased fluid intake

A

Skin to skin contact as soon as possible following birth

54
Q

The birthweight of the baby is 3400gm. The maximum expected weight loss for the newborn would be ?
Question Background

1.170gm
2.680gm
3.1kg
4. 300 - 400gm

A

300 - 400gm

55
Q

Day 4 post partum Mandy is experiencing breast engorgement. To relieve engorgement the nurse recommends ?

1.Applying ice packs
2.Expressing small amounts and keep feeding
3.Applying lanolin cream
4.Hot shower to relieve pressure

A

Expressing small amounts and keep feeding

56
Q

Which of the following is an EXPECTED change in the elderly?

1.Pressure ulcers
2.Hemorrhoids
3.Kyphosis
4.Incontinence

A

Kyphosis

57
Q

Notifiable diseases in New Zealand include:

1.Measles, pertussis, influenza
2.Polio, rheumatic fever, haemochromatosis
3.Measles, rheumatic fever, tuberculosis
4.Polio, rheumatic fever, pneumonia

A

Measles, pertussis, influenza

58
Q

The three main groups of asthma medications are:

1.Responders, preventers and bronchoconstrictors
2.Beta2 receptor antagonists, symptom controllers and diuretics
3.Relievers, preventers and antihistamines
4.Relievers, preventers and corticosteroids

A

Relievers, preventers and corticosteroids

59
Q

The correct order for donning PPE is:

1.gown, gloves, mask, goggles
2.goggles, mask, gloves, gown
3.gown, mask, goggles, gloves
4.mask, goggles, gown, gloves

A

gown, mask, goggles, gloves

60
Q

You have given Mrs B 20mg of temazepam by mistake just prior to surgery (instead of 10mg). What is your immediate action?
Question Background

1.Reassure Mrs B and inform her she will be very sleepy prior to her anaesthetic
2.Give Mrs B a glass of salt water as an emetic
3.Report the incident to the Dr on duty
4.Document what happened in Mrs B’s notes and on an incident form

A

Reassure Mrs B and inform her she will be very sleepy prior to her anaesthetic

61
Q

Which of the following is considered a DISORDER of the elderly?

1.Increased risk for falls
2.Tinnitus
3.Senile Lentigo
4.Cutaneous papillomas

A

Tinnitus

62
Q

Prejudice of senior people based on the idea that ageing makes people unintelligent is called?

1.Gerontophobia
2.Stereotyping
3.Gerontological discrimination
4.Ageism

A

Ageism

63
Q

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for constipation in the elderly?

1.Inactivity
2.Laxative dependance
3.Caffeine consumption
4.Decreased peristalsis

A

Caffeine consumption

64
Q

A major barrier to reporting of elder abuse is that:

1.It is not a crime to abuse a competent adult
2.Elders are reluctant to report incidents of abuse
3.Reporting involves too much paperwork
4.Families of victimrs don’t believe they are abusing the elder

A

Elders are reluctant to report incidents of abuse

65
Q

Older adults are more susceptible to overdose from fat soluble drugs because they often have:

1.Increased body fat
2.Decreased body fat
3.Decreased kidney function
4.Decreased GI motility

A

Decreased body fat

66
Q

Which of the following exercises would you NOT recommend for the elderly?
Question Background

1.Walking
2.Swimming at the beach
3.Heavy weight training
4.Mountain climbing

A

Mountain climbing

67
Q

A developmental task that the older adult faces is?

1.Preparing for retirement
2.Parenting adult children
3.Accepting oneself as an ageing person
4.Maintaining independance

A

Accepting oneself as an ageing person

68
Q

Which of the following is a normal neurological ageing change?

1.Senility
2.Slowed reaction time
3.Decreased mental capacity
4.Impaired judgement

A

Slowed reaction time

69
Q

Many older adults have increased blood pressure due to?

1.Vascular degeneration
2.Reduced cardiac output
3.Cardiomegaly
4.Arteriosclerosis and Artherosclerosis

A

Arteriosclerosis and Artherosclerosis

70
Q

With the dying patient, it is best to:

1.Encourage the family to provide patient hygiene
2.Encourage hope
3.Keep the room very quiet and dark
4. Encourage family to talk to their loved one

A

Encourage family to talk to their loved one

71
Q

Isolating, ignoring or demoralising an elderly person is a form of what type of abuse?

1.Elder
2.Financial
3.Emotional
4.Sexual

A

Emotional

72
Q

Which of the following would be an example of short-term memory loss?

1.Inability to recall year of birth
2.Calling one’s children by different names
3.Inability to count backwards from 100 in multiples of 7
4.Always looking for one’s glasses

A

Always looking for one’s glasses

73
Q

Which assessment tool is used to predict pressure ulcer risk?

1.Braden scale
2.Morse scale
3.Wong-Baker faces scale
4.Katz assessment scale

A

Braden scale

74
Q

When interviewing a parent of three pre-school children at the Well-Child clinic, the nurse should focus on what?

1.The newborn infant
2.All children in the family
3.The entire family
4.The mother or father

A

The entire family

75
Q

A 10 year old had a diagnosis of rheumatic fever. The causative organism for rheumatic fever is what?

1.Haemophilus influenza
2.Staphylococcus bacteria
3.Synctial virus
4.Group A streptococcal bacteria

A

Group A streptococcal bacteria

76
Q

What type of shortness of breath occurs when lying down?

1.Orthopneoa
2.Hyperpnoea
3.Apnoea
4.Hypopnoea

A

Orthopneoa

77
Q

Circulatory shock can best be described as a condition in which there is

A state of hypotension
Loss of blood
Loss of consciousness due to blood loss
Inadequate blood flow to meet the metabolic needs of the body tissue

A

Inadequate blood flow to meet the metabolic needs of the body tissue

78
Q

Causes of hypovolemic shock include

Vomiting and loss of body fluids
Allergic reactions to drugs (anaphylactic)
Cardiac failure (cardiogenic)
Hypoglycaemia

A

Vomiting and loss of body fluids

79
Q

Early signs of hypovolemic shock include

Restlessness thirst and increased heart rate
Decreased blood pressure and apathy
Increase in heart rate and increased pulse pressured
Decreased blood pressure and unconsciousnes

A

Restlessness thirst and increased heart rate

80
Q

In shock, one of the best indicators of blood flow to vital organs is

Rate of blood and fluid administration
Blood pressure
The colour and temperature
Urine output

A

Blood pressure

81
Q

Oliguria, an early sign of shock, occurs for what reason

Cessation of glomerular filtration
Acute tubular necrosis
Metabolic acidosis
Sympathetic stimulation

A

Sympathetic stimulation

82
Q

You are caring for bill, a 50 year old man who has been hospitalised with a possible diagnosis of pancreatitis

  • Which of the following symptoms would you anticipate observing in bill

a) Elevated white blood cell count, ankle oedema and right groin pain
b) Left upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting
c) Hypoglycaemia, hypertension, and hypochondrial pain
d) Epigastric pain, pyrexia, and elevated white blood cell count

A

b) Left upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting

83
Q

You are caring for bill, a 50 year old man who has been hospitalised with a possible diagnosis of pancreatitis

  • The initial diagnosis of pancreatitis would be confirmed if bills blood test showed asignificant elevation in serum

a) Amylase
b) Glucose
c) Potassium
d) Trypsin

A

a) Amylase

84
Q

Which of the following medications would
be the drug of choice for pancreatitis

a) Pethidine
b) Cimetidine
c) Morphine
d) Codeine

A

Morphine

85
Q

Shock is extremely difficult to manage in pancreatitis primarily because of the

a) Frequency and severity of gastrointestinal haemorrhage
b) Vasodilating effects of kinin peptides
c) Tendency towards congestive heart failure
d) Frequent incidence of acute tubular necrosis

A

a) Frequency and severity of gastrointestinal haemorrhage

86
Q

You are caring for bill, a 50 year old man who has been hospitalised with a possible diagnosis of pancreatitis

  • While helping bill change position in bed, you note bill has muscle twitching in his bands and forearms. These symptoms are significant because clients who suffer from pancreatitis are at risk of

a) Hypermagnisemia
b) Hypoglycaemia
c) Hypocalcaemia
d) Hyponatremia

A

c) Hypocalcaemia

87
Q

A home care nurse begins caring for a 25 year old female called Lydia who has just been diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

  • Lydia asks the nurse, ‘how could this have happened?” the nurse responds to the question based on the most frequent mode of HIV transmission, which is

a) Hugging an HIV positive sexual partner without using barrier precautions
b) Inhaling cocaine or other recreational drugs
c) Sharing a drink bottle with an HIV positive person
d) Sexual intercourse with an HIV positive person without using a condom

A

d) Sexual intercourse with an HIV positive person without using a condom

88
Q

A home care nurse begins caring for a 25 year old female called Lydia who has just been diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

  • The physician prescribes zidovudine (AZT) a drug that acts to help

a) Destroy the virus
b) Enhance the body’s antibody production
c) Slow replication of the virus
d) Neutralise toxin; produced by the causative organism

A

c) Slow replication of the virus

89
Q

Lydia acquires herpes genitalis and is counselled by the nurse concerning follow up are. Women who have this disease are at risk of developing

a) Sterility
b) Cervical cancer
c) Uterine fibroid rumours
d) Irregular menses

A

d) Irregular menses

90
Q

Which of the following nursing diagnosis categories would most likely be a priority for a client with herpes genitalis

a) Alteration in sleep; sleep pattern disturbance
b) Nutritional deficit
c) Alteration in comfort pain
d) Alteration in breathing patterns

A

c) Alteration in comfort pain

91
Q

In providing education to Lydia, the nurse should take into account the fact that the most effective method known to control the spread to HIV infection is

a) Premarital serologic screening
b) Prophylactic treatment of exposed people
c) Laboratory screening of pregnant women
d) Ongoing sex education about preventive behaviours

A

d) Ongoing sex education about preventive behaviours

92
Q

James, a 34 year old man attending a sexual health clinic, is diagnosed with syphilis.

  • The organism responsible for causing syphilis is classified as a

a) Virus
b) Fungus
c) Rickettsia
d) Spirochete

A

d) Spirochete

93
Q

The typical chancre of syphilis appears as

a) A grouping of small, tender pimples
b) An elevated wart
c) A painless moist ulcer
d) An itching, crusted area

A

c) A painless moist ulcer

94
Q

James, a 34 year old man attending a sexual health clinic, is diagnosed with syphilis.

  • When interviewing James, the nurse should anticipate that the most difficult problem is likely to be

a) Motivating the client to undergo treatment
b) Obtaining a list of the clients sexual contacts
c) Increasing the clients knowledge of the disease
d) Assuring the client that records are confidential

A

b) Obtaining a list of the clients sexual contacts

95
Q

James, a 34 year old man attending a sexual health clinic, is diagnosed with syphilis.

  • A priority nursing diagnosis for a James would likely be

a) High risk for infection transmission related to lack of knowledge about mode of spread
b) Pain related to cutaneous skin lesions on palms and soles
c) Altered skin tissue perfusion related to a bleeding chancre
d) Image disturbance related to alopecia

A

a) High risk for infection transmission related to lack of knowledge about mode of spread

96
Q

An 18 year old female college student is seen at the university health centre. She undergoes a pelvic examination and is diagnosed with gonorrhoea

  • Which of the following responses by the nurse would be best when the client says that
    she is nervous about the upcoming pelvic examination

a) can you tell me more about how you’re feeling
b) you’re not alone. Most women feel uncomfortable about this examination
c) do not worry about Dr smith. He’s a specialist in female problems
d) we’ll do everything we can to avoid embarrassing you

A

a) can you tell me more about how you’re feeling

97
Q

in education this client, the nurse should emphasise that in women gonorrhoea

a) is often marked by symptoms of dysuria or vaginal bleeding
b) does not lead to serious complications
c) can be treated but not cured
d) may not cause symptoms until complications occur

A

d) may not cause symptoms until complications occur

98
Q

the client informs the nurse that she has had sexual intercourse with her boyfriend and asks the nurse ‘would he have any symptoms?’ the nurse responds that in males,
symptoms of gonorrhoea include

a) impotence
b) scrotal swelling
c) urine retention
d) dysuria

A

b) scrotal swelling

99
Q

A 24 year old female client, who is on her honeymoon, comes to an ambulatory care clinic in moderate distress with a probable diagnosis of acute cystitis

  • Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect the client to report during
    the assessment

a) fever and chills
b) frequency and burning on urination
c) suprapubic pain and nausea
d) dark, concentrated urine

A

b) frequency and burning on urination

100
Q

The client asks the nurse, ‘how did I get this infection?’ the nurse should explain that in most instances, cystitis is caused by

a) congenital strictures in the urethra
b) an infection elsewhere in the body
c) urine stasis in the urinary bladder
d) an ascending infection from the urethra

A

d) an ascending infection from the urethra

101
Q

Situation: Winston, a 22 year old man, is brought to the emergency room with an apparent head injury after being involved in a motor vehicle accident. He is unconscious on arrival and exhibits signs of increasing intracranial pressure. His fiancée and his older sister accompany him

Q: On Winston’s arrival in the emergency room, which of the following considerations should receive the highest priority

a) establishing an airway
b) replacing blood losses
c) stopping bleeding from open wounds
d) determining whether he has a neck fracture

A

a) establishing an airway

102
Q

Situation: Winston, a 22 year old man, is brought to the emergency room with an apparent head injury after being involved in a motor vehicle accident. He is unconscious on arrival and exhibits signs of increasing intracranial pressure. His fiancée and his older sister accompany him

Q: Which of the following methods would be best, from a legal standpoint, for obtaining permission to treat Winston

a) having his sister sign the consent form
b) having two independent doctors agree on the need for treatment
c) obtaining a verbal consent by telephone from his mother
d) obtaining written consent from his fiancée

A

b) having two independent doctors agree on the need for treatment

103
Q

Situation: Winston, a 22 year old man, is brought to the emergency room with an apparent head injury after being involved in a motor vehicle accident. He is unconscious on arrival and exhibits signs of increasing intracranial pressure. His fiancée and his older sister accompany him

Q: As Winston’s condition worsens, his rising intracranial pressure would be indicated by

a) rising blood pressure and falling pulse rate
b) rising pulse rate and falling blood pressure
c) rising blood pressure and rising pulse rate
d) falling pulse rate and falling blood pressure

A

a) rising blood pressure and falling pulse rate

104
Q

Situation: Winston, a 22 year old man, is brought to the emergency room with an apparent head injury after being involved in a motor vehicle accident. He is unconscious on arrival and exhibits signs of increasing intracranial pressure. His fiancée and his older sister accompany him

Q: the nurse assesses the client frequently for signs of intracranial pressure, including

a) unequal pupil size
b) decreasing systolic blood pressure
c) tachycardia
d) decreasing body temperature

A

a) unequal pupil size

105
Q

Situation: Winston, a 22 year old man, is brought to the emergency room with an apparent head injury after being involved in a motor vehicle accident. He is unconscious on arrival and exhibits signs of increasing intracranial pressure. His fiancée and his older sister accompany him

Q: which of the following respiratory signs would indicate increasing intracranial

a) slow, irregular respirations
b) rapid, shallow respirations
c) asymmetric chest expansion
d) nasal flaring

A

b) rapid, shallow respirations

106
Q

Situation:
During the past few months, Elizabeth, a 56 year old woman has felt brief twinges of chest pain while working, in her garden and has had frequent episodes of indigestion. She comes to the hospital after experiencing severe anterior chest pain while raking leaves. Her evaluation confirms a diagnosis of stable angina pectoris

Q: Elizabeth states, ‘I really thought I was having a heart attack. How can you tell the difference?’ which response by the nurse would provide the client with the most accurate information about the difference between the pain of angina and that of myocardial infarction

a) The pain associated with a heart attack is much more severe
b) The pain associated with a heart attack radiates into the jaw and down the left arm
c) It is impossible to differentiate angina pain from that of a heart attack without an
ECG
d) The pain of angina is usually relieved by resting or lying down

A

d) The pain of angina is usually relieved by resting or lying down

107
Q

Situation: During the past few months, Elizabeth, a 56 year old woman has felt brief twinges of chest pain while working, in her garden and has had frequent episodes of indigestion. She comes to the hospital after experiencing severe anterior chest pain while raking leaves. Her evaluation confirms a diagnosis of stable angina pectoris

Q: As an initial step in treating elizabeths angina, the physician prescribes nitro-glycerine tablets, 0.3 mg given sublingual. This drugs principal effects are produced by

a) Antispasmodic effects on the pericardium
b) Stimulation of a- and 13- receptor sites
c) Vasodilation of peripheral vasculature
d) Improved conductivity in the myocardium

A

c) Vasodilation of peripheral vasculature

108
Q

Situation: During the past few months, Elizabeth, a 56 year old woman has felt brief twinges of chest pain while working, in her garden and has had frequent episodes of indigestion. She comes to the hospital after experiencing severe anterior chest pain while raking leaves. Her evaluation confirms a diagnosis of stable angina pectoris

Q: The nurse teaches Elizabeth that which of the following meals would be best for her low cholesterol diet

a) Hamburger, salad, and milkshake
b) Baked liver, green beans, and coffee
c) Spaghetti with tomato sauce, salad, and coffee
d) Fried chicken, green beans, and skim milk

A

c) Spaghetti with tomato sauce, salad, and coffee

109
Q

Situation: During the past few months, Elizabeth, a 56 year old woman has felt brief twinges of chest pain while working, in her garden and has had frequent episodes of indigestion. She comes to the hospital after experiencing severe anterior chest pain while raking leaves. Her evaluation confirms a diagnosis of stable angina pectoris

Q: Which of the following symptoms should the nurse teach Elizabeth to report immediately to her physician

a) A change in the pattern of her pain
b) Pain during sexual activity
c) Pain during an argument with her husband
d) During or after an activity such as lawn moving

A

a) A change in the pattern of her pain

110
Q

Situation: During the past few months, Elizabeth, a 56 year old woman has felt brief twinges of chest pain while working, in her garden and has had frequent episodes of indigestion. She comes to the hospital after experiencing severe anterior chest pain while raking leaves. Her evaluation confirms a diagnosis of stable angina pectoris

Q: After stabilisation and treatment, Elizabeth is discharged from the hospital. At her follow up appointment, she is discouraged because she is experiencing pain with increasing frequency. She states that she visits an invalid friend twice a week and now cannot walk up the second flight of steps to the friends apartment without pain. Which action can the nurse could suggest that would most likely help the client deal with this problem

a) Visit her friend early in the day
b) Rest for at least an hour before climbing the stairs
c) Take a nitro-glycerine tablet before climbing the stairs
d) Lie down once she reaches the friends apartment

A

c) Take a nitro-glycerine tablet before climbing the stairs

111
Q

The nurse teaches Elizabeth that common expected side effects of nitro-glycerine include

a) Headache, hypotension, and dizziness
b) Hypertension, flushing and forgetfulness
c) Hypotension, diplopia and shortness of breath
d) Stomach cramps, constipation and urinary frequency

A

a) Headache, hypotension, and dizziness

112
Q

Sublingual nitro-glycerine tablets begin to work within 1 to 2 minutes. How should
the nurse instruct the client to use the drug when chest pain occurs

a) Take one tablet every 2 to 5 minutes until the pain stops
b) Take one tablet; and rest for 10 minutes. Call the physician if pain persists after 10
minutes
c) Take one tablet, then an additional tablet every 5 minutes for a total of three tablets. Call the physician if pain persists after 3 tablets
d) Take one tablet; if pain persists after 5 minutes, take two tablets. If pain still persists 5 minutes later, call the physician

A

c) Take one tablet, then an additional tablet every 5 minutes for a total of three tablets. Call the physician if pain persists after 3 tablets

113
Q

Which of the following points should the nurse include when instructing the client with angina about sublingual nitro-glycerine

a) The drug will cause your urine to turn bright orange
b) Store the tablets in a tight, light resistant container
c) Use the tablets only when the pain is severe
d) The shelf life of nitro-glycerine is up to 2 years

A

b) Store the tablets in a tight, light resistant container

114
Q

Situation:
Josie, a 38 year old woman is admitted to the emergency room after being found unconscious at the wheel of her car in the hospital car park. Josie is comatosed and does not respond to stimuli. A drug overdose is suspected

Q: Which of the following assessment findings would lead the nurse to suspect that the coma is a result of a toxic drug overdose

a) Hypertension
b) Hyperpyrexia
c) Dilated pupils
d) Facial asymmetry

A

c) Dilated pupils

115
Q

Situation:
Josie, a 38 year old woman is admitted to the emergency room after being found unconscious at the wheel of her car in the hospital car park. Josie is comatosed and does not respond to stimuli. A drug overdose is suspected

Blood and urine analysis confirm a diagnosis of salicylate overdose. Josie is treated with activated charcoal, which would be administered by

a) Intravenous infusion
b) Nasogastric tube
c) Rectal infusior
d) Oral tablets

A

b) Nasogastric tube

116
Q

According to eriksons theory of emotional development, infants will develop a sense of trust when

a) They can identify their mother and father
b) They feel a sense of belonging, accepted as part of the family
c) They can predict what is coming and needs are consistently met
d) Nutritional and hygiene needs are provided on a daily basis

A

c) They can predict what is coming and needs are consistently met

STATE EXAM (26 decks)

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