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study material for 2021. > Ponte alerta > Flashcards

Ponte alerta Flashcards

1
Q

Members are free to express themselves as private citizens in matters of public concern to the degree that their speech does not:

A

a. Impair working relationships of the department for which loyalty and confidentiality are important.
b. Impede the performance of duties.
c. Impair discipline and harmony among co-workers; or
d. Negatively impact or tend to negatively impact the department’s ability to serve the public.

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2
Q

As a Sgt. I will notify the __________ of the request for a religious accommodation by a member in a timely manner to begin the formal interactive process.

A

EDS director

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3
Q

MOVE

As a Sgt. Receiving or making a complaint I will:

A
  1. Interview the complainant.
  2. If no violation, handle as costumer dispute (CC).
  3. If there is a violation create an SOC.
  4. Document the nature of the complaint, person etc.
  5. Once SOC is made fwd to IAB
  6. IF person insist in complaining and there is no misconductstill send SOC to IAB.
  7. Explain investigation process to the COM
  8. If the COM only has a disagreement and no policy violation explain that to the COM and write it as a CC.
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4
Q

First line supervisors will review their employees’ Blue Team dashboard on a monthly basis and respond to EIIP Alerts in Blue Team within ____ calendar days of the chain receiving an EIIP Alert email notification.

A

14

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5
Q

As a Sgt. How often do I need to review my employee’s dashboard?

A

Monthly

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6
Q

On-duty officers who witness an alleged crime are obligated to cooperate in the criminal investigation. As such, on-duty LVMPD members who are witnesses to alleged criminal acts are not entitled to a ______notice. However, if the member requests a representative to be present before being interviewed as part of the criminal investigation, a representative will be permitted as long as the representative responds without delay.

A

48-hour

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7
Q

On a 421 call, If the injured person is suffering from a potential life threatening injury or substantial head trauma, an _________________(sick or injured person) and photographs will be taken to document the details of the event.

A

Incident Crime Report

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8
Q

FA on the scene of a dead body call, Only the firearm used in an incident (suicide, accidental shooting, etc.) will be impounded as evidence by a crime scene analyst, T/F?

A

True,

All other firearms will be the responsibility of the Deputy Coroner investigator or Public Administrator

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9
Q

FA at the scene of a dead body call, Patrol officers may impound other firearms(Not the one used to 405 or accident) for safekeeping when a threat to life or safety exists, T/F?

A

True

The justification will be documented and articulated in the narrative portion of the Property Report.

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10
Q

When deploying the dog catch pole, the ideal team is formed of multiple officers, including:

A
  1. Sgt.
  2. Catchpole PO
  3. LL PO
  4. Lethal PO
    Note: Disengagement or retreat are also options
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11
Q

For STAR protocol how many POs will be sent by dispatch at minimum?

A

3 POs

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12
Q

On STAR protocol as a Sgt. I will acknowledge the call and:

A
  1. Respond to the area

2. If I can’t respond, ask for another Sgt. Or Lt. to respond

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13
Q

As a Sgt. On a STAR protocol event what are my responsibilities?

A
  1. Responsible for tactics and supervision of the event.
  2. Determine what tools or other sections we need (LL, Rifle, shield, K9, Air unit)
  3. Proper rifle deployment
  4. Get a workup on the subject when needed from ANSEC
  5. Maintain the protocol unless the first unit arrived and the criteria is no longer met. If so, tell dispatch so they can update CAD.
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14
Q

A BAC of .02 for an employee may be grounds for discipline or __________.

A

Termination.

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15
Q

Consent: Agreement, approval, or permission to act. A person giving consent must be freely and voluntarily given. A person consenting must:

(1) be informed (tell the subject what is being searched for);
(2) not be coerced;
(3) have actual authority or apparent authority (“standing”); and…

A

(4) have the ability to revoke consent at any time during the search

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16
Q

Curtilage: Area(s) near a residence where the residents have a reasonable expectation of privacy. Considerations in determining whether an area is curtilage and subject to the protections of the Fourth Amendment are:

1) proximity of the area to the home;
2) whether the area is included in enclosure which surrounds a home;
3) nature of uses to which an area is put;
and. ..

A

4) steps taken to protect the area from observation from passers-by. NOTE: The legal protection associated with curtilage is always determined in favor of the property owner, not law enforcement.

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17
Q

Hot Pursuit: A sub-category of “exigent circumstances” where a dangerous or felony suspect is fleeing from law enforcement and an officer has direct knowledge of the suspect’s location which would justify an exigent circumstance _____ for apprehension.

A

entry

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18
Q

What are the requirements for consensual encounters during a criminal investigation?

A
  1. No legal justification.
  2. A person must feel free to leave at any time and an officer must honor the person’s right not to stop or engage in conversation.
  3. A person’s freedom of movement cannot be impeded in any way by the officer’s actions.
    4 A person who has engaged in a consensual encounter may revoke consent at any time
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19
Q

If no Officer’s Report or Arrest Report is generated, the officer shall document the consent given for the search in CAD prior to clearing the call, T/F?

A

True

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20
Q

Frisk of a Vehicle for Weapons – Prior to allowing persons to re-enter a vehicle on a Traffic or Vehicle Stop, an officer may conduct a frisk of the vehicle for________. The officer must be able to articulate reasonable suspicion that a weapon is contained inside the vehicle.

A

weapons

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21
Q

The vehicle frisk must be confined to the area of the vehicle where any person may have immediate access. The officer may only search unlocked compartments or areas where a weapon may be present, T/F?

A

True
NOTE: Areas not immediately accessible to the vehicle’s occupants such as a locked glove box or other locked containers shall not be frisked

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22
Q

Missing persons 20 years old and younger will be immediately entered into NCIC as per the Suzanne’s law, after receiving the minimum data elements, T/F?

A

True

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23
Q

PD will be notified for crimes involving felony:

  1. Property-related crimes l to include:
    a. Auto thefts requiring immediate follow-up
    b. Residential/commercial burglaries over $50,000
    c. Grand larceny over $75,000
    d. Residential/commercial/vehicle burglaries as part of an identified series
    e. Firearm-related crimes to include:
    and. ..
A

2) Prohibited person in possession of a firearm

3) Possession of a stolen firearm or obliterated serial number

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24
Q

PD will be notified for crimes involving felony:

  1. Person-related crimes to include:
    a. Assault, battery, mayhem, attempt murder, robberies, and larceny from persons
    b. Domestic related crimes at a felony level to include:
    1) Assault
    2) Battery
    3) Strangulation
    4) Harassment
    5) Stalking
A

6) Violation of protective orders

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25
Q

PD will be notified for crimes involving felony:
3. Suspicious deaths – If Crime Scene Investigations (CSI), the coroner’s investigator, or Patrol Division (PD) has assessed the scene and observed something suspicious,_________ should be notified.

A

Homicide

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26
Q

PD will be notified for crimes involving felony:

A
  1. Property-related crimes
  2. Person-related crimes
  3. Suspicious deaths
  4. Any of the above-listed crimes which require investigative follow-up and the need for a search warrant
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27
Q

First arriving officers will protect the inner and outer perimeter of the crime scene with YELLOW crime scene tape, T/F?

A

True

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28
Q

All personnel, regardless of rank, must obtain authorization from a FIT detective and CSI director/supervisor before entering the RED taped crime scene area, T/F?

A

True

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29
Q

A walk-through of a crime scene can be completed, only after the scene has been assessed and documented by a crime scene analyst, and with the approval from the investigating detective, T/F?

A

True

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30
Q

A show-up should be conducted at the location where the suspect is__________, within sixty (60) minutes of detainment, if not under arrest. See NRS 171.123.

A

detained

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31
Q

Whenever a show-up is conducted, the officer will transport the eyewitness to the suspect’s location unless it is physically impossible to move the eyewitness, T/F?

A

True

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32
Q

The Show-Up Witness Instruction form will be completed on all show-up’s involving felony crimes regardless of identification outcome. The administrator will also seek and document a statement of confidence in the eyewitness’s own words, T/F?

A

True

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33
Q

For PO 401’s as the Sgt. I need to make sure to do a _______ report completed, forward to VCB and AOST for entry into UMLV. Same for traffic POs but they do it with an instructor.

A

check ride

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34
Q

What is the criteria for a vehicle incident report investigated by me as the Sgt.(Form 393)?

  1. Visible damage is apparently minor (e.g., small dents/scratches/repairs/damage to undercarriage [rim, oil pan, etc.]).
  2. ____________________.
  3. No other citizen vehicle or non-motorist involved.
  4. Minor damage to private property.
  5. Training collisions with minor injuries or minor to moderate damage.
  6. Email to chain of command of member up to Division Commander
A

No injuries or claimed injuries

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35
Q

What is the criteria for a vehicle incident investigated by the traffic PO and Sgt (PD42 or PDO)?

  1. Visible damage is apparently minor
  2. No injuries or claimed injuries.
  3. _____________________
  4. Training collision with serious injury or death or major property damage.
  5. Any use of PIT, Blocking with contact, Pinching, or Ramming.
  6. Email to chain of command of member up to Assistant Sheriff
A

Involves citizen vehicle or non-motorist.

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36
Q

What is the criteria for a Traffic collision investigated by Traffic PO and Sgt. (NHP5 or PDO)?
1. _________ to major damage (e.g., damage is apparently more than minor damage).
2. Any injury or claimed injuries.
3. Notify watch commander.
Email to chain of command of member up to Assistant Sheriff.

A

Moderate

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37
Q

Duty handgun barrel length is?

A

At least 3.4 inches to 6 inches

UC (Not in patrol) may use barrel length 3.5 inches

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38
Q

For rifle deployments, the senior supervisor on-scene will:
1. Ensure that officer(s) who deployed a rifle complete Blue Team. When multiple officers in a single incident, designate one (1) deploying officer to complete the Rifle Deployment Report. List all POs who deployed a rifle as “involved officers” in the report. The report will detail the following:

A

a. Details of the incident
b. Justification, per policy, as to the rifle deployment
c. Nature of the threat resulting in the decision to deploy a rifle
d. Number and locations of all rifle-deployed officers in the incident

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39
Q

The field supervisors will have the responsibility to supplement and delete field units responding to calls in their area as they deem necessary, taking into account

A
  1. their knowledge of the incident,
  2. location, and
  3. participants involved.
    NOTE Supervisors may be required to explain these variations of the RCP to their superiors. Supervisors are to avoid over response to calls and exercise discretion in these variations.
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40
Q

When a sufficient number of officers have been assigned to a situation, non-assigned units who indicate that they will also be responding will be canceled by the field supervisor, T/F?

A

True

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41
Q

For pending calls for service the POs can be dispatch to calls up to:

A
  1. the end of shift for emergency calls. (Sgt. Sent if no units available)
  2. 45 min. before end of shift for non-emergency calls. Including report calls.
    Note: When units are free the will respond to report calls and not be held for PSR or cadets.
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42
Q

Once a sergeant has been advised of calls holding in excess of 60 minutes, the area sergeant will monitor the call in question. If the call continues to hold in excess of ___minutes, it is the responsibility of the area sergeant to contact the PR and advise of the extended delay and/or offer other possible resolutions, i.e., hold for next available unit or request a unit from a neighboring area to assist.

A

90

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43
Q

When it is not possible to have a unit enroute on an in custody call at the 90 minute mark due to emergency calls or pending calls of a higher priority where the potential for violence or escalation exists (e.g., domestic violence, suicidal subject, or suspicious person), the area sergeant will contact the PR to advise of the extended delay and ________ the event detailing the reason for the extended delay via telephone call, radio broadcast, or MDT.

A

update

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44
Q

For OIS, FIT will be responsible for collecting and securing the ______from all involved and witness officers upon arrival at the scene. FIT or CIRT is responsible for upload of video into Evidence.com.

A

BWC

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45
Q

Financial Crimes Bureau personnel and the Digital Forensic Laboratory may retain and secure evidence past the end of shift for examination and processing, T/F?

A

True

Note: Items must be impounded according to policy once ready for Evidence vault

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46
Q

The use of a dispersal order must be authorized by the IC and read multiple times, T/F?

A

True

The person reading the order and time must be documented.

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47
Q

If a law had been violated, THE IC designates an officer to make contact with the locked protestors and request them to release and disperse. If they refuse, issue the dispersal order __ separate times in 10 minute increments and document who read the order and the times issued. If protestors still refuse to release and disperse, request the on-call Saturation Team through Dispatch.

A

3

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48
Q

Officers initiating a foot pursuit should broadcast the following information as soon as it becomes practical and available:

A
  1. Unit identifier.
  2. Location and direction of travel.
  3. Reason for the foot pursuit.
  4. Number of subjects and description.
  5. Whether the subject is known or believed to be armed
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49
Q

Supervisors will respond to foot pursuits when any of the following occur:

A
  1. Injury to the officer.
  2. Injury to a citizen, other than the subject(s).
  3. Injury to the subject(s).
  4. Any entry into a residence or similar structure, regardless if it is occupied or not.
  5. Any reportable force occurs, regardless of injury.
  6. Any other unusual occurrence that warrants supervisory oversight.
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50
Q

Explosive Detector Dogs (EDD) are trained to find the presence of:

A

explosive substances to include firearms and ammunition

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51
Q

The EDD can be used to search what places:

A
  1. offices,
  2. casinos,
  3. vehicles,
  4. parking lots,
  5. aircraft,
  6. luggage,
  7. packages,
  8. schools and
  9. locker rooms.
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52
Q

When responding to a bomb threat, unattended item, or suspicious item officers should conduct 25-ft and 100-ft. searches, T/F?

A

True

Note: Done to protect officers from getting killed upon their arrival on the scene.

53
Q

If a new location is established for a Command Post the 25- and 100-ft. search shall be conducted again. The use of an EDD should be utilized if available, T/F?

A

True

Note: These searches should be conducted from low-to-high in a 360-degree manner around the “Safe Area.”

54
Q

For a bomb or device threat as a Sgt. I will:

  1. Respond to and assume command of the scene
  2. Have ARMOR supervisor briefed
  3. Establish Incident command System (ICS)
  4. complete ICS-AAR
  5. Evacuations when ARMOR is requested advising of potential explosion. For high-rise it will be 2 floors up and down. Failiure to evacuate is against NRS.
  6. People may shelter in place if they are not in harms way. But if they are in mandatory evacuation zone per FBI Bomb card, they must leave.
  7. Assign a PO to the primary location to assist with communications
    and. ..
A
  1. Remain on scene with the additional PO to assist ARMOR and prevent unauthorized access to the location of the device
55
Q

when a device (Bomb) or suspected device is located, Two command and control locations will be established. They are:

A
  1. Tactical Operations Center (TOC) in the vicinity of the device determined suitable by ARMOR supervisor.
  2. field command post (CP) staging area established as for any unusual occurrence by LVMPD. Investigators report here or staging area.
56
Q

ICS is the standard tool used for command, control, response coordination, and overall management of _________incidents, planned events, and/or emergencies. This system permits a clear point of command and can be expanded or contracted with ease to escalating or diminishing situations.

A

complex

57
Q

Regardless of the size or type of incident, event, and/or emergency, the top three (3) priorities that the incident commander will use to establish incident objectives will be:

A
  1. Life safety
  2. Incident stabilization
  3. Property preservation
58
Q

In an all hazard plan as a Sgt. I will:

A
  1. Establish Command
  2. If already set up on arrival, I need to determine if I need to become the IC, or need more staff positions, Determination is made based on the:
    a. Size, Type, and complexity of the incident

Note: If I allow the officer to remain IC, I need to make sure his decisions are sound and within policy.

59
Q

During a hostage situation, if SWAT deployed and took command of the inner perimeter, or the hostage taker becomes mobile, who would be responsible for tactical assets, apprehension, and rescue?

A

SWAT commander until situation is resolved

60
Q

What would be my job during a hostage situation?

A
  1. Reinforce the inner perimeter and establish a secondary perimeter
  2. Direct units to stop inbound vehicle traffic as required
  3. Evacuate any bystanders and injured persons near the suspect’s location
  4. Get a good verbal skills officer to make contact with the hostage taker, what he wants and how the hostages are doing. DO NOT NEGOTIATE until SWAT/CNT arrive
  5. Get a dedicated radio channel from dispatch
61
Q

Barricade subject plan:

the following is the definition of _____________: A subject who is believed to have been involved in a criminal act or is a significant threat to themselves or the lives and/or safety of others; refuses to submit to arrest and may be armed; is in a position of advantage, affording cover and concealment, or is contained in an open area and the presence or approach of police officers could precipitate an adverse reaction by the subject. Therefore, an incident involving a barricaded subject is a barricade incident.

A

Barricaded Subject/Incident

62
Q

Barricade subject plan:

The following is the definition of _________________: A suicidal person who is threatening to take his or her own life. This may involve a suicidal person with a deadly weapon capable of causing injury to others barricaded in some type of structure, or in an open area. Therefore, an incident involving an armed suicidal subject is a barricade incident.

A

Suicidal Subject/Incident

63
Q

As the first Sgt. On scene for a CBRNE event part of my duties are to:

A
  1. Evacuate people who are downwind from the spillage by working with ARMOR or FD.
    a. Do so according to the guidelines of the Table of Isolation and Evacuation distances which is found in the Hazardous Materials Book.

NOTE: Department members will NOT conduct rescues without utilizing the proper protective equipment and being trained in its use.

64
Q

Significant Force - any force which results in treatment at a medical facility due to injuries or alleged injuries caused by an officer. Examples include, but are not limited to: skeletal fractures, serious bodily injury or complaint of injury to a person’s head or sternum area. All significant force is ___________.

A

reportable force

65
Q

The reasonableness inquiry in reviewing use of force is an ________ one. The question is whether the officer’s actions are “objectively reasonable” in light of the facts and circumstances confronting them. The officer’s perception will be a consideration, along with other objective factors that may affect the reasonableness of the force.

A

objective

66
Q

Any commissioned officer present and observing another officer using force that is clearly beyond that which is “objectively reasonable” under the circumstances will, when in a position to do so, safely intercede to prevent the use of excessive force. Officers will promptly report these observations to a supervisor, T/F?

A

True

67
Q

Parameters for Use of Deadly Force - an officer may use deadly force upon another person only when it is “objectively reasonable” to:

A
  1. Protect themselves or others from what is reasonably believed to be an imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury.
  2. Prevent the escape of a fleeing felon who the officer has probable cause to believe has committed a violent felony crime and is an imminent threat to human life if escape should occur.

NOTE: Officers will give some warning, if feasible, before the use of deadly force.
Example: “Police! Stop, or I will shoot!”

68
Q

when OC spray is used by a civilian department member, a patrol officer and supervisor will respond to the scene to assist with enforcement action, T/F?

A

True

69
Q

The intent of blocking is to prevent an avenue of escape by the safe placement of a police vehicle. In circumstances where the officer initiates contact, is not a reportable use of force, T/F?

A

True

70
Q

In the use of blocking, the potential for injuries and vehicle damage is low. If the subject initiates contact, this will be investigated as a traffic incident T/F?

A

True

71
Q

In the event of a prisoner escape, the transporting officer WILL:

A
  1. notify Communications and
  2. attempt to recapture the prisoner
  3. Establish perimeter and
  4. conduct a search
  5. If in another jurisdiction will notify dispatch and agency responsible for that jurisdiction.
72
Q

When a CIT officer has been dispatched to an event, the senior CIT officer on the scene has the authority to direct police activities during the event unless relieved by a field supervisor, T/F?

A

True

73
Q

The CIT AAR should include:

A

a. Threats to others/police
b. Homeland security concerns
c. Violence involved
d. Weapons involved
e. Officer safety concerns

74
Q

Persons who are clearly in an intoxicated condition and unable to exercise care for themselves or others should, if circumstances permit be allowed to:

A
  1. go home in a cab or be taken home by a relative or friend.
  2. Only as a last resort should these persons be detained for protective custody.
  3. Nevada law allows for a person to be placed in Civil Protective Custody if the person is in a public place unlawfully under the influence of a controlled substance or alcohol and is unable to exercise care for his health.
75
Q

If the arrest does not meet all the necessary requirements, the charge(s) can be released by filing for NCF. Arrests will not be routinely NCF’d from the Las Vegas City Detention Center. NCF must be done within ____hours of the time of arrest in the field. Otherwise coordinate with the screening DA.

A

48hrs

76
Q

The officer will request the presence of a supervisor, for cash being released valuing over $100, or for non-cash property being released valuing over $250, T/F?

A

True

Supervisor signs the property report prior to subject transport

77
Q

Code 3 driving is a police tactic used in responding to an emergency. Good______, communication, and coordination are important elements of a code 3 response that ensure officers are maximizing safety while minimizing risks.

A

judgment

78
Q

If PO is in a collision during emergency response or pursuit the PO will immediately discontinue involvement and take proper action as required by NRS and Dept. Unless:

A
  1. No unit is available to assume the pursuit or respond to the unit involved.
  2. Damage to the unit is minor, and it can still be operated without danger.
  3. There are no apparent injuries as a result of the accident
79
Q

field supervisors who allow pursuits to continue, must consider the following initiation and evaluation factors:

A
  1. Whether the need for immediate apprehension of the suspect(s) outweighs the dangers created by the pursuit itself.
  2. Whether the suspect is known to officers and/or can be apprehended at a later time.
  3. Vehicular and pedestrian traffic and road conditions.
  4. Nature of the area of the pursuit: residential, commercial, or rural.
  5. Weather conditions (e.g., rain, fog, or snow) time of day, and visibility which creates an unreasonable risk of injury to the public or the pursuing officers.
  6. Alternatives to pursuit, including the availability of the air unit, the use of the precision intervention technique (PIT), stop sticks, or arrest at a later time
80
Q

PIT as non-deadly use of force:

A
  1. PIT may be used to apprehend violators at speeds of 40 mph and below and does not meet the criteria for PIT as deadly force.
  2. PIT may be used to apprehend violators at speeds of 40 mph and below after the tires have been deflated as a result of a tire-deflation device and do not meet the criteria for PIT as deadly force
81
Q

PIT as deadly force:

A

a. PIT at a speed of over 40 mph.
b. PIT used on motorcycles.
c. PIT used on high center-of-gravity vehicles likely to roll over such as vans, SUVs, and Jeeps.
d. Circumstances which create a substantial risk of death or serious bodily injury.
e. Circumstances warranting the use of the PIT as deadly force are as follows:
1) Continued movement of the pursued vehicle would place others in danger of bodily harm or death; and/or
2) Apparent risk of harm, to other than the occupants of the pursued vehicle, is so great as to outweigh the risk of harm in making the forcible stop; and
3) Other means of apprehension have been considered and rejected as impractical (e.g., continue to follow, stop sticks, and/or call for the air unit).

82
Q

Notify a commissioned supervisor and a Traffic Bureau supervisor whenever a PIT or vehicle ramming has been used to terminate a pursuit, T/F?

A

True

83
Q

If any questions or concerns arise from a PIT investigation regarding if the use of force was deadly or non-deadly, Force Investigation Team (FIT) and/or the Traffic Bureau/Fatal Detail will be notified, T/F?

A

True

84
Q

Post pursuit, For The use of PIT at speeds below 40 mph (non-deadly) when contact is made the communications supervisor WILL:

A
  1. Notify the officer’s immediate supervisors (sergeant, lieutenant, and captain).
  2. Notify the watch commander and bureau/area lieutenant
85
Q

Post pursuit, For The use of PIT at speeds over 40 mph (deadly), regardless of injury or death the communications supervisor will:

A

1) Notify the officer’s immediate supervisors (sergeant, lieutenant, and captain).
2) Notify the watch commander and bureau/area lieutenant.
3) Notify CIRT/FIT.
4) Notify FIT.
5) Notify Internal Oversight and Constitutional Policing (IOCP) Bureau commander.
6) Notify Traffic Bureau/Fatal Detail.
7) Notify Risk Management Section.
8) Notify Crime Scene Investigations Section.
9) Notify Police Employees Assistance Program (PEAP).
10) Notify respective collective bargaining unit.

86
Q

Post pursuit, primary officers Will complete the Pursuit report and /Or use of force in Blue Team, T/F?

A

True

87
Q

The narrative portion of blue team will include?

  1. Whether the need for immediate apprehension of the suspect(s) outweighed the dangers created by the pursuit itself.
  2. Whether the suspect was known to officers or could have been apprehended at a later time.
  3. Vehicular/pedestrian traffic and road conditions.
  4. Nature of the area of the pursuit: residential, commercial, or rural.
  5. Weather conditions (e.g., rain, fog, or snow), time of day, and visibility which creates an unreasonable risk of injury to the public or the pursuing officer(s).
  6. Alternatives to pursuit, including the availability of the air unit, the use of PIT, stop sticks, or arrest at a later time.
  7. Clearly state the supervisor who authorized the continuance of the pursuit.
  8. If PIT (non-deadly) is used, complete a Use of Force Report in Blue Team (LVMPD 6/002.03, Post Use of Force Investigations).
    and. ..
A
  1. In incidents where PIT (deadly) is used, the use of force will be handled by CIRT at the discretion of the CIRT lieutenant, based on the totality of the circumstances
88
Q

Post pursuit as a Sgt. I WILL:

  1. Respond to the termination point and assume responsibility for the scene.
  2. Ensure all appropriate notifications are made at the scene.
  3. Ensure FIT/CIRT are notified when use of force with Vehicle result in death or critical injury (PIT under 40 and ramming.
  4. Notify FIT/CIRT when pursuit is multi-jurisdictional, multiple area commands or more than five officers involved.
  5. Notify FIT/CIRT for significant damage
  6. Conduct investigation to determine if pursuit was within policy (Can’t do my own, if involved)
  7. Make sure Reports completed
  8. Check for surveillance in the area and get a copy
  9. Review all the BWC for involved POs checking for proper procedures
  10. All primary POs will complete pursuit reports
  11. Doc, in blue team if pursuit was justified or not and mention any evidence
  12. If stop sticks used were they justified to be used or not

and…

A
  1. All interviews and pictures are completed by the end of shift
89
Q

In cases when a suspect under arrest has a previous conviction for domestic violence and is in possession of a firearm and/or ammunition the PO will:

A
  1. Verify prior conviction
  2. Determine relationship of prior conviction via interviews. To make sure it meets federal definition (In criminal offence Handbook)
  3. If no arrest can be made because of the federal definition. FA can be impounded for safekeeping.
  4. If arrest made, fax notification to ATF and CCW detail
  5. Impound the FA and on impound form write “Evidence - Prohibited Person.” Explain why is prohibited on the circumstances section.
90
Q

Reference employee DV or DUI as the supervisor I Will address the behavior through:

A
  1. Discipline; and/or

2. Counseling, training, or care programs

91
Q

ICS
Effective span of control of incidents may vary from 3-7 and a ratio of 1 supervisor to ___five reporting elements is recommended.

A

5

92
Q

ICS
A ________ is the place from where the primary logistics and administrative functions are coordinated and administered. The ________ may be collocated with with the incident command post (ICP). The is only one ______ per incident and is designated by the incident name. The base is established and managed by the logistics section.

A

Base

93
Q

ICS
A ________ is the location where the resources may be kept to support the incident operations if a Base is not accessible to all the resources. _______ are temporary locations within the incident area, which are equipped and staffed to provide food, water, sleeping area, and sanitary services. _______ are designated by location or number. Multiple _______ may be used, but not all incidents will have ________.

A

Camp

94
Q

ICS

What are the five management functions?

A
  1. Under the Incident Command (IC)
    1. Operations section
    2. Planning section
    3. Logistics
    4. Finance/Administration
95
Q

The five major management functions of ICS can be used for any events such as:

A
  1. Routine emergency
  2. Major non-emergency
  3. Response to major disaster.
96
Q

What is the title for the person in charge of the Incident command?

A

Incident Commander

Supported by a deputy.

97
Q

What is the title for the person in charge of command staff?

A

Officer

Supported by a Assistant

98
Q

What is the title for the person in charge of the General staff?

A

Chief

supported by deputy

99
Q

What is the title for a person in charge of the branch?

A

Director

supported by deputy

100
Q

What is the title for the person in charge of Division or Group?

A

Supervisor

no support staff

101
Q

What is the name for a person in charge of a unit?

A

Leader

supported by Manager

102
Q

What is the name of the person in charge of the strike team or Task Force?

A

Leader

supported by Single resource boss

103
Q

Strike teams are a number of set resources of the same kind and type with common communications operating under the direct supervision of a strike team leader. Strike teams are highly effective management units. The foreknowledge allows better________________________.

A

planning, ordering, utilization and management

104
Q

One of the MACTAC focus is Coordinated force-on-force contacts to mitigate active________, hostage and/or_______ scenarios in conjunction with responding tactical teams.

A

shooter

siege

105
Q

Officers assigned to “In the Box” squads that do not arrive at the Rally Point prior to the squad leaving, _______ attempt to catch up or follow their squads, but will be reassigned to the “Stay at Home Squad.”

A

will not

106
Q

The MACTAC squad is comprised of two or more strike teams and a______ leader.

A

squad

107
Q

MACTAC Strike teams consist of four to_____ commissioned officers, which is similar to the current model employed by the U.S. Military Infantry Forces and are the base of the current LVMPD Active Shooter Team

A

five

108
Q

The possible strike team missions are?

A

Assault- neutralizing the threat to save lives
Rescue - Downed officer rescue, Casualty collection
Containment - prevent the event from expanding,
Reconnaissance - obtain info on suspects and activity
Force protection - For IC, staging, Fire, medical, civilians

109
Q

what are the 4A’s for the first arriving officer.

A

Assess the situation
Announce the best intelligence
Assemble as many resources as possible and then
Act to end the incident

110
Q

the Area Lieutenant or in their absence the Area Sergeant will (4 Cs):

A

Establish an Incident Command*(CP) in order to (4 C’s):
*Contain the incident to the smallest area possible.
*Control and identify all resources entering area
assigning resources, as the incident requires.
*Communicate to responding personnel situation updates and required resources.
*Coordinate - Assign additional personnel to help Coordinate responding resources

111
Q

Vacation is based on seniority. Leave slips may be submitted up to ____ months in advance. Once approved no other leave may supersede the approved vacation, even if more senior.

A

six months

112
Q

Employees can take up to _____ months of leave for maternity, bonding within 12 months of the birth, placement, adoption or foster care.

A

six months

113
Q

If employee has a medical condition related to pregnancy or child birth, the employee should be treated in the same manner as other employees affected by other temporary disabilities, T/F?

A

True

114
Q

For FMLA the type of leave will be designated in advance with Payroll, if not payroll and supervisor will go in the following order:

A 
Sick
compensatory 
vacation
professional 
bonus
Note: by the 6 month of pregnancy employee should see the Health section and develop a plan for leave usage.
115
Q

FMLA limits time off to 12 weeks to be shared by husband and wife, but LVMPD provides for six months per employee, even if wife and husband work for the department, T/F?

A

True

116
Q

With approval from the department an employee may use up to _____ hours max of sick leave for a doctor appointment.

A

four

117
Q

______________ is defined as: Disparate or different treatment occurs when an employer treats an individual lass favorably than other similarly situated individuals because of their protected status.

A

Disparate Treatment

118
Q

A claim of discrimination based on allegations of disparate treatment must initially establish what two things?

A

1) the complainant is a member of a protected class and

2) the complainant was treated differently from individuals who are similarly situated.

119
Q

To prove disparate treatment, the employer’s actions must be based on a discriminatory motive but do not need to be deliberate or willful, T/F?

A

True

120
Q

The burden of proof stays with the complainant in proving that discrimination against them was based on their protected status. Discriminatory notice is proved when:

A

1) sufficient evidence reasonably determines that the employer’s explanation to the charge is false and
2) that discrimination was more than likely the motivating factor

121
Q

Supervisors who act professionally and decisively in dealing with behavior that could result in any allegation of harassment or discrimination will send out a strong message that it will not be tolerated, T/F?

A

True

122
Q

Supervisors must stop offensive conduct before it becomes pervasive or severe, as defined by law and department policy, regardless of the subordinates’ chain of command, T/F?

A

True

123
Q

EDS:
Supervisors Shall:
 INSIST that all employees be treated with dignity and fairness
 MONITOR the work environment for signs of harassment and/or discrimination
 REFRAIN from encouraging or participating in acts that could be perceived as harassment and/or discrimination
 COUNSEL employees on prohibited behavior
 STOP any acts that may be considered harassment, and take steps to intervene even if the employees involved are not under his/her supervision
and…

A

 REPORT all complaints of harassment/discrimination to the Employment Diversity Section, whether witnessed or reported, formally or informally.

124
Q

Any LVMPD employee that is involved in the complaint process for either a perceived or real violation of Title VII, whether through the Department, Nevada Equal Rights Commission (NERC) or the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC), is protected from any form of retaliation. Title VII prohibits employers from engaging in retaliatory conduct against an employee who either participates in any way in a Title VII proceeding or who opposes any practice which is made unlawful by Title VII.
Retaliation can take on many forms. However, both the EEOC and Courts have recognized some of the more widely used types of retaliation such as:

A
  • Threats to take adverse employment action unless the complainant ceases filing a complaint
  • Intimidation or harassment
  • Transfer to a lower paying job
  • Denial of overtime
  • Retaliatory reprimands
  • Failure to promote
  • Denial of benefits
  • Manufacturing a case against the complainant to support discipline or discharge
  • Constructive discharge
125
Q

Supervisors will not use retaliation as a means to discourage others from complaining. Intimidation tactics, or any significant change in how performance is documented or discipline handled after a complaint is made, can be prima facie evidence of adverse employment action, T/F?

A

True

Note:chain of command should monitor the work environment during and after investigations and routinely follow through with employee(s) to ensure retaliatory behavior is not occurring in the workplace.

126
Q

Miranda V. Arizona was revolutionary in confessions because it involved the ___ amendment, privilege against self incrimination to non-court situations.

A

5th

127
Q

The miranda rule has not made the 14th amendment, due process voluntariness rules obsolete

A
  1. Voluntariness can still be an issue even when Miranda was not required.
  2. Confession can still be attacked on voluntariness even after Miranda
  3. Miranda waivers must be voluntary
  4. statements taken in violation of Miranda can be used to impeach; involuntary statements can not.
128
Q

Miranda:

waivers of the rights must be (3):

A

Voluntary
knowingly
intelligently

Note: this must be proven by t he prosecution by the preponderance of the evidence

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