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study material for 2021. > 1st Deck > Flashcards

1st Deck Flashcards

1
Q

Bomb threats: post blast, who does communications immediately advise?

A

Patrol, Supervisor and notifies ARMOR Supervisor.

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2
Q

Bomb threats: post blast, a minimum of ____ ft. perimeter is placed from any item visually identified as evidence.

A

300 ft

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3
Q

Driving: When do Sergeants complete checkrides?

A

Within one week of assignment. Except for FTEP grads.

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4
Q

All hazard: Who completes the AAR?

what is the time limit?

where does it go?

A
  • The IC
  • within 10 calendar days and forward it
  • to Emergency Management section (EMS).
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5
Q

Bomb threats: for threats against HQ, communications notifies the WC and the watch desk. does the WC email the DC’s, CBRNE Lt, SNCTC Capt., Comms Capt., and executive Lt?

A

Yes, the WC send the email

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6
Q

FFE: Who requests the Area Lt or WC (if Lt unavailable) for confirmed protesters?

A
  • Communications,
  • all OTHER requests are made through communications from the IC
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7
Q

CBRNE: Who commands police operations on a CBRNE incident?

Who do they request/notify via communications?

A
  • The Area LT or IC is in command during CBRNE incident.
  • Notifications will be made to the NV CBRNE by a Supervisor
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8
Q

Foot pursuits: What is the role of the first responding officer not actively engaged in the immediate apprehension?

A

To establish a 360 perimeter.

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9
Q

Driving: Sergeants will conduct web-based UMLV-EVOC training once every ___.

A

Year

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10
Q

Driving: when may officers not wear their safety belt?

A

When traveling less than 15 miles per hour and expecting to take immediate police action once the vehicle has stopped.

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11
Q

Bomb threats: How should evacuations be done?

  • High rise?
  • What criteria?
  • Who is mandated to evacuate?
A
  • High rise - 2 floors above and below the device
  • Criteria- FBI Bomb threat standoff card
  • Who- anyone in the Mandatory zone! Others may shelter in place. (failure evacuate is a violation of NRS 475.070)
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12
Q

Hostage Plan: A Patrol Supervisor does what?-PERV

A

Perimeter- in and out, stop vehicle/foot traffic if required.

Evacuates

Radio- request dedicated channel

Verbal- establishes communication (not negotiating).

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13
Q

FFE: Who will determine the CRIME, DISPERSAL ORDER, if SAT team is needed, establish COMMAND, create a BUFFER zone and make ARREST team? (CDSCBA)

A

The IC

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14
Q

EXCUSABLE accident -the involved member may be at fault, but the collision was unavoidable considering all circumstances is called an_________ accident.

A

excusable

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15
Q

in a All Hazards event, What does a Sergeant do? (CSN - AAR)

A

C-Command-establish.

S -Staff positions of ICS

N - Notify LT or WC if absent (comms does this, just Ensure it gets done)

AAR- complete ICS AAR

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16
Q

At a bomb THREAT what section notifies CBRNE supervisor, CT, SNCTC, WC, LT, and SGT?

A

Communications

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17
Q

CBRNE - What does the first supervisor on scene do? C-ESPN

A

C- Establish command post

E- evacuations

S - safety sweep of area

P- perimeter

N - make notifications via communications

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18
Q

Bomb threats: post blast, what are the only reasons the scene should be entered?

A

To prevent loss of life. Strictly for emergency actions.

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19
Q

All Hazard: When transfer of command occurs, it will be communicated via?

A

Radio to dispatch

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20
Q

FFE: If protest is related to an organized labor union, what section is contacted?

A

Special Investigations Section (SIS)

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21
Q

What 3 prongs make a Barricaded subject?

A
  1. Criminal act or immediate threat to self or public.
  2. Refuses to submit to arrest and may be armed.
  3. At a position of advantage or in the open where police approach would precipitate an adverse reaction.
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22
Q

What does a supervisor do for a barricaded subject? (PSERV)

A

P- Perimeter, inner/outer

S- SWAT- Gather intel and evaluate the need.

E- Evacuate and document!

R- request dedicated channel

V- Verbaly contact subject in a safe manner!

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23
Q

When will a sergeant do a blue team for an officer?

A

If the officer is incapacitated.

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24
Q

When will a supervisor attend ARB?

A

When it is a mandatory appearance at the vehicle collision board

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25
Q

CBRNE - When can officers enter a contaminated area?

A

When utilising proper protective equipment and have been trained in its use.

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26
Q

Foot pursuits: Is the supervisor’s presence required to exercise control of the pursuit?

A

No

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27
Q

Non-preventable accident-The involved member performed in accordance with policy, procedures, training standards and the law.

A

Non-preventable accident

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28
Q

Hostage Plan: For a confirmed hostage situation, Communications will immediately notify____.

A

The SWAT commander and the field supervisor.

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29
Q

Who notifies LT or WC of a hostage or barricade?

A

Communications, All other requests by comms are through the field supervisor

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30
Q

Foot pursuit: supervisors shall take command, control and coordinate. When WILL they respond? ()

A
  1. Injury to officer, citizen, suspect 2. Entry to residence/structure regardless of occupancy. 3. Any reportable force regardless of injury. 4. Unusual occurrence warranting oversight.
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31
Q

At a bomb threat, unattended item, or suspicious item, what is done on initial arrival at the location and at the CP.

A

25-foot and 100-foot search. Use an explosive devise dog (EDD) if available.

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32
Q

All hazard: When May units self dispatch to an incident in a neighbouring area command?

A

When incident occurs close to the border and already in close proximity or when requested by communications, primary, or supervisor

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33
Q

Driving: Definition: One or more vehicles involved, Injury and/or complaint of injury, death and/or $750 or more

A

Accident

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34
Q

Bomb threats: What will a supervisor do at a post blast scene? PSPD

A

P- Perimeter-contact CBRNE for instruction and other scene concerns. S- Security- for the scene. Determine appropriate support personnel P-PERIMETER- maintain until released by Ranking CBRNE or the investigator functioning as liaison for NV CBRNE D- DOG- determine need for to search for secondary device, CBRNE May also make this request.

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35
Q

Accidents: Definition: The involved member violated policy, procedures, trading standards or the law.

A

Preventable

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36
Q

Driving: What does a commissioned supervisor do at an accident? (IN- CBR)

A

I - Investigate N - notify traffic: $750, injury, pinching, PIT Block. - Supervisor report of vehicle incident (is incident, if no other vehicle was involved) C - Check ride for all “preventable” accident B - Blue team- Complete prior to end of shift R - refer to litigation section

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37
Q

Bomb threats: for an unattended item, suspicious package, or 445, What does the field supervisor do? CEOS

A

C- command TO BE Established and brief CBRNE Supervisor. E- establishment is contacted and evacuations are done- when you or higher request CBRNE, O- Officers assigned to the primary location. S-Scene- remain to prevent unauthorised access to the device.

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38
Q

EDS training is required for FTOs and Supervisors every?

A

Annual for FTOs, Biennial for supervisors.

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39
Q

FFE: Dispersal Order is read how many times in what increments?

A

3 separate times in 10 minute increments. Name and time is recorded.

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40
Q

Hostage Plan: Who completes Officers Reports and forwards them to the SWAT section for the AAR?

A

A) Primary Unit B) Patrol CP Recorder C) CNT D) SWAT Unit

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41
Q

Bomb threats: For threats against vehicles, how should officers inspect and when do they make noitification?

A

Do a visual preliminary threat assessment prior to approaching. Don’t open any doors, trunk, or hood. Notify CBRNE if anything suspicious is located.

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42
Q

Foot pursuit: At the termination point, supervisors should do what two things?

A
  1. Respond to termination point and 2.Direct post pursuit activity. Conduct after action reviews with officers involved as practical and should consider debriefing at a suitable time.
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43
Q

Barricaded subject: Suicidal barricades involve subjects who pose:

A

An immediate or demonstrated threat to the public.

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44
Q

Foot pursuit: What justification is needed to engage in a foot pursuit?

A

Reasonable suspicion.

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45
Q

FFE: Who completes Officers Reports and sends them to the SAT team supervisor for the AAR?

A

A) Primary Responding Unit B) CP recorder C) SAT Team Section

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46
Q

Foot pursuit: Supervisors WILL

A

Make every effort to respond to a foot pursuit and to monitor its progress and outcome.

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47
Q

STAR protocol- what are the 3 criteria for a supervisors response?

A
  1. Credible information that the subject is armed with a firearm or other dangerous weapon. (Not simulated or unseen) 2. Subject is acting in a threatening manner with the weapon. 3. This will not include open carry or pocket knives, when carrying is the sole justification for the call.
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48
Q

STAR protocol- Three officers at a minimum will be dispatched T/F?

A

True

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49
Q

STAR protocol - what will the patrol supervisor do? SOAP -AA

A

S-Self dispatch or ensure a supervisor takes your spot! If unavailable O-Oversee- responsible for tactics and supervision.A - acknowledges and responds P- plan-determine tools LL, rifle, array team etc. A - ANSEC-request work up when necessary ( you call or designate an officer) A - AAR placing a hazard on the location and subject involved-if legitimate threat.

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50
Q

STAR protocol - what is significant about the 3rd arriving officer on star?

A

It creates an arrest team which allow for LL and for someone on lethal weapon.

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51
Q

STAR protocol - if the call resulted in a legitimate threat what does the supervisor do at the conclusion?

A

AAR- hazard of property and person

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52
Q

Social media: speech on or off duty pursuant to official duties is not protected speech T/F?

A

True

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53
Q

Social media: members are free to express themselves as private citizens in matters of public concern to the degree that their speech does not:

A
  1. Impair working relationships of the department for which loyalty and confidentiality are important 2. Impede performance 3. Impair discipline or harmony of coworkers 4. Negatively impact the departments ability to serve
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54
Q

Social media: members will not disseminate in any way information obtained:

A

As a result of their employment, without written permission if the sheriff or his designee

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55
Q

Who approves department social media sites?

A

A DC or designee. PIO approves and registers members of the bureau/section responsible for the cite.

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56
Q

On department sanctioned sites, officers will make no statements about suspects/arrestees, pending prosecutions or disseminate any personnel or confidential info without expressed written permission T/F?

A

True

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57
Q

Potential social media uses include:

A
  1. Investigation tool, 2. community engagement, and 3. time-sensitive notifications
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58
Q

BWC: For application of reportable force, except use of deadly force, what steps does a supervisor take to investigate? (

A
  1. Access the video on scene in the presence of the involved officer(s). 2. Record the citizen interview. 3. Not record subject officer during the investigation. 4. Review the video with the involved officer prior to use of force report being completed, if an involved officer is unavailable at the scene. 5. Ensure review of BWC is documented in narrative. 6. Review position of camera to ensure it is appropriately placed. **if your officer captures a UOF of a specialized unit, coordinate with their Sgt. to review prior to concluding at scene investigation
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59
Q

BWC: For a bureau SOC, the Supervisor will:

A
  1. Interview and record complainant first when possible 2. Does not record the SE 3. Access video on scene, COMPLAINANT DOESNT SEE THIS! 4. Notate BWC available and was reviewed accordingly in SOC or contact…which ever is appropriate. 5. Take appropriate action if false reporting crimes unlawful (ICR and notify IAB criminal team).
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60
Q

BWC: officers have discretion to deactivate their camera, what are instances listed in policy? (4)

A
  1. At a request of a citizen, when appropriate. Record the request and your response. 2. A citizen with standing in a consensual residence. This may be a contingency. 3. Victims or witness when uncomfortable. Audio only may be an option. 4. Be mindful of locations, worship, daycares, law offices.
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61
Q

BWC: OIS or use of deadly force, can officers view the footage?

A

Only fo exigent circumstances, not until FIT/CIRT view it first.

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62
Q

BWC: OIS or use of deadly force, involved and witness officers may only view their own BWC prior to walkthrough T/F

A

True

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63
Q

BWC: on an OIS or use of deadly force, IC identifies and documents locations of BWCs on scene and requests deactivation when static.Who collects them for upload?

A

The IC ALSO makes sure they stay affixed in place on the employee FIT or CIRT uploads

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64
Q

Examples of when Sergeants may view BWC are:

A

During a policy required investigation. In the notes section, Sgt. must state reason for inspection and person requesting. Need advanced authorization from the LT or captain.

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65
Q

BWC: who needs to approve footage being used for training outside of FTEP AOST and RBT?

A
  1. The officer, 2. BWC LT in coordination with the ODB commander.
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66
Q

In reference to dispatches response category profile, SGTs will consider what to alter necessary units?

A

1.Knowledge of incident, 2.location, and 3. participants involved.

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67
Q

Communications can dispatch out of assigned area command based on:

A

Emergency OR supervisor approval.

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68
Q

Cadet/PSR request are handled between who?

A

Area sgts.

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69
Q

Plain clothes in area need to have a senior officer or supervisor notify?

A

Area command and communications supervisors.

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70
Q

Bureau non emergency requests of patrol are made how? Outside agency non routine requests are made how?

A
  1. Bureau supervisor to field Sgt. 2. Comms Supervisor to LT.
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71
Q

CIT, AAR done are done when____ T/F? 1. Threats to police/others 2. Homeland security concerns. 3. Violence involved 4. Weapons involved 5. Officer safety concerns

A

True

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72
Q

Pending calls: emergency calls may be dispatched up to the end of shift. Non-Emergency calls may be dispatched up to -

A

45 minute

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73
Q

For any call pending for _____ minutes, a sgt will advise the PR of delay or offer other solutions.

A

90

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74
Q

Unless unavailable, if a call is held or cancelled by a sgt, the sgt will:

A

Call the PR and explain. And update the event

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75
Q

Crime scene and notifications: when detectives respond to a crime scene, who SHOULD respond and provide a brief on the event?

A

The patrol supervisor, they can designate an officer to do the brief.

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76
Q

Crime scene and notifications: For ISD level investigations, PD, when available is requested to assist with the preliminary investigation and the ranking supervisor will respond. T/F

A

True

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77
Q

Crime scene and notifications: for suspicious deaths/suicides, who needs to assess before homicide will come?

A

Crime scene analysts and the coroners investigators

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78
Q

For Crime scene and notifications: Who notifies the FIT/CIRT, LT via the communications supervisor?

A

The DSD or Patrol WC

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79
Q

Crime scene and notifications: FIT/CIRT WILL be notified for: (5)

A
  1. OIS 2. in custody death/ SBH with police involvement. 3. Use of deadly force 4. Force leading to critical injury 5 department members, during their duty, victim of a violent crime AND sustain critical injuries. CIRT only: 405z at DSD, not gestures
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80
Q

Crime scene and notifications: First arriving officers will put YELLOW tape where?

A

Inner and outer perimeter

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81
Q

Crime scene and notifications: who places red tape?

A

FIT supervisor or designee.

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82
Q

Crime scene and notifications: to enter the red tape, who authorises?

A

A FIT detective and CSI director/supervisor

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83
Q

Crime scene and notifications: when can crime scene walkthroughs happen?

A

After a CSA documents the scene and the investigating detective approve.

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84
Q

Crime scene and notifications: standard, how are CSAs requested?

A

Through communications

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85
Q

Crime scene and notifications: on all crimes where an investigative unit is responding or conducting a follow up investigation, what log SHOULD be done?

A

A major incident log.

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86
Q

Crime scene and notifications: who responds to all major incidents/scenes and assumes command from patrol officers?

A

The area SGT or LT.

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87
Q

Crime scene and notifications: who notifies the WC of the all the major incidents/scenes details ?

A

The Area SGT

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88
Q

Crime scene and notifications: if preliminary investigating or follow up is needed, who assumes control of the investigation? And who maintains scene integrity (after consultation).

A

Detectives take the investigations. Supervisors coordinate available personnel for scene preservation.

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89
Q

Crime scene and notifications: when does patrol do impound per this policy? (6)

A
  1. Secondary locations 2. They handled it. 3. Safekeeping 4. Large amounts 5. Misdemeanor crimes. 6. CSA not requested.
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90
Q

Crime scene and notifications: when do officers download photos into onbase?

A

Prior to end of shift

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91
Q

Crime scene and notifications: on homicides (any death or crime where death is probable) investigations, INTERVIEWS AND EVIDENCE collection will NOT be done by non homicide personnel unless approved by?

A

Homicide LT or designee

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92
Q

Crime scene and notifications: communications supervisor notifies coroner when? (3)

A
  1. Suicides, overdoses, natural or accidental: Patrol in charge. 2. 420a or questionable: homicide detective in charge. 3 FIT: FIT detective in charge.
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93
Q

Domestic Dog Encounters: As Patrol responds to a vicious or aggressive dog, they WILL verify what with communications?

A

Animal control has been notified and is enrt

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94
Q

Domestic Dog Encounters: communications WILL inquire if the dog is known and where his master lives during a response?

A

Yes

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95
Q

Domestic Dog Encounters: officers WILL NOT approach an aggressive dog unless:

A

It’s attacking or they believe it’s about to attack: 1. officer, 2.person, or 3. animal.

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96
Q

Domestic Dog Encounters: where are catch poles located during normal patrol activities?

A

Supervisor vehicles.

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97
Q

Domestic Dog Encounters: Who is part in an ideal dog team?

A
  1. SGT, 2. Officer with a pole, 3. Officer with a LL option (taser, OC, Bean bag) 3. Officer with lethal.
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98
Q

Domestic Dog Encounters: a catch pole has been deployed IN RESPONSE TO AN ANIMAL COMPLAINT CALL. What does the PRIMARY officer do?

A
  1. Announce VIA RADIO the deployment, 2. the dispatcher will update CAD. 3. At the conclusion the primary officer will update CAD with its effectiveness.
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99
Q

To be the safest community in America.

A

Department VISION

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100
Q

Department VALUES:

A

ICARE

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101
Q

Serve people, Strengthen relationships and, Improve quality of life.

A

Department MISSION

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102
Q

LVMPD Lead through empowerment and accountability. Value our employees and those we serve. Maximise trust, transparency and communication. Protect the public through education, innovation, and enforcement. Develop and enhance community relationships.

A

Department GOALS

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103
Q

Foot Pursuit: officers initiating foot pursuit should broadcast the following information as soon as it becomes practical and available 5

A
  1. Unit identifier 2. Location and direction of travel 3. Reason for the foot pursuit. 4. Number of subjects and description. 5. Whether the subject is known or believed to be armed.
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104
Q

Witness Identification: if video/audio is used for any line-up, the officer conducting the line-up will do what with the recording?

A

Impound it.

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105
Q

Witness Identification: Mug books generated by officers will not be shown to witnesses for identification purposes unless:

A

Specifically requested by the DA’s office.

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106
Q

Witness Identification: the use of an independent administrator in a photo lineup is known as a _____ method?

A

Double blind

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107
Q

Witness Identification: photo line ups will NOT be used as the sole basis of an arrest unless authorized by a _____and approval of ______Office.

A

Lieutenant The District Attorneys office

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108
Q

Witness Identification: sequential line ups may be used when the officer can not prepare a line up from:

A

The lvmpd mug shot system.

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109
Q

Witness Identification: sources for lineups may include:

A

Mug shots, yearbooks, dmv, or other.

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110
Q

Witness Identification: all photo line ups conducted WILL be ______, unless generated and electronically stored version within the LVMPD mugshot system.

A

Impounded.

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111
Q

Witness Identification: how many fillers are in each lineup?

A

5

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112
Q

Witness Identification: the suspect will appear how many times in each line up? If more than one witness The photos will change positions.

A

1 time

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113
Q

Witness Identification: during a line up, the eye witness describes how they recognize a suspect, this statement will be documented on either a ______ or a ________?

A

Arrest or officers report.

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114
Q

Witness Identification: during a sequential line up, the witness identifies the suspect right away (2nd picture) the administrator will: If the witness requests to see the 2nd picture one more time, the administrator will do the whole thing again.

A
  1. Continue with the line up, show all pictures
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115
Q

Witness Identification: when will the independent administrator be told which is the potential suspect?

A

The administrator will not be told.

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116
Q

Witness Identification: you want to do a live line up, the booking Lt. need to have the request prior to 1200 hrs the day before. T/F

A

True

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117
Q

Witness Identification: for live line ups if there is only one eye the suspect’s attorney picks the line up. If multiple witnesses who picks?

A

The detective, and will rearrange each line up.

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118
Q

Witness Identification: prior to each live lineup photographs must be taken T/F

A

True

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119
Q

Witness Identification: For live line up replacements, when is this done?

A

15 minutes prior

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120
Q

Witness Identification: live line up statements and results will be documented on a investigative case file and copies forwarded to _______?

A

the DA office.

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121
Q

Witness Identification: may the suspect’s attorney question a witness at a live line up?

A

No

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122
Q

Witness Identification: a show up should be done when a lineup is appropriate and/or practical and within _____hrs of the the incident?

A

1-3 hours

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123
Q

Witness Identification: during a show up, does the 60 minute rule apply? Do you move the suspect?

A

-Yes -You SHOULD NOT move the suspect. Search and seizure handbook: in extreme cases you may move the suspect to the victim. An example given was a 426 victim at a hospital who was being treated. It was reasonable to bring the suspect to the hospital while her memory was fresh…totally impractical to move the victim to the suspect.

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124
Q

Witness Identification: if one eyewitness makes a positive identification during a show up, and PC exists, what SHOULD be done with subsequent witnesses?

A

Photo line ups.

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125
Q

Witness Identification: For showups, regardless of outcome a Show-up witness instruction form will be completed in all Felony crimes T/F?

A

True

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126
Q

Witness Identification: what does a supervisor do for lineups? (4)

A
  1. Ensure lead detective selects a method (simultaneous/sequential) 2. Ensure photos depict a likeness 3. Ensure positions change per viewer 4.review package and paperwork at conclusion for completeness
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127
Q

418: In compliance with the National Child Search Assistance Act of 1990, what is the waiting period to file a missing persons report with the LVMPD?

A

There is no waiting period.

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128
Q

418: All Juvenile’s, 17 and younger, will be entered into NCIC within ____ hrs of receiving the required minimum data elements.

A

2

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129
Q

418: Missing persons age 18-20 will be immediately entered into NCIC in accordance with the federally mandated Suzanne’s Law within ______hours of receiving the required minimum data elements.

A

2

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130
Q

418: Adults (21+) can only be entered into NCIC if they have: (5)

A
  1. A disability 2. Are in physical danger 3. Involuntary circumstances 4. Victim of a catastrophe 5. Other suspicious circumstances
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131
Q

418: The _____ number, must be added to P1 and/or CAD by the report taker then indicate the entry was complete. ALL JUVENILE REPORTS WILL CONTAIN THIS.

A

The NIC number

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132
Q

418: If entered into NCIC and subsequently located You still do the report. You must also ____ the NCIC record?

A

you must cancel the NCIC record.

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133
Q

418: Who has copies of juvenile reports and acts as the NV clearing house for missing children? When does LVMPD send reports to them?

A
  1. The office of the Attorney General (AG) 2. When requested (at their direction)
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134
Q

418: communications receives a 418 call. When do they dispatch patrol (6)

A
  1. Under the age or 12 or documented diminish mental capacity under 12. 2. Physical/mental condition which hinders the ability to care for themselves, posing a significant risk of death or serious bodily harm 3. Possible victim of foul play 4. Actively threatening or attempting suicide 5. Potential life threatening situation. 6. Possession of a firearm or large amount of money.
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135
Q

418: If a juvenile is taken into protective custody, who must report them missing?

A

Whoever has custody, (CPS, foster parent, etc.)

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136
Q

418: when a missing person report involves a vehicle, who is immediately called?

A

WVS desk.

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137
Q

418: when a runaway report involves numerous NON-SIBLING juveniles (including at west care and child haven). each child gets their own P1 report with their own _______ number.

A

event

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138
Q

418: when are multiple runaways listed in the same report?

A

when they have the Same parent/guardian or household. Again, West care and child haven are not a “household”

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139
Q

418: If after the preliminary investigation AND you have any one of the following, Who do you contact and notify? 1. Under the age or 12 or documented diminish mental capacity under 12. 2. Physical/mental condition which hinders the ability to care for themselves, posing a risk of death or serious bodily harm 3. Possible victim of foul play 4. Actively threatening or attempting suicide 5. Potential life threatening situation. 6. Possession of a firearm or large amount of money.

A

A supervisor and the Missing persons detail.

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140
Q

418: what is the supervisors role on 418’s?

A
  1. Ensure P1 is complete. 2. Ensure NCIC entries have a NIC. 3. If you have 1. Under the age or 12 or documented diminish mental capacity under 12. 4. Physical/mental condition which hinders the ability to care for themselves, posing a risk of death or serious bodily harm 5. Possible victim of foul play 4. Actively threatening or attempting suicide 5. Potential life threatening situation. 6. Possession of a firearm or large amount of money. 7Ensure Missing Persons was notified
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141
Q

418: If a missing person is not voluntarily missing and potentially a 420 victim, who notifies homicide?

A

MP detectives or SGTs (But not if it appears to be 405)

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142
Q

Which section responds for the following? 1. Info indicates death/substantial bodily harm is likely 2. Person meets l2k criteria 3. Doesn’t meet criteria BUT is request by the patrol supervisor or WC

A

Missing persons responds with their supervisor approval

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143
Q

418: what is the name of the alert for the following? 1. Confirmed abduction 2.Under 18 3. Threat or serious bodily harm or death 4. Have suspect or vehicle info

A

Amber Alert

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144
Q

418: -For alleged non-custodial parent abductions, the parent is entered and listed under the same NCIC T/F? -For straight parent and child missing together, the parent is listed under a DIFFERENT NCIC T/F?

A

true

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145
Q

418: Mom goes hiking with her kids and they all disappear…probably eaten by a bear. How is everyone listed?

A

Everyone gets a separate NCIC entry and parent is listed as a Person with information for each kid.

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146
Q

418: when a missing kid (under 21) ages up and is still missing (becomes an adult). Who has the authority to remove/cancel, if they decided?

A

Missing persons detail.

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147
Q

418: when locating a juvenile and there are no criminal charges, who are they released to?

A

A legal guardian Child haven or West care.

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148
Q

418: IA person is located and had not been reported missing to LVMPD. How does the patrol officer handle this?

A

Contact records, They will send a NCIC locate to the appropriate agency

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149
Q

421: patrol will not be dispatched on ROUTINE 421 calls, unless:

A

Medical services request officers to respond.

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150
Q

421: Patrol will be dispatched for Sick or injured persons for the following reason, T/F: 1. Are suspicious in nature 2. Related to unknown trouble calls 3. Involve injuries as a result of criminal activity or traffic accident. 4. Are the result of a gunshot. 5. Other circumstances indicate a need for police involvement.

A

True

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151
Q

421: If an injured person is suffering from potential life threatening injury or substantial head trauma, an ICR is taken and ______ will be taken to document the scene.

A

photos

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152
Q

421: If officers respond to a structure and the sole occupant is transported they SHOULD:

A

Lock it or call an on call company to secure it if they can’t!

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153
Q

421: what are the five manners of death?

A

1 Natural 2 Accidental 3 Homicide 4 suicide 5 undetermined

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154
Q

421: on suspicious deaths/ homicides. A patrol supervisor will:

A

1.Respond and confirm it’s is suspicious or related to a homicide. 2.Ensure CSA has been requested. 3.Ensure homicide has been notified

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155
Q

421: patrol officers will not begin an ICR on a homicide or suspicious death unless:

A

Instructed by the detective.

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156
Q

421: homicide DOES NOT need notifications for:

A
  1. Suicide 2. Overdose 3. Non suspicious
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157
Q

421: When homicide responds AND assume investigative responsibility, they confer with patrol supervisor to determine:

A

Who completes the dead body incident report.

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158
Q

421: The dead body incident report will not be used to document a________:

A

Homicide

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159
Q

421: who investigates all deaths other than homicide, in custody or suspicious:

A

Deputy Coroner Investigator

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160
Q

421: on a 419, all personal property is impounded by:

A

Deputy coroner or PA, not LVMPD

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161
Q

421: A F/A used in a suicide will be impounded as evidence by? All other firearms are the responsibility of? Officers may impound others as?

A

-CSAs -Coroner/PA -Safekeeping: detail on property report a THREAT to LIFE/SAFETY

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162
Q

421: vehicle of a dead body, we only tow if:

A

The vehicle is a hazard in the roadway

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163
Q

421: If the coroner is securing a structure we: If we damage the structure:

A

MAY stay on scene until secure we WILL call the on call company and standby

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164
Q

421: Abuse Neglect LT will be notified on All child related deaths T/F:

A

True

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165
Q

421: on all events related to the death of a child, officers and supervisor will be dispatched?

A

yes

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166
Q

421: on child deaths, a patrol supervisor will:

A

Respond. Ensure CSA has been requested Ensure homicide and/or AN has been requested.

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167
Q

421: on child deaths in hospitals with any concern of AN, who determines if they can have access or keepsakes?

A

Lead Investigating sergeant

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168
Q

BWC: commissioned police officers, of any rank, when assigned a device, will wear their camera at all times while in _______:

A

uniform.

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169
Q

BWC: wearers will wear their BWC on their _______bearing shoulder.

A

Non-weapon bearing

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170
Q

BWC: Officers will document the existence of a BWC on what places or reports?

A

MDT closing comments P1 FIs, cite narratives investigative reports, arrest documents.

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171
Q

BWC: In addition to UOF and SOCs. What are supervisors expected to routinely do with body cams? (5) 1. Ensure policy is being followed. 2. Conduct routine inspections of the wear method (correct shoulder, not blocked by uniform) 3. Put malfunctioning cameras on the ETM, issue an entirely new camera (cord, pack, controller) and assign in evidence.com

A

4.Retrieve and upload BWC for officers unable to do so by end of shift. 5. Access BWCs in accordance with policy, if no access, contact another supervisor, PD, IS, or BWC. Ensure marked with retention categories.

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172
Q

BWC: officers will activate the BWC as soon as a call is initiated via radio and/or MDT, they may deactivate if the event concludes prior to arrival or not activate until arrived if at what percent of battery power? Who doesn’t activate until they are within 2 miles of arrival?

A

-Less than 20% -K9, Traffic, resident, unless code 3, Swat activates at individual deployment.

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173
Q

BWC: Officers have the discretion to deactivate the BWC when:

A

-The privacy concerns outweigh law enforcement interests and -the absence of a BWC will not affect the investigation.

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174
Q

BWC: The decision to deactivate a BWC should be:

A

Stated prior to deactivation.

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175
Q

BWC: if an officer has a malfunction with their camera, what do they do to document the malfunction?

A

Send an email to SAU.

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176
Q

BWC: Does supply accounts for all cameras through the WASP tracking system?

A

YES

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177
Q

BWC: What are the training exceptions of the BWC?

A

FTEP AOST RBT SWAT after action reviews

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178
Q

BWC: at mass demonstrations, crowd control, and riots, the Lt. directs the usage of a BWC, T/F

A

True

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179
Q

BWC: If during a special event (OT), an officer involved in an incident requires to be finished (pursuit, use of force, soc) beyond the end of the shift; Events Planning section will add _____ minutes to the end of the shift?

A

30 minutes.

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180
Q

BWC: While working OT at the jail, where is the BWC kept?

A

Gun locker

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181
Q

BWC: at the airport, officers will use extra caution to not capture the codes being entered on the cover code pads, T/F?

A

True

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182
Q

BWC: access to evidence.com is permitted on a______ and______ basis:

A

Right-to-know, and need-to-know basis.

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183
Q

BWC: news release of BWC is governed primarily by the ______ policy.

A

News media and public information.

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184
Q

BWC: Who approves to download, disseminate, copy, and record BWC, at the area command ? The _____ Commander gives expressed written permission?

A

General counsel and PIO Bureau commander

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185
Q

BWC: auto label retention on: A/D dispositions

A

10 years

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186
Q

BWC: auto label retention on: B/E dispositions

A

5 years

187
Q

BWC: auto label retention on: C/K/L/P/Q/T/Z dispositions

A

1 year

188
Q

BWC: auto label retention on: F/G/H/I/J/M/O/RS dispositions

A

90 days

189
Q

BWC: manual hold, short-term retention (non-BWC evidence) is how many years

A

4 years

190
Q

BWC: mid-term retention on (risk management, legal, 401)

A

7 years

191
Q

BWC: long term retention on (OIS, SA, etc.)

A

20 years

192
Q

BWC: indefinite retention on

A

Homicide, pending, NPRA, training.

193
Q

BWC: what’re the two compliance aspects?

A

Activation performance rate (apr) and % of assigned time recorded

194
Q

BWC: a “status report” is given around ____ day. A monthly compliance is given around the_____ day.

A

19th 5th

195
Q

BWC: for non compliance, a contact is not given until:

A

-the review of the report, videos and CAD. -Then acontact will document all conversations and compliance or noncompliance

196
Q

BWC: all initial camera assignments will be through?

A

Logistics supply section.

197
Q

Driving: supervisors shall conduct periodic spot inspections of vehicles assigned to their personnel at least once per____:

A

Month

198
Q

FFE: The use of a dispersal order MUST be authorized by the:

A

Incident Commander (IC)

199
Q

FFE: Who provides tactical options to extricate Locked protestors?

A

Saturation Team Supervisor

200
Q

FFE: Who is in primary command of a protest/field force extrication? (Hint is not the saturation team Sgt.)

A

The IC

201
Q

FFE: Who does the AAR for a FFE?

A

Saturation Team Supervisor

202
Q

Drug Free Workplace: Officer knight is a self-reported alcohol abuser. He participates in MANDATORY treatment and is on a last chance agreement. He is subjected to unannounced testing for how many years?

A

2 years

203
Q

Drug Free Workplace: Drug test results are provided to the member by____ in the first 24hrs then IAB.

A

The Medical Review Officer (MRO) SUPERVISORS ONLY: MRO in 24 hours, then to CIRT and CIRT notifies IAB. MRO discusses results…IAB will provide results

204
Q

Drug Free Workplace: After a reasonable suspicion (RS) test sample is collected, the member will be released to the custody of his _____.

A

Supervisor

205
Q

Drug Free Workplace: If physical manifestations of impairment are present, a commissioned supervisor will have the member perform SFSTs before at least how many members?

A

2

206
Q

Drug Free Workplace: For a reasonable suspicion test, the supervisor and IAB document the RS on an:

A

SOC, via Blue Team

207
Q

Drug Free Workplace: Prescriptions must be renewed:

A

Annually - at a minimum Or Prior to an expiration 14 days, 30 days etc if not annual or continual.

208
Q

Drug Free Workplace: Members having ___________ that another member is ILLEGALLY in possession, manufacturing, etc. a controlled substance will immediately report the facts and circumstances to their supervisor.

A

Reasonable suspicion

209
Q

Drug Free Workplace: Members who unintentionally ingest a controlled substance will immediately report the incident to their_____:

A

supervisor

210
Q

Drug Free Workplace: Sleeping on duty is:

A

Prohibited

211
Q

Drug Free Workplace: Your officer states they “wish they were dead”. This is an overt act IF they:

A

Have a plan for action

212
Q

Drug Free Workplace: A BAC at or above ________ May be grounds for discipline or termination.

A

0.02

213
Q

Drug Free Workplace: Officer Jones tells you he plans to 401 after work hoping the crash will kill him. You want to place Jones on relief of duty. First you will consult with _____________or ____________in his s absence.

A
  1. The bureau commander 2. The WC
214
Q

EIIP: Who does a supervisor contact for an employee performance review (EPR)?

A

Early Identification and Intervention Program (EIIP)

215
Q

EIIP: Supervisors receive EIIP alerts via:

A

Email

216
Q

EIIP: Firearms discharges are calculated over a rolling time period of ___months.

A

60 months

217
Q

EIIP: Only the __________ itself and the chain of command have access to the employees dashboard.

A

employee

218
Q

EIIP: The color __________ indicates a threshold has been reached or surpassed

A

Red

219
Q

EIIP: The __________ Review Board (CRB) requests do not affect the employees dashboard.

A

Citizen

220
Q

EIIP: Any supervisory action taken is informal, flexible, and __________.

A

Confidential

221
Q

EIIP identifies trends and patterns before they become risks and liabilities for the department and the _____________

A

employee

222
Q

EIIP is the LVMPDs Non- disciplinary approach to addressing employee performance problems T/F?

A

True

223
Q

EIIP is part of the departments larger effort to support and improve:

A

Employee performance

224
Q

EIIP stands for:

A

Early Identification and Intervention Program

225
Q

CSI: abuse/neglect will be notified for all:

A
  1. Child or elder, substantial injuries as a result of abuse and/or neglect. 2. All child deaths 3. Elder (60+) deaths as a result of abuse/neglect
226
Q

CSI: if needed, which section will request PD to DSD for a preliminary investigation?

A

The on call FIT/CIRT LT.

227
Q

CSI: If a crime involves a dignitary or politician, who is notified?

A

Criminal Intellignece Section LT or designee

228
Q

445: Which section investigates bomb threats and extortions as well as found or suspected devices?

A

ARMOR

229
Q

445: Which agency is the primary agency for all terrorist incidents?

A

FBI

230
Q

445: All decisions regarding compliance with extortion demands will be made by:

A

The representative of the establishment

231
Q

445: For a bomb threat, if the PR insists a police response is NOT necessary an ______ will be taken.

A

IO report

232
Q

445: On a bomb threat, the officer should make updates via:

A

MDT or Land line. Radios could trigger a bomb

233
Q

445: For a suspected or known explosive device, department personnel will NOT:

A

Touch move or handle in any way

234
Q

445: At a located device the ranking CBRNE member will be in command of the primary location and all personnel assigned to it T/F?

A

True

235
Q

445: Explosive device media released is conferred among what four entities:

A
  1. ARMOR supervisor 2. CT captain or LT 3. FBI Or 4.ATF
236
Q

445: If a death occurs from a bomb: Which section conducts the death investigation? Which section will do the post blast investigation?

A

Homicide ARMOR

237
Q

445: Other than small samples, will CSI handle or impound live explosives?

A

No,

238
Q

445: For in-depth CSA cases, who may be contacted?

A

BATF special teams

239
Q

All hazard: EMS will ensure all hazard training is provided to all affected personnel and may include any of the necessary exercise components how often.

A

Annual

240
Q

All hazard: All commissioned officers must complete ICS 100, 200, and 700 with in the first ______ of employment:

A

year.

241
Q

All hazard: command will be established by the most qualified officer regardless of _______, who is physically at scene.

A

rank

242
Q

All hazard: Shift WC’s should not assume an IC position. T/F?

A

True

243
Q

All hazard: when a command post is established it will be given a unique name and broadcast to communications T/F?

A

True

244
Q

All hazard: for large scale, multi-jurisdictional events with various area commands to ensure LIP, which section takes the ORs?

A

Records Bureau. But not if you used deadly force.

245
Q

All hazard: who ensures a supervisor is notified and en route to a all hazard emergency?

A

1st arriving officers

246
Q

All hazard: all requests for regional, state or federal resources are made through which section?

A

The Emergency Management Section.

247
Q

All hazard: officers and supervisors will arrive at an incident and Exercise radio discipline, remaining off channel and showing “arrived” on the MDT, T/F?

A

True

248
Q

All hazard: as appropriate, what section arranges for psychological support and counseling for members?

A

Police Employee Assistance Program (PEAP)

249
Q

Hostage: In the case of hostage takers. The department will through all means attempt to? (2)

A

1 The safe rescue of hostages 2. Apprehensions of the hostage taker.

250
Q

Barricade: An incident involving a armed suicidal subject is a barricade incident T/F?

A

True

251
Q

Barricade: The patrol supervisor in whose area an incident a barricade occurs shall be in primary command of all police operations during an incident.

A

Patrol supervisor

252
Q

During a Hostage and/or barricade (identical for both): The recorder maintains a _________ log of events to update the patrol division supervisor of personnel assignments.

A

chronological

253
Q

Hostage: Once SWAT arrives, they will assume command of tactical ops, inner perimeter control and will coordinate contact via CNT. The Patrol Supervisor will assume command of logistical/support concerns T/F?

A

True

254
Q

Social media: Department members are _______________ from disclosing information pertaining to any other member of the department without permission of the affected _____________. This includes “tagging” in text or photos.

A

Prohibited Member.

255
Q

Social media: Topics of public concern include employment/personnel matters or information learned in the course of employment.T/F

A

False - the topic must be public and not arising from the course of my employment

256
Q

418: For NCIC entry, Missing persons must be under one of the following categories: JIVED-O

A

Juvenile 20 and below Involuntary circumstances Victim of a catastrophe Endangered - physical danger Disability or other suspicious circumstances

257
Q

418 When a patrol officer is dispatched to a 418, they will record in CAD:

A

When the minimum data elements were obtained

258
Q

418: A person of interest is Listed as a person of interest T/F?

A

True

259
Q

418: For violations of family court visitation, officers can complete:

A

A contact card and refer them to the admin office of family court

260
Q

421: Inmate in custody deaths occur at:

A

North valley complex CCDC or a medical facility

261
Q

Voice radio communications: The 492 is not used by Resident Officers. Instead they must:

A

Be assigned to an existing event or have dispatch assign to and event and go “to other”

262
Q

Voice radio communications: IDF code stands for:

A

Incident disposition function.

263
Q

Voice radio communications: on the mdt, on mileage is out under: Off mileage is in comments of:

A

To other Stat clear

264
Q

Voice radio communications: Phonetic alphabet will be used in all cases where:

A

License plate numbers are broadcast. NOT for streets, businesses, etc unless a doubt exists

265
Q

Voice radio communications: when will covert or UCs respond to a patrol call?

A

When requested or if a crime occurs in their presence. They should not respond or leave their vehicle on scene until they notify communications and communications advises them they’re aware.

266
Q

CBRNE: Which agency is the lead for all WMD/CBRNE incidents?

A

FBI

267
Q

CBRNE: When is the Clark County Mass Casualty Plan implemented?

A

If an incident results in MORE THAN 20 casualties

268
Q

CBRNE: who inventories equipment for safekeeping or destruction if item cannot be fully decontaminated?

A

The supervisor.

269
Q

Driving: Officers discovering damage to their vehicle will document by completing a _______ report?

A

Officers report prior to end of shift

270
Q

Driving: Supervisors shall conduct inspections every _______ of vehicles assigned to their personnel. Deficiencies or corrective actions will be recorded in a contact:

A

Monthly

271
Q

CBRNE: Who commands the outer perimeter and traffic control?

A

Senior traffic supervisor on scene.

272
Q

SOCIAL MEDIA: Department social media pages shall be approved by a __________ and forwarded to the PIO for registry.

A

DC or designee. PIO will also identify the officer or position responsible for maintaining the media page.

273
Q

Dispatch of units on 421 or deaths: Is a supervisor REQUIRED to respond to the scene of a death when it appears to be natural to the Patrol Officer?

A

Supervisor WILL“Respond to the scene (unless death appears to be natural) and confirm with the patrol officer the death is not suspicious or the result of a homicide”

274
Q

Dispatch of units on 421 or deaths: Which section Lt. will be contacted regarding the death of a person with media interest, child death related to physical violence or a LVMPD employee/family member?

A

Homicide Lt. Or designee

275
Q

Dispatch of units on 421 or deaths: T/F: a dead body report may be used to document a homicide?

A

FALSE It “Will not be used” for a homicide

276
Q

Dispatch of units on 421 or deaths: What are the only times LVMPD will deal with property on a dead body call?

A
  1. The firearm used in a suicide call (by CSI) 2. Other firearms May be impounded for safekeeping IF a threat to life or safety exists (documented in the property report) 3. Vehicles which are causing a hazard on a roadway
277
Q

Dispatch of units on 421 or deaths: Which section Lt. will be notified on all child related deaths? (Child means someone less than 18)

A

The Abuse Neglect Lt.

278
Q

Dispatch of units on 421 or deaths: Who makes the decision on whether family members can hold the deceased child or collect keepsakes?

A

“The lead investigating sergeant”

279
Q

Dispatch of units on 421 or deaths: What are the Supervisors duties on a deceased child event?(3)

A
  1. Respond to the scene 2. Ensure CSA has been requested 3. Ensure homicide detail and/or AN have been requested.
280
Q

Dispatch of units on 421 or deaths: Which section Lt. will be contacted on all in custody deaths?

A

The FIT Lt.

281
Q

Recertification for the dog catchpole will occur once per _____:

A

year

282
Q

Crime scene: An officer locates evidence of a crime outside of the crime scene. They are responsible for the impound unless it is a: (what 2 specific scenes?)

A
  1. Homicide 2. FIT ***or in any circumstance where it would be in the best interest for CSI to impound or special handling***
283
Q

Crime scene: All deaths or injuries where death is probable, will be treated as a _____________ until the investigation determines otherwise.

A

Homicide

284
Q

All hazard multi-agency operations and response acronym is ?

A

ARMOR

285
Q

What (besides explosives) can EDD’s locate?

A

Firearms and ammo

286
Q

445: What is contained in a 5-line report? CPT-LD

A

Contact info of unit on scene Protective measures taken Threatened infrastructure Location of the device Description of the device

287
Q

Drug free workplace: What is an illicit drug?

A

Schedule 1

288
Q

PEAP: a supervisor should make time each ___________ to meet with employees.

A

Month

289
Q

PEAP: When should a supervisor make an IMMEDIATE notification to PEAP:

A
  1. Victim of a person crime 2. Arrested for a crime 3. Stressful incident during work shift
290
Q

ARMOR: When WILL ARMOR be called:

A

When the on scene supervisor or IC determines a suspicious object is explosive device

291
Q

Drug free workplace: How many years until an Employee Crisis Intervention Form and professional assessment is purged?

A

5 years

292
Q

Who investigates death caused by an explosive device?

A

Homicide -ARMOR is still responsible for the blast scene/investigation

293
Q

Police employee assistance program acronym.

A

PEAP

294
Q

If you need immediate PEAP assistance call PEAP directly during regular hours. After hours which section supervisor can help you contact PEAP for immediate assistance?

A

Communications supervisor

295
Q

Dispatch will automatically notify PEAP for?

A
  1. OIS or 2. When employee is transported to hospital for on duty injury
296
Q

Retail apprehension prevention partnership detail/task force acronym?

A

RAPP

297
Q

FIT stands for: CIRT stands for:

A
  1. Force investigation team 2. Critical incident review team
298
Q

What are the CIT SCOPE entry codes and what do they stand for?

A

CIT1- Previous Legal 2000 CIT2-Previous Violence Towards Officers/Others CIT3-Weapon taken from or taken off subject CIT4-Self or Doctor diagnosed mental disorder

299
Q

Driving: the use of seatbelt extenders is Prohibited T/F?:

A

True

300
Q

ALL HAZARD: _____ was developed so responders from different jurisdictions and disciplines can work together better to respond to natural disasters and man made emergencies.

A

NIMS-National Incident Management System

301
Q

ALL HAZARD: ICS is the standard tool used for command, control, response coordination, and overall management of complex incidents, preplanned events and/or _____. This system permits a clear point of command and can be expanded or contracted with ease to escalating or diminishing situations.

A

emergencies

302
Q

ALL HAZARD: ____________:This type of command is a team effort that allows all agencies with jurisdictional responsibility for an incident, either geographical or functional, to participate in the management of an incident. All agencies with jurisdictional authority or functional responsibility for any or all aspects of an incident, as well as those who provide specific resource support, participate in the Unified Command.

A

UNIFIED COMMAND

303
Q

ALL HAZARD: Specific tactical procedures are detailed throughout the department manual for designated incidents (such as bomb threats, hostage situations, aircraft accidents, etc.) they must be handled separately from the procedures set out in the all hazards policy T/F?

A

False procedures for bombs etc, must be used in “conjunction” with the all hazards procedures.

304
Q

ALL HAZARD: Which section is the principal advisor to the department on unusual occurrences, planning for response to “all hazard” situations, and coordinating emergency plans internally and externally

A

Emergency Mamagement

305
Q

ALL HAZARD: T/F: Command will be established by the highest ranking officer available in the fusion center who has access to video etc?

A

False -Command will be established by the most QUALIFIED officer, REGARDLESS OF RANK, who is physically ON SCENE

306
Q

ALL HAZARD: Wherever possible, WC’s should assume the IC role TF?

A

FALSE “shift watch commanders SHOULD NOT assume the position unless absolutely necessary to allow for continued oversight of the remainder of the jurisdiction”.

307
Q

ALL HAZARD: T/F: Whenever command is transferred it will be done so via CAD or AM so dispatch has an electronic record.

A

FALSE WILL be done with the radio and over the air.

308
Q

ALL HAZARD: Identify 5 of the major steps identified as guidelines when managing all hazard incidents: FYI, there are 15 listed in policy

A

•Ensure Officer and Public Safety•Conduct a Situation Assessment and update Dispatch•Establish on-scene command by implementing the Incident Command System (ICS), establishing an Incident Command Post and naming it•Establish Communication Channels (see 5/106.13, Joint Use of Interoperable Radio Frequencies)•Establish Staging Area(s) (Police, Fire, Medical, and Media)•Establish a Perimeter Control Plan (Inner/Outer)• Consider the Need for Additional Resources•Determine and Maintain Ingress/Egress Routes for First Responders•Coordinate/Assist in an Evacuation/Shelter in Place• Determine Evacuation Transportation and Destination•Request the Public Information Officer (PIO)•Preserve the Scene for Evidentiary Purposes•Maintain an Operations Log•Develop Incident Action Plan (formal or informal)•Notification of additional public safety departments and other resources.

309
Q

ALL HAZARD T/F: When taking command of an incident, “IC” is added to the end of the IC’s call sign. For example, 673Z becomes 673ZIC

A

FALSE You do add IC, but drop special unit designators such as “Z”, “N” etc. In this case the correct call sign would be 673IC

310
Q

ALL HAZARD T/F: The CP will be given a unique name and broadcast to control

A

TRUE

311
Q

ALL HAZARD: *What are the top three priorities in all incidents:

A
  1. Life safety. 2. Incident stabilization. 3. Property preservation.
312
Q

ALL HAZARD Units from neighboring area commands will NOT self dispatch UNLESS…..

A

the incident occurs within close proximity to the border between the area commands and the officer is also already within close proximity to the incident.

313
Q

ALL HAZARD: If the incident is a large-scale, multi-jurisdictional event with various area commands or bureaus needed to ensure life safety, stabilize the incident, and preserve property then every department member (commissioned and civilian) involved in any capacity of the incident will complete an officer’s report UNLESS

A

“If an officer uses deadly force they will not complete an officer’s report”

314
Q

ALL HAZARD If a dedicated channel is going to be used during an all hazard incident it will be the _____TAC channel.

A

8-Call/8-Tac channel

315
Q

ALL HAZARD T/F: When a sergeant arrives on an incident which a PO has already taken charge of, the sergeant will always take command.

A

-On less complex incidents the sergeant may choose to leave the patrol officer in command and mentor the officer through the process for educational purposes. -The sergeant will ensure that the decisions made by the officer in the position of incident commander are sound and within the guidelines of department policy before allowing them to be implemented.

316
Q

ALL HAZARD Any Sgt. who assumes the role of IC during an all hazard incident will complete an AAR within how many days? and forward it to Emergency Management Section.

A

10 days Note: Only one AAR is necessary for each event.

317
Q

ALL HAZARD Supervisors and Officers Arriving will report to who for deployment orders?

A

The staging area manager

318
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE A blood or breath alcohol content above ________ at the time of testing, may be grounds for discipline or termination.

A

0.02

319
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE The following is the definition of _____:“The condition resulting from ingesting a substance to the degree than renders a member incapable of effectively performing his job duties”

A

Impairment

320
Q

If a RS test comes back with a detected level of an illicit controlled substance, but the level is BELOW the threshold limits identified by the department, how is the test reported?

A

“None detected”

321
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Any of the following acts and/or information will give the department _____ suspicion. 1.observable phenomena 2.a pattern of abnormal conduct or erratic behavior 3.arrest or conviction for a drug or alcohol related offense, or info that the member is the focus of a criminal investigation into drug use/trafficking. 4. Any other information provided by reliable and credible sources, including a positive department administered drug test or information of tampering with a drug test

A

Reasonable suspicion

322
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE A member who is struggling to stay awake while on duty must_______

A

Advise his direct supervisor who will determine the proper course of action

323
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Is the odor of an alcoholic Beveridge on a member or identifiable impairment enough to conduct a FST and/or blood/breath test?

A

Yes

324
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE You are on duty in plain clothes, can you buy a beer before the end of your shift so you can drink it at home when you get off work?

A

No

325
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE You are OFF DUTY but in uniform. Can you buy a beer to take home and drink?

A

No

326
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE May members associate with persons who are legally using marijuana under state law?

A

YES, But do so at their own risk and if they test positive then they are subject to termination.

327
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Members who unintentionally ingest or who are made to ingest an illicit/controlled substance will immediately report the incident to______

A

Their supervisor

328
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE OTC medications… 1. Can you take more than the recommended dose of an OTC medication? 2. Can you be sustained for showing up to work drowsy on OTC medications alone?

A
  1. NO 2. YES
329
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Do members have to notify health detail of ALL medications which they are prescribed?

A

NO only the ones which have the potential to cause impairment while on duty.

330
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE If a prescription is reported to health detail with a term on its use (such as take 2 pills a day every day for 30 days) and no other information is provided. Will the member have an approval to take the medication after the 30 days?

A

NO

331
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Notification/renewal of medication use must be renewed _______ with the health detail

A

Annually

332
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Does the department recognize medical marijuana cards, prescribed by a physician?

A

NO

333
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE May members use any medication at all, prescribed by a doctor where THC is a component?

A

NO

334
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE A member is being brought in for a RS drug/alcohol test. Are they entitled to have a union rep present for the test?

A

YES

335
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Members suspected of being under the influence will be taken to IAB, and supervisor will ________ him or her.

A

Unarm

336
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Does the RS testing process apply to criminal investigations?

A

NO

337
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE For an RS test, who completes the “summary of facts” section of the RS document?

A

The reporting supervisor

338
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE The RS for a RS test will be documented on a….

A

SOC

339
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Which of the following are NOT grounds for a RS test: 1. Information from a reliable source regarding use etc 2. The use of force, or serious on duty injury to the member or another person 3. Vehicle accidents 4. Reduced productivity, high absenteeism 5. Visual observation of physical manifestations

A

ALL of the above are valid per policy

340
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Commissioned supervisors will have how many witnesses to a SFST.

A

TWO

341
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Are the employees name recorded on a RS sample?

A

NO NAMES ON SAMPLES

342
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE If the member is suspected of using illicit drugs, the bureau commander will place the employee on___________________ status pending the results of the drug test.

A

ROD and they stay on ROD status if the test comes back positive.

343
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE If an RS test comes back as positive for a non-illicit drug… their bureau commander may return the member to ____________ duty, after consultation with the risk manager.

A

modified duty

344
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE If a RS test comes back positive, how long does a member have to request an independent analysis of the “E” sample?

A

72 hours from being initially notified -Note- they have to inform the department MRO.

345
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE RS testing: Say a member is assigned to patrol, but is TDY to narcs. IF Narcs gets called for RS testing, does the member get RS’ tested because of the TDY or is he exempt because he is on TDY?

A

“members who are assigned TDY will be tested with their TDY squad”

346
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE When does the member have a choice on WHICH sample they provide (blood/urine/hair)

A

-For RS tests, the department decides -For random tests, the member decides.

347
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Members Are permitted to get independent samples collected after the conclusion of a department random test, if the member wants to get an independent test what do they need to do:

A
  1. Get supervisory approval (which is based on department manpower needs) 2. Submit a leave request 3. Pay for the test at their own expense.
348
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Per the PMSA contract, supervisors are subject to alcohol and drug testing immediately following what types of incidents (2 kinds)

A
  1. Use of deadly force (excluding an animal shoot) but including an AD which occurs DURING A POLICE OPERATION in which the supervisor is the shooter.
  2. A department 401 where the supervisor is considered at fault and death or SBH occurs. Includes PBT testing!
349
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE For supervisor testing only: Can they choose to provide hair for a test after the use of DF or a 401?

A

NO HAIR but they can choose between blood or urine.

350
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE According to policy, whom may a member self report as an abuser of alcohol or prescription drugs to?

A

Their chain of command or an association rep

351
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE If a member self reports being an alcohol or prescription drugs abuser, what are they subjected to?

A
  1. A last chance agreement and 2. unannounced testing for a 2 year period 3. The last chance agreement will stay on file for the rest of he members employment under the same purging conditions as a major discipline. 4. after the purge it will be taken out of the personnel file and placed in a separate file.
352
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE True or false: It is the policy of the department to identify and support the member who’s behavior on duty only provides evidence that he may be a threat to himself or others to ensure safety in the workplace.

A

FALSE Applies to both on and off duty behavior

353
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE If a member is determined to be a potential risk of harming themselves or others, what duty status shall they be placed on?

A

Admin leave.

354
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Member in crisis: On the ROD/temporary form, should the words “member crisis intervention” be placed on the form?

A

NO (In order to ensure confidentiality)

355
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Member in crisis: What information is provided to PEAP and the applicable association?

A

Nothing more than, “an incident as defined by this procedure (employee in crisis) has occurred”

356
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Employee in crisis: What paperwork is completed by the immediate supervisor under the employee in crisis policy?

A

“Employee crisis intervention form” And a memo (if appropriate) with supporting information forwarded through the chain to the bureau commander

357
Q

Random drug samples: Department members will have the option of providing what to satisfy this test, Blood, breath, urine or hair?

A

Urine OR hair

358
Q

SUPERVISOR TESTING after DF etc-supervisor has to supply what to satisfy this policy?-blood: hair/urine/breath? WHO GETS TO CHOOSE? (Department or the supervisor)?

A

HAS to provide a PBT -also HAS to submit to a drug test but the supervisor gets to choose between blood or urine

359
Q

DV AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES If an employee is subject to an extended order for protection and is required to carry a 413… who is responsible for storing it while the member is off duty?

A

Bureau commander or designee

360
Q

DV AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES If an employee is subject to an extended protection order, can they carry a personally owned firearm on duty?

A

YES As long as it is “department authorized” and only while in performance of duties

361
Q

DV AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES Under this section, the employees immediate supervisor will address the employees behavior through Discipline or ?

A

Counseling, training or care programs

362
Q

DV AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES True or false: It is the policy of the department to deal with DUI/DV offenders through administrative sanctions and court specified remedies.

A

TRUE

363
Q

DV AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES If a member is served with a TPO, who keeps his firearm?

A

The employee does. It’s only Extended protection orders which require turning in guns

364
Q

DV AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES If discipline is reduced due to completion of court-referred treatment, does the original designation remain?

A

YES But it is amended to “40 hours suspension, reduced to a 20 hour suspension with option, plus 20 hours in abeyance due to the completion of a court referral program” Immediate supervisor also has the responsibility to coordinate any voluntary follow up care for the employee through PEAP

365
Q

CRIMINAL VIOLATIONS BY LE EMPLOYEES If a citizen wishes to report a criminal violation by a department member, whom shall they be directed to?

A
  1. The employees area Lt. 2. A watch commander, 3. bureau/area commander or 4. the criminal investigations section
366
Q

CRIMINAL VIOLATIONS BY LE EMPLOYEES___________ will be notified, through the chain of command ASAP of any member of this or any other department that is charged or accused of a criminal violation

A

The sheriff

367
Q

CRIMINAL VIOLATIONS BY LE EMPLOYEES Upon being notified of a LE employee being charged with a crime, who does a supervisor notify?

A

WC

368
Q

CRIMINAL VIOLATIONS BY LE EMPLOYEES If a LE employee is detained, charged etc who does the immediate supervisor notify?

A

WC OR the CIS supervisor

369
Q

CRIMINAL VIOLATIONS BY LE EMPLOYEES If LE criminal activity is discovered during a long term covert investigation, who is notified?

A

CIS supervisor. If this happens, the CIS BC will be responsible for chain notifications to the sheriff.

370
Q

CRIMINAL VIOLATIONS BY LE EMPLOYEES If a LE employee is suspected of DUI, who is notified on top of CIS?

A

Traffic supervisor

371
Q

CRIMINAL VIOLATIONS BY LE EMPLOYEES If CIS responds to a call, who is responsible for ALL tests, interviews etc?

A

CIS supervisor

372
Q

CRIMINAL VIOLATIONS BY LE EMPLOYEES If CIS declines responding, but a crime is still suspected. Who is responsible for the field work?

A

The appropriate investigative/patrol unit

373
Q

Criminal Violations by LE: Who notifies IAB Lt. for an LVMPD employee detained, charged, associating, or accused of a crime?

A

The WC

374
Q

Criminal Violations by LE: As a Sgt. You will notify the WC or CIS supervisor when any LE employee is the victim of a felony crime or other crime of violence T/F?

A

True

375
Q

Criminal Violations by LE: You are a Sgt of CC12, officer Jones calls you on your dept cell and says he just went 467 on Chris Knight and he’s clearly “409”. You will immediately notify:

A

The WC: In progress or has just occurred. The WC will notify CIS and the traffic supervisor.

376
Q

Criminal Violations by LE: The ______________ will be notified through the chain of command as soon as practical, of any member of LVMPD or another LE agency if employee is charged with or accused of a crime ( except minor traffic)

A

Sheriff

377
Q

Criminal Violations by LE: Any citizen desiring to report a criminal violation involving a department member, will be referred to the employees:

A
  1. Area LT 2. WC 3 Bureau Commander 4. CIS
378
Q

Criminal Violations by LE: Does the provisions of NRS 289 apply to any investigation concerning alleged criminal activities.

A

No they do not apply

379
Q

Criminal Violations by LE: It is LVMPD policy to deal with such employees through a wide range of DISCIPLINE and when appropriate with additional ________ and assistance programs.

A

Training

380
Q

Criminal Violations by LE: Who is notified if an employee’s criminal act results in loss of property, equipment, or money belonging to the department or other citizen/entity?

A

Risk management section

381
Q

Criminal Violations by LE: Who notifies the chain up to the sheriff of a covert investigation?

A

The IAB commander.

382
Q

Criminal violations by LE: An officer should notify their immediate supervisor when they are charged or accused of a crime. Regardless of jurisdiction, (except minor traffic) T/F

A

True

383
Q

EIIP Do CRB requests affect an employees dashboard?

A

NO!

384
Q

EIIP What do the following colors on an employees dashboard mean? GREEN, YELLOW, RED

A

Green - no identified issues Yellow - one incident away from reaching an identified threshold Red - a threshold has been reached or surpassed

385
Q

EIIP How often are EIIP thresholds adjusted?

A

Annually - by the EIIP sergeant. Changes must be approved by the IAB bureau commander

386
Q

EIIP What are the time frames used when calculating alert thresholds?

A

A rolling year. With the exception of firearm discharges which are a rolling 60 months.

387
Q

Do supervisory thresholds appear on the dashboard?

A

No

388
Q

How often are supervisors required to review their employees dashboard?

A

Monthly. And respond to alerts within 14 calendar days of the email alert notification.

389
Q

EIIP What are a supervisors duties relating to EIIP?

A
  1. Review dashboard on a monthly basis. 2. Receive EIIP alert through blue team via email 3. Request EPR summary from EIIP for review 4. consult with second line supervisor 5. Meet face with employee to discuss alert 6. If no pattern, complete alert in BT and forward to second supv within 14 calendar days 7. If pattern identified, consult with second line supv. 8. If pattern identified, document in BT what remedial action was taken and forward to second supv within 14 days. 9. Continue to assess employees performance
390
Q

MOVE What are the adjudication timelines for a PPA/PPACE member after a sustained disposition report is put out?Recommendation of discipline__________AOC from chain of command (waived discipline board)________AOC from the discipline board_________

A
  1. 15 days from dispo report
  2. 10 days from BOTH OLR and chains recommendation + waiver of dislipline board by subject (which ever is later)
  3. 21 days
391
Q

MOVEMaximum amount of vacation hours an employee can use an option instead of suspension IF APPROVED:

A

40 hours

392
Q

MOVEWho completes the adjudication of complaint process?

A

The employees bureau/ area commander AT THE TIME OF THE INCIDENT

393
Q

MOVEWho makes the decision to apply supervisor intervention?

A

Employees Bureau/Area commander AND OLR

394
Q

MOVELVMPD affords the rights of peace officers to ALL department employees EXCEPT:(3)

A

RecruitsPart time employeesCivilian academy employees

395
Q

MOVEDefinition of a minor allegation:Definition of a major allegation:

A

MINOR: written reprimand, disciplinary transfer or any suspension less than 40 hoursMAJOR: 40 hour suspension, demotion or termination

396
Q

MOVEWhat is the burden of proof to sustain in both IAB and EDS investigations?

A

IAB - clear and convincingEDS - preponderance of evidence

397
Q

MOVEAccording to the MOVE policy, complaints of harassment or discrimination may be reported to:

A

Any supervisorThe EDS directorThe IAB commander

398
Q

MOVEComplaints of harassment or discrimination WILL be documented on a….

A

SOC

399
Q

MOVEHow long does IAB have to classify a preliminary complaint as a CC or SOC?

A

14 days

400
Q

MOVENormally, the employees bureau commander will be notified by IAB of investigations.If the case involves OPSEC, the decision to notify the BC will be made at the __________ level

A

Division Commander

401
Q

MOVEIS the conflict resolution process disciplinary?

A

NOUnless misconduct takes place during the actual process

402
Q

MOVEis the mediation process appealable under any grievance process?

A

NO

403
Q

MOVEMay conflict resolution be used more than once with the same parties?

A

NOUNLESS everyone involved agrees

404
Q

MOVECan an officer be armed with a duty weapon during a conflict resolution meeting which takes places at LVMPD HQ?

A

YES!the only place an officer has disarm is if the meeting takes place at Clark County Neighborhood Justice Center (CCNJC)

405
Q

MOVEUnder conflict resolution, IF deemed necessary how long is a performance enhancement plan?

A

21 days

406
Q

MOVEIf a subject employee waived their right to 48 hours notice of interview… what do they need to do?

A

Have an attorney or association rep “available” to attend and state their waiver of 48 hours on tape or in writing

407
Q

MOVECan a witness employee waive their right to 48 hours notice?

A

YESthey must state the waiver on tape or in writing.They do NOT need to bring a rep/attorney

408
Q

MOVE- Conflict resolution may be used between employees and citizens if an issue is NOT yet a: (2)

A
  1. Formal complaint2. Major allegation
409
Q

MOVE: If a supervisor has a question or procedural issue, who are they encouraged to contact?

A

The on call internal affairs bureau team leader.

410
Q

MOVE: After business hours, you are completing an SOC and are unsure if it meets the immediate response criteria of IAB, who do you contact?

A

An on duty LT

411
Q

MOVE: if an employee waived the formal investigation for an expedited investigation, this also waives:

A

The grievance process

412
Q

MOVE:What are the two options for addressing sustained complaints?

A
  1. Supervisory intervention
  2. Formal discipline
413
Q

MOVET/F: hours held in abeyance for sustained misconduct is only available for DUI, DV, 446 abuse and anger management?

A

FALSE“It May also be offered for performance issues in which refresher training is determined to be productive. P.S. the decision to offer abeyance tests with the bureau commander

414
Q

Sick leave: how many hours are given per pay period? What’s the hourly breakdown?

A

4.05

415
Q

Sick leave: this may be used for? (5)

A

Illness/injuryPublic health requirementsDr. AppointmentBereavementMedical emergency

416
Q

Sick leave: What is the maximum hours for one doctors appointment?

A

4

417
Q

Sick leave: if you do not become ill at work, when should you REPORT you are taking sick leave?

A

Prior to shift.

418
Q

Sick leave: who is “immediate family”. (Who you can get bereavement or medical emergency for)

A

Spouse, parent, sibling, child, grandparent, grandchild. (This includes in laws, adoptive, or step). Also, any of these relations relating to your spouse/significant other/domestic partner.Also: legal guardian/ dependent situations

419
Q

Sick leave: who is a “significant other” 2 prong.

A
  1. Reside with and2. Consider a mate.Only for the purpose of sick leave per the contract.
420
Q

Sick leave: bereavement (death of immediate family) how much sick can you use?

A

48 hours, the sheriff/designer can grant more, not to exceed 240!

421
Q

Sick leave: sick leave is taken for medical emergency however you may use what per fiscal year?

A

48 hours of vacation, one time provision.

422
Q

Sick leave: you call in sick Monday, you come back Tuesday. How long do you have to submit your leave once you’re back?

A

24 hours

423
Q

Sick leave: when is a certificate of recovery and fitness needed?

A

When requested by the sheriff or designee.

424
Q

Sick leave: As a general rule, any person who uses BLANK or more sick days per year is excessive.

A

8

425
Q

Sick leave: when using sick leave employees shall be where (3) or shall notify their supervisor of their whereabouts.

A

Home, medical facility, or doctors office.

426
Q

Sick leave: when can employees be at business, recreation, traveling etc. on sick leave?

A

When approved in advance by the sheriff or designee.

427
Q

Military leave: how many shifts of paid leave are granted in a calendar year?

A

30

428
Q

Military leave: when does an employee provide their supervisor documentation of their reserve status and assignment?

A

At the beginning of each calendar year or after change in assignment.

429
Q

Military Leave: when are ORDERS or a TRAINING SCHEDULE provided to the supervisor.

A

The first scheduled work day they become available to the employee

430
Q

Military Leave: when possible, how far in advance is military leave out in ESS?

A

2 weeks

431
Q

Military leave: military documents will be provided to the bureau of assignment and forward to Payroll by when?

A

Latest, 30 days after deployment!

432
Q

Military leave: an employee has approved scheduled vacation, another employee has been granted military leave at the same time. Do you cancel or approve? (The vacation…military isn’t touched)

A

If the vacation is 2 weeks or more in advance and is approved already, it’s set in stone! Both are approved.

433
Q

Leave without pay: what can be banked during leave without pay?

A

Maximum: 40 hours of sick.

434
Q

Longevity, pay scale, seniority etc is paused after how many hours of leave without pay? What is the only exception?

A

160 hours unless connected to a job illness/injury.Military leave.

435
Q

When will payroll notify an employee in writing of their leave without pay status?

A

After 14 continuous days.

436
Q

Except FMLA and ADA, 160 hours of leave without is approved by BLANK. After 90 CALENDAR days, approval is needed by BLANK AND BLANK.

A

Bureau commanderDC and Sheriff or designee

437
Q

Health related leave without pay documents are provided prior to BLANK. And approved by BLANK

A

160 hours. The bureau commander in consultation with Health Detail.

438
Q

Non health related leave without pay in excess of 160 hours is approved by?

A

Sheriff/designee

439
Q

FMLA: employees can take up to BLANK months FMLA within BLANK months of their child birth/placement.

A

612

440
Q

FMLA: at what point during pregnancy should employees make an appointment with the Health Section to develop a plan for leave usage?

A

By the 6th month.

441
Q

How much FMLA time are each a husband and wife entitled to per the contract?

A

6 months

442
Q

Employees will be given reasonable time off to promote/test. What will NOT be approved during a promotional exam?

A

Overtime.$

443
Q

When requesting catastrophic leave donations, what is provided(3)?

A
  1. Physicians statement of: injury/illness2. Estimated time of being unable to work.3. Bureau Commanders approval of leave.
444
Q

How long will the union solicite for catastrophic leave donations?

A

30 days

445
Q

What can be donated to catastrophic leave?

A

Bonus, vacation, and/or professional.Must have 40 hours vacation left over. Cannot donate less than 4 hours

446
Q

What is the maximum amount of bank hours an employee can use in their entire career?

A

160

447
Q

To be eligible for catastrophic leave, employees will need BLANK hours of leave at a minimal after all leaves have been exhausted.

A

80

448
Q

For catastrophic leave, employees must be hospitalized, home bound, primary caregiver for someone (can’t perform duties). When are they NOT eligible?

A
  1. Workman’s comp claims2. Illegal act or self inflicted injury3. Not covered by the collective bargaining agreement (recruit)
449
Q

If bank time is used, it’s paid back at what rate?

A

2 hours per pay period.Or all at once if you retire/leave

450
Q

Seniority: vacation slips (including bonus, professional and comp) may be submitted how far in advance?Once approved, can a senior officer supersede this leave?

A

6 months.No

451
Q

How is PO seniority ranked for same classification on same day? (5)

A
  1. Corrections to P.O.2. Military deferrals 3. Cadet to P.O.4. Recycled recruit 5. Ranking on eligibility list
452
Q

The patrol division bump shall not occur prior to:

A

Supervisors have completed and published their bump.

453
Q

At anytime between bids, there is documented operational need to change your shift time, does the department have the right to do this?

A

Yes.

454
Q

For BEREAVEMENT employees may: 1.For MEDICAL EMERGENCY employees may:2.

A
  1. Utilize other paid leave.2. Should use sick, except of a one time 48 hour vacation provision per fiscal year
455
Q

Supervisors may discipline employees for excessive use of sick leave. Discipline ____________ be applied for extended illness/injury. If a supervisor has concerns about sick leave use, the shall consult with:

A

Will not!Labor relations

456
Q

An employee cannot complete leave without pay documents due to an extreme circumstance. Prior to 160 hours, as his supervisor you will:

A

Ensure the chain of command and health detail are notified

457
Q

Any disputes regarding the application of seniority may only be processed as a grievance to the appropriate:

A

Deputy chief and are not subject to appeal!

458
Q

Miranda: For someone who invoked their right for silence, after a time lapse and remirandized, may they be requestioned?

A

Yes

459
Q

Miranda: If some invokes their right to counsel, and after time lapse and remirandized, may they be questioned?

A

NoUnless THEY reinitiate the questioning

460
Q

Miranda: Juveniles SHOULD be advised of (2).

A

They can be tried in adult court, they may have a parent or guardian present.

461
Q

Once a juvenile is certified, which Miranda is appropriate? Adult or juvenile?

A

Adult

462
Q

If an in-mirandized statement is contrary to the Miranda statement, what may the court do?

A

Allow the statement to prevent perjury.

463
Q

If a voluntary statement is made and then Miranda occurs, the mirandized statement is generally BLANK. If statement is involuntary prior, morandized statement is generally BLANK.

A
  1. Admissible2. Inadmissible

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