2nd Deck Flashcards

1
Q

Generally, if you violate Miranda, is physical evidence (dead bodies, SFSTS, dope) suppressed?

A

No, this doesn’t generally create a fruit of poisonous tree effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Generally, if a defendant and his attorney request an interview do you need to mirandize them?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Miranda deals with which amendments?

A

5th - self incrimination
6th - counsel
14th - due process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Miranda: for Miranda, the presence of an attorney means:

A

Before and during questioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Miranda: to ascertain the nature of an emergency is known as the:

A

Public safety exception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who has the burden of proof to show a Miranda waiver was intelligently and knowingly made?
What’s the test?
What’s the burden?

A

The prosecution
Totality of circumstances
Preponderance of evidence
AN AFFIRMATIVE RESPONSE USUALLY SATISFIES THIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who has the burden of proof in proving a statement was voluntarily made in Miranda??

A

With a proper Miranda waiver, it is presumed to be voluntary. The burden of proof is on the DEFENDANT to challenge voluntariness. If proven, the burden shifts back to the state.Totality of circumstance test is used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is fresh pursuit:

A

PC A person is wanted for a serious felony Inside a home/private place, Is about to flee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the three parts to plain view:

A
  1. Officer is in a position they have a legal right to be.
  2. Immediately apparent items are probably contraband/evidence
  3. Seizure can be made without substantial additional intrusion “lawful right of access”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

S+S• Exclusionary Rule and the Objective Test Under this rule, the legality of a search is based on objective reasonableness.Therefore the officers underlying intent is _________

A

Not Relevant

Focus on his actions, not what he was thinking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

You may search empty or abandoned vehicles if you have “_____________” to believe a weapon may be in the vehicle.

A

Reasonable suspicion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

LVMPD limits the community care taking doctrine to (2)

A
  1. Welfare checks and

2. vehicle stops.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

At a corrections facility, a strip search for weapons or contraband is based of what?
And who is contacted?

A

Reasonable suspicion

A corrections supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Absent exigent circumstances or consent, officers are required to obtain a SW to enter a structure owned by a 3rd party to serve an AW or to make a PC arrest. SW must state why they think the bad guy is there and why it’s reasonable to enter instead of waiting _____rule

A

STEAGALD RULE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Field strip searches shall be conducted rarely for life safety with the explicit approval of a ________and only in the presence of a _______.

A

Lieutenant

Supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When may officers seize a person? (4)

A

Arrest
Vehicle stop (driver and passenger)
Investigative detention
L2K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In a structure, to do a limited sweep FOR WEAPONS in a subjects immediate access, an officer just needs:

A

To be legally present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When may Officers seize a vehicle? (3)

A

Vehicle stop
Impound
Search warrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Per policy search and seizure. What is a motor vehicle:

A

Vehicle operating or capable of behind operated.
Self-propelled or
towed
This includes trailers and motor homes etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

All strip searches will be conducted by officers of the same _______:

A

Gender.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

During a terry stop, Officers are allowed to ascertain what two things? (2)

A

Identity and

purpose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Per the handbook, may police do vehicles searches on a roadblock?

A

Yes, with PC!!

Dog sniffs are ok too

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Hot pursuit definition:

A

A dangerous or felony suspect is fleeing from police.

An officer has DIRECT KNOWLEDGE of the suspects location, justifying a warrantless entry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the only consensual body cavity search?

A

A buccal swab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Consent to search:
electronically recording consent on a BWC includes : DATE, TIME, and EVT#…what other three things are need to be recorded:

A
  1. name of the person consenting
  2. Type of investigation
  3. Description of the location searched.This is for structures and vehicles.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What court case set the standard of the 4th amendment being reasonable and legitimate and pointed out, it protects people not places?

A

Katz v US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the non-criminal investigation exceptions where the 4th amendment does not apply?

A
No standing
Open view
Abandonment
Detention facilities
Airport searches
Private citizens (not agents)
Trash outside the curtilage. 
Book adds DOG SNIFFS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

For a consensual search (this is listed under vehicles) if no report is generated, how is consent documented?

A

CAD prior to clearing the call.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

S+S

Are federal LEO’s operating in NV bound by state restrictions such as the 60 min rule for terry stops?

A

No
So even if you break the 60 min rule and find dope etc… if the case goes federal you will be judged by federal law, not state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

FA impounds will be for what two reasons?

Where is this articulated?

A
  1. Life safety or
  2. to determine ownership.
    This is documented and articulated in the property report narrative.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

T/F Officers will not search a vehicle incident to arrest?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Consent to search:

what is done with the ORIGINAL consent to search card:

A

scanned into OnBase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Apparent authority for consent means (3):

A

Did police believe an untrue fact.
Was it objectively reasonable to believe the fact.
Had the fact been true it would grant actual authority.
It’s your burden to prove this!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Search incident to arrest only applies to persons who will be taken to a:

A

Detention or law enforcement facility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

There are two types of traffic offenses:

A

Primary and secondary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In order to gain consent per the SS manual, police may not threaten to obtain a warrant:

A

When the threat is baseless.
Meaning: if you CAN get a warrant you can mention it, but if you have no PC for a warrant and threaten it, it will be tossed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

S+S

Police intrusion on a legitimate expectation of privacy, or physical intrusion is the definition of?

A

Search

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Who has the burden of proof in proving consent to search:

A

The state!

By clear and persuasive evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

_______ to believe that a primary Offence has been committed is required to conduct a “traffic stop”.

A

Probable cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Strip searches at a detention facility are based off RS. The results are documented on ?

A

Arrest report or impaired driving report

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

During a terry stop, the 60 minute rule doesn’t apply when:

A

An officer develops probable cause for an arrest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

In order for a search to be considered a strip search, there must be:

A

A removal of clothing to permit a visual inspection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Absent exigency circumstances or consent, officers are required to have either an AW or SW to enter a structure to make a PC arrest ________rule:

A

PAYTON RULE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

According to the manual, in terms of a seizure of a person, the court will examine:

A

If a REASONABLE PERSON felt free to leave from the subjects perspective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Per the SS manual, who has the burden of proof in proving a mistake by the police was reasonable?

A

The state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Per policy, on a vehicle frisks, what containers/compartments shall not be frisked?

A

Any LOCKED containers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

S+S
Police interference with a person’s freedom of movement or interference with a person’s right to possess or control an item is the definition of?

A

Seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the four prongs to a consensual person stop…per policy

A
  1. No justification
  2. Must feel free to leave at any time
  3. A persons movement can not be impeded in any way by the Officers actions.
  4. Consent may be revoked at anytime.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How long may it take to return a firearm for safekeeping?

A

An excess of 30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the two circumstances to make an exigency entry into a structure along with PC?

A

Probable cause to believe:

  1. Prevent destruction of evidence of a serious felony offense.
  2. Make a warrant less arrest if a violent/dangerous suspect who officers believe committed a serious felony/violent offence and may escape if not immediately apprehended.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

CI strip searches are completed in the presence of ______ Officers. Both BEFORE and AFTER the operation

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

In order to do a SITA, what justification is required?

A

Policy justified!

No additional PC or RS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

When may Officers seize property?(5 )PASS-P

A
Plain view
Abandonment
Search warrant
Safekeeping
Premise freeze (electronic devices)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Placing holds on vehicles must be approved by who and how?

A

Investigative units
Via: Radio, telephone or in person
Record their P# on the impound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

S+S

T/F: Mistakes by Police in Search and Seizure will always result in evidence being suppressed at court.

A

Not an automatic disqualifier.

The State carries the burden in proving the mistake was reasonable and not negligent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

(This is list under structures and vehicles and under consent) for safety concerns per policy, BLANK officers must be present when a search is conducted.

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

For the community care taking doctrine, entry into a structure must be timely and _________.

A

Related to life safety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Per policy, a probable cause search is based on:

A

A “fair probability”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

In a structure, an officer legally present needs what to sweep for persons?

A

R/S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

During a traffic stop, if a driver refuses to produce documents:
what is the level of resistance?
Who WILL respond to determine how to proceed?

A

Passive,

a supervisor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Prior to obtaining a SW for a blood sample, an officer MUST first request:

A

Consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

For community care taking doctrine, entry into a structure will be documented how?
How will property damage be documented?

A

CAD

Damage - On Officers Report and photos.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

S+S•

STANDING – This means the accused has authority, dominion, _____ and access to the place or item searched.

A

Control
Note: It is on the ACCUSED to demonstrate this at the burden of preponderance of evidence (51/49) in a suppression claim.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The fourth amendment protects an expectation of privacy that must be both ________ and ________.(2)

A

Reasonable and legitimate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

S+S•

GOOD FAITH – This is an OBJECTIVE test and not subjective. This mainly deals with ___________

A

officers relying on bad info such as laws that were binding at the time but later ruled unconstitutional.
Two specific limits are
1) if the legislature wholly abandoned its responsibility to enact constitutional laws or
2) reasonably well trained officers should have known the law was unconstitutional.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

When may Officers seize a structure/residence?(2)

A

Premise freeze

Search warrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the three documentation forms of consent per policy (referring to vehicles and structures)

A
  1. Electronically recorded
  2. Written
  3. Verbal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

For the PAYTON RULE, you MUST have probable cause that the suspect: (2)

A

Resides at the location and is currently present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

When considering “seizures” reasonable suspicion is judged/determined by:

A

Totality of circumstances, objectively By a preponderance of evidence -pg60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

According to the USSC, emergency entries require:

A

Probable cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Per SS manual, “police only required to have ________________ of exigency to make warrantless entry to perform a WELFARE CHECK”

A

Reasonable suspicion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

In reference to DV, 9th circuit case: only a ______ exigency is need be shown entry can be accomplished without:

A

Mild exigency

Without destruction of property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Body cavity searches are only reasonable for:

A

Risk of substantial bodily harm or death if contraband is not removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Pursuit: who WILL relinquish their primary spot?

A

Motorcycles, unmarked (must still have equipment), marked SUV out of patrol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Transporting prisoners: hobbles will not secure a prisoners legs to?

A

Fixed positions inside a vehicle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Transporting prisoners:

for an escape in another jurisdiction, what does the transporting officer do?

A

Notify communications if possible and
Notify the jurisdiction it occurred in.
Do an officers report detailing the events.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

DV:

if the suspect or victim is an LVMPD member, who does the SGT notify immediately?

A

The Area LT to RESPOND.

Note: WC or CIS Supervisor is also notified of ANY LE employee to RESPOND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Transporting prisoners:

with screen, no more than two prisoners will be transported?

A

Without supervisory approval.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

DV:

what’s the process for the Sgt. if the suspect has a previous DV conviction and is in possession of a FA and/or Ammo?

A

Notify the Area LT.
Ensure a firearms notification is done and faxed to the local ATF.
Note: officer also should fax to lvmpd ccw disposition detail.
Impound accordingly “evidence- prohibited person”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Pursuit:
the finality of a vehicle pursuit due to suspect apprehension, crashing of the suspect, or suspect lost/evasion is the definition of?

A

Termination of pursuit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

CIT:

ED, what are the two supervisor responsibilities?

A

respond for advice,
ensure appropriate back up,
appropriate decisions are made.
Ensure all necessary forms are completed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

DV-

for bsbh, awdw Bwdw, or strangulation with injury, felony DV what section detectives does the sgt notify?

A

Family justice center detectives (FJC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Transporting prisoners:

unless physically impossible, before the vehicle is in motion prisoners will be ________ with the vehicle’s restrains.

A

Will be secured

(seat belt)!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

In which report is the use of stop sticks documented?

A

A pursuit report

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are two circumstances which would limit a supervisor from allowing a pursuit from another agency to occur?

A
  1. Insufficient information

2. Pursuit does not fit our policy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

CIT:

when will CIT not be dispatched?

A
  1. Vague nonviolent suicide threats
  2. Intentional/accidental overdose (unless reported 421a or escalating volatile circumstances)
  3. Subjects transported to hospital and officers are needed for reports only.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Officers will not deploy spikes:PTHWA

A
Per deployment tactic
Transporting prisoners
Harm is demonstrated unless effective cover is available.
Weapon or dangerous location
Atv, 2-3 wheeler, hazmat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Transporting prisoners: no screen, one officer?

No screen two officer?

A

Front passenger

Rear passenger, second officer sits behind driver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Transporting prisoners: When practical, prisoners will be searched by?

A

Officers of the same sex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Pursuit:

before conducting a car stop for a stolen vehicle, officers will:

A

Request the air unit and give it adequate time to arrive before activating their light and siren.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

When a pursuit is occurring, what is the supervisors 3 responsibilities.

A
  1. Say on the radio: “I am supervising this pursuit”
  2. Order discontinuation when dangers outweigh the need to apprehend.
  3. Condsider pit and stop sticks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

CIT:

supervisor will respond, assume command and control of appropriate tactics for what three types of incidents?

A
  1. Suicidal subjects under violent/volatile circumstances
  2. Persons experiencing signs of ED
  3. Any event where circumstances clearly indicate the potential to become violent.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Code 3:

who arrives via radio?

A

1st and 2nd arriving units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Pursuit: supervisors who allow the pursuits to continue must consider the following initiation and evaluation factors: (6)

A
  1. Whether the need to apprehend outweighs the dangers of the pursuit.
  2. Whether the suspect is known and/or can be apprehended at a later time.
  3. Vehicle, pedestrian, road conditions
  4. Nature of area Urbana/ rural
  5. Weather conditions
  6. Alternatives to pursuit including availability of air unit, stop sticks, pit, arrest later.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

CIT:

ED consideration…3 C’s MT

A

CIT
Containment
Custody plan
Do the plan once MEDICAL is present if possible, and TRANSFER custody as soon as practical.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

If a pursuit leaves Clark county and continues, officers and supervisors WILL NOT:

A

Request the other agency to actively join in the pursuit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

CIT:

at a mental facility, juveniles under a court order will not be arrested unless

A

Notification is made to the court issuing the order.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Who completes the pursuit report (except when death or deadly force is used).

A

Anyone who assumed the primary position at any point regardless of duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Transporting prisoners: officers transporting will not be diverted to any other activities unless (3 Prong)

A
  1. Risk to 3rd party is clear and grave.
  2. Risk to prisoner(s) is minimal.
  3. Supervisory approval.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

For a pursuit from another agency, officers will be “primary” in the secondary role unless/until (4)

A
  1. A unit from that agency takes their spot2. Pursuit doesn’t meet our policy.3. Information indicates danger outweighs the need to apprehend.4. A supervisor orders discontinuation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Code3 can be used for:

A
  1. Imminent dangers to citizens, officers might save lives.2. Officer needs assistance controlling a volatile situation3. Reliable information of a felony in progress.4 pursuits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Pursuit: vehicles in a pursuit must be equipped with siren and lights visible from:

A

Front, back, and both sides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

CIT: supervisors will:(6)CARSWA

A
  1. Ensure officers have Cit in line up next to name.2. Acknowledge notification and monitor to ensure CIT is enrt.3. Respond when….4. Ensure SWAT/CNT are notifies when necessary.5. Notify the WC when necessary6. Review and approve CIT AAR by end of shift.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

For court ordered admissions, a CIT patrol officer is dispatched under what two conditions:

A

The order is verified by the DSD Records Section and the WC approves it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

CIT: when will supervisors be requested to immediately respond to a mental health facility?

A

When facility personnel request officers to disarm in an emergency situation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

CIT: for mental patient walk aways, after apprehension and transport, what do the officers need to do?

A

An officers report concerning the circumstances, the party and the facility taking custody.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Transporting prisoners: for an escape, what does the transporting officer do?

A

Notify communications and attempt to recapture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Who responds if a citizen vehicle is damaged (stop sticks or wrecked in PIT

A

WC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

At the conclusion of a pursuit (termination), the supervisor will:

A

Respond to the termination point, assume responsibility for the scene, reports, and notifications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Transporting prisoners: No screen: one officer won’t transport more than one, nor a two officer more than two, without?

A

Supervisory approval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Who approves pursuits leaving Clark county?

A

The WC or field LT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

CIT:for walk aways, DSD will need to obtain?

A

Walk away mental patients apprehension request.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Code3: who monitors code 3 response and cancels if necessary?

A

The field supervisors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Transporting prisoners: What hobbles are not allowed?Officers will not attempt to hobble a prisoner without

A

Rope.The assistance of another officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Transporting prisoners: whenever possible, prisoners who are sick, mentally Ill, or injured will be transported:

A

In the same manner as other prisoners.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Transporting prisoners: prisoners of both sexes may be transported together as long as

A

The ability to restrict contact exists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Transporting prisoners: for combative prisoners, officers may blank them or blank

A

Gobble or transport them separately.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Code 3: who notifies communications of their code 3 status via radio?

A

The primary officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

True or false? District court order admissions L2K or mental petition creates exigent circumstances ON THEIR OWN?

A

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

When may officers drive code 2 (lights only)5

A
  1. Stop violators2. Upon arrival where siren may signal suspects3. Traffic hazard/slow speed4. Authorised motorcade sgt or above5. Not to solely cross intersections! On non emergency calls
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

CIT: when will CIT officers be dispatched?

A
  1. Disturbances with subjects known or reported to have mental illness2. Subjects threatening violent suicide3. Subjects experiencing signs of excited delirium.4. Mental patient walk always located and being taken into custody.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Tire deflation pre-deployment is authorised only by:

A

Specialized units.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Pursuit: when will pursuits be conducted (2).

A
  1. For a violent felony, or2. If the bandit presents a clear and immediate danger to the public.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Pit non-deadly Force: per policy of tires are deflated as a result of a tire deflation device, what level of force is this?

A

Non-deadly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Transporting prisoners: prisoners and officers of opposite sex, officers will enter in the tablet

A

Start/stop mileage to the 10th.Voice with no tablet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

DV: if any LE employee is a suspect or victim, the SGT will immediately notify?

A

The WC, if unavailable, the CIS supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

DV: if it is reasonably believed pimp/prostitution, Vice will be notified. When will they not assume the investigation?

A

If the relationship is not expressly stated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Patrol recerts on cit?

A

6 hours every 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

For any arrest at a mental facility, what is the last step for the officer.

A

Notify their supervisor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

CIT: at a mental health facility, an arrest will be made only (2)

A

If the supervising physician will complete a voluntary indicating the crime was not a result of mental illness AND is willing to discharge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Transporting prisoners: vehicles are searched when?

A

Start of shift and immediately before and after transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Transporting prisoners: when will prisoners be put in a police vehicle without being cuffed?

A

Extraordinary situations with supervisor approval.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Pursuit: the primary unit may request the field supervisor for additional units to pursue if necessary, what is the stand amount?

A

Primary, secondary, and third.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

When deploying spikes, officers mustPLCSBR

A
  1. Assist unit engaged in Pursuit.2. Pick a Location in the pathway 3. Communicate their location4. Have a Sightline to see the approaching vehicle5. Have a deploying Barrier6. Retract!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Requests from physician, social worker, RN to transport mentally ill lvmpd should:EXCEPT FOR COURT ORDERED ADMISSIONS

A

Advise to seek private transport or ambulance unless approved by a supervisor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Pursuit: officers involved in a motor vehicle collision during an emergency response or a pursuit will immediately discontinue unless:

A
  1. No other unit is available to assume the pursuit/respond2. Damage is minor and unit can still operate without danger. 3. There are no apparent injuries as a result of the accident.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Code 3: 2nd Officer on advises of code how?3rd Officer on advises of arrival how?

A

MDT, not breaking the RED!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

DV: For station reports, of a reported battery occurred in the last 24 hours, and/or visible injuries/ evidence exist, who is notified.

A

On duty patrol sgt, officers will respond to complete the investigation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Who reviews pursuit reports??

A

The shift LT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Transporting prisoners: under no circumstances will a person under arrest be held in a transport vehicle longer than than how long? Before being transported and booked

A

2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Pursuit: there will be no code 3 caravanning or paralleling of units…

A

Without supervisor approval. Note: by definition paralleling and caravanning are code responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

DV: when ever DV is a part of the investigation of any offense, the investigation will be assigned to the appropriate area commands investigative detail except for:

A

Homicide, fraud/forgery, sexual assault, sex trafficking, bSBH, felony DV, awdw, felony strangulation, child/elder abuse.420, 432, 426, 424, vice&fjc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

(Clark county) arrests are limited to:BLANK(CLV) suspects may be booked for:

A

The single most serious felony, gross mis. Or misdemeanor. Except violent crimes! Will book on multiple.All appropriate misdemeanor offenses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

The determination an arrestee needs medical attention may be made by BLANK. Who is notified and approves an officers discretion to continue booking?

A

The booking sergeant with input from the CCDC medical services vendor.The WC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

If an officer chooses not to book, they will not make the decision to release without?

A

Providing the arrestee an option for obtaining medical care ( the officer may call for private transportation).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

When may officers transport to the hospital or ER?

A

Non life threatening, must release to medical not just a drop off!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

The arrestee is going for medical, the officer may:

A

Issue a citation or will submit for a warrant before the end of shift.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Officers will not release anywhere but:

A

CCDC, CLV, HENDERSIN JAIL OR THE HOSPITAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

When may felonies/gross be combined with misdemeanors?

A
  1. Crimea against an Officer.2. Mandatory arrests (417/409)3. The charge leads to the felony(Sita)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

In Clark county, multiple charges are approved by? How is this noted?

A

A supervisor, initials and P# will be on TCR and all subsequent reports.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What is needed at CCDC prior to leaving?

A

TCR and DOADOA is typed for all felonies and gross misdemeanor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Supervisors review the DOA for?

A
  1. Justification for multiple charges.2 PC3 articulation of elements4 quality.Once entire report is completed and fastened. Sign and mark approved on LVMPD 124. ENSURE ALL REPORTS ARE SCANNED APPROPRIATELY.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Medical: arrestees will not be released for:

A
  1. Crimes against an officer.2. Mandatories3.violence with significant injuries 4 violence with deadly weapon5. 4266. 427ADDITIONALLY: weigh if it is in the best interest of the department to cite or submit for other crimes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What is the time limit to NCF before the release must be coordinated with the DA?

A

48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

When may officers make arrests without warrants?

A

1.FGM in presence!2.FG not committed in presence but PC crime was committed and accused committed it.3. PC person is ABOUT to commit a FELONY.4. Juvenile M not committed in presence.5. Traffic offenses delineated6. DV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Elements to make an arrest:

A

1 show of authority by an officer in words actions or both that would cause a reasonable person they are being deprived of their liberty more than temporarily. AND2. Submission to show of authority OR3. Physical touching to take the person under control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

When does a supervisor sign the property report prior to being transported?

A

Cash over 100, non cash over 250

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

DV and DUI: What is entered that requires a member not to use or possess a firearm?

A

Extended order for protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

DV and DUI: if an extended order for protection is entered, what are the firearm limitations?

A
  1. May only carry a department authorised firearm2. Only while in the performance of their duties
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

DV and DUI: the sgt will address behaviour through: 2

A
  1. Discipline2. Counseling training or care programs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Arrests will not be routinely NCFd from

A

Las Vegas city detention center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Arrests: a person which property is being released to should put what in the circumstances section of the property report?

A

Name, phone number, signature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Arrests: arrestee signs where when releasing property on the property report?

A

Owners Signature portion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Arrests: when is Miranda given to the arrested IF INTEROGATION IS TO FOLLOW?

A

At the time of arrest or as soon as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

When does Sgt notify FJC?

A

Dv: BSBH, AWDW, BWDW, strangulation w injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Transporting prisoners: resident officers transporting two prisoners of same or opposite sex will sit where?If they’re combative the LEAST violent will sit where? When may more than two be transported?

A

The rear of the vehicle.The front passenger seat.Supervisor approval.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Transporting prisoners: Specialty restraints will not be use unless:

A

Approved by a supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Pursuit:Who SHOULD relinquish the primary spot?

A

Supervisors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Pursuits: If a motorcycle, unmarked, or SUV outside or community/tourist safety division is primary and relinquishes. At the conclusion of the pursuit they WILL:

A

Proceed to the end point of the pursuit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Pursuits:PIT at deadly force is for: (3)

A
  1. Continued movement of the pursues vehicle would place others in danger of substantial bodily harm or death and/or2. Apparent risk of harm, other than the occupants, is so great as to outweigh the risk of a forcible stop. And3. Other means of apprehension have been considered and rejected as impractical
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

For CODE 2 driving, officers must drive ____or_____ the speed limit.

A

At or below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Only ___________________ are authorized to use Code 3.

A

Commissioned personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Typing messages and use of cell phone are _______________ during a code 3 response.

A

Prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Transporting prisoners: if a prisoner is seated in a vehicle for an extended period of time consideration should be given to (2).

A

Leaving the safety barrier lowered, and opening the FRONT windows slightly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Transporting prisoners: prisoners WILL NOT be left alone in a vehicle unless:

A

Under close observation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Transporting prisoners:Handcuffs WIIL NOT be removed until:

A

Prisoner is placed in a holding cell or into custody of corrections, court, medical, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Transporting Prisoners:Prisoners are handcuffed behind the back unless:

A

Impractical or impossible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Transporting Prisoners:The trailing end of a hobble will be anchored:

A

Out the passenger door

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Transporting Prisoners: When may Prisoners be transported face down?

A

On an ambulance gurney with permission of medical personnel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

CIT: if a subject is active military or an active reservist in crisis, who will you notify?

A

Nellis AFB security forces watch desk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

CIT: who approves CIT AARs by the end of shift?

A

The supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

CIT: For an L2K, a person mutilates, attempts suicide, inflicts harm etc. this occurs at the call of within the preceding ___#__ days

A

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

CIT: per NRS, once a person is L2Kd, prior to going to a mental facility they must??(This is in policy…although we really have nothing to do with this)

A
  1. Examined at the hospital for medical problems outside of the mental illness,2. Receive treatment for such medical problems (admitted)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

CIT: all of the circumstances for an L2K must be documented and articulated to show an ___________________ exception to the 4th amendment.

A

Exigency circumstance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

CIT: All Legal 2000s will be entered into the ____________________

A

SCOPE system using COT entry codes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

CIT: Holding cells _____________ be used for restraining mentally ill persons.

A

Will not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

CIT: supervisors will ensure the L2K forms are scanned into:

A

OnBase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

CIT: when MOST and CIT detail have created a call/439 in an area, who do they advise?

A

Communications and the area supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

CIT: deaf or hard of hearing persons will be given ___________ unless exigent circumstances exist.

A

Primary Consideration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

CIT: hearing impaired individuals have the right to use their hands to communicate. For an arrested, safety permitting, an officer may: (2)

A

Cuff in the front (NOT DURING TRANSPORT)Transport to a secure facility to allow for the subject to be uncuffed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

CIT: For hearing impaired, written questions and answers will be: (2)(Copies and originals)

A
  1. Copies are forwarded to records.2. Originals are placed in evidence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

CIT: For dead or hearing impaired, who is informed of their impairment and preferred aid prior to leaving booking??

A

The booking Sgt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

CIT: an arrestee May waive their right to an interpreter in:

A

Writing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

CIT : on public or private property, officers may standby while homeless camps are cleaned up, but ______________ participate in removal or prevent belonging retrieval without a legitimate reason.

A

Will not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

CIT: city/county clean up crews may be requested by officers when the encampments are on:

A

Public property

196
Q

CIT: An officer arresting a homeless person WILL NOT bring all of their property based on their safety, the safety of booking personnel, and evidence vault. If property isn’t taken, such as soiled pillows and blankets, where is this documented?

A

An officers/arrest report as appropriate

197
Q

CIT: For questions about shelters and services, or disposal of hazardous items, who may be contacted?

A

The homeless liaison

198
Q

CIT: HIS personnel posses no police powers and WILL NOT be:

A

Left alone with victims, witnesses, suspects

199
Q

CIT: only as a last resort should people be taken into protective custody for intoxication. They will be delivered to:

A

WESTCARE -civil protective custody/ detox center

200
Q

CIT: westcare will not accept (for protective custody (5)

A
  1. Psychotic (suicidal,homicidal, uncontrollable, out of contact with reality)2. Drug overdose3. Persons on PCP4. Delirium Tremens5. Injuries that require immediate medical.
201
Q

CIT: the drug/alcohol program is intended for __________ only

A

Adults

202
Q

DV and DUI: who ensures any reduction in discipline retains the designation of the initial discipline?

A

The immediate supervisor

203
Q

DV and DUI: as a Sgt, you will coordinate any voluntary follow up care through:

A

PEAP

204
Q

DV and DUI: the employees supervisor will address the employees behavior through:

A
  1. Discipline and/or2. Counseling, training, and care programs
205
Q

DV and DUI: for a sustained IAB complaint, in order to participate in treatment, counseling, or training an employee must be _________ and must meet criteria according to:_____________

A
  1. Agreeable

2. Clark County Manager of Employee Assistance and Wellness Programs

206
Q

DV and DUI: while not on-duty, the firearm will be stored with/by:

A

The Bureau Commander or designee

207
Q

DV and DUI: Members subject to a __________________ May only carry a _______________ firearm and only in the performance of their duties.

A
  1. Extended order for protection2. Department Authorized
208
Q

DV and DUI: DV and DUI cases may depart from the criminal violations by LE directive EXCEPT FOR _______________

A

Notifications

209
Q

Arrest procedures: A supervisor will weigh what (2) when determining to release an arrestee to medical?This doesn’t include the mandatory 6

A

If it’s in the best interest of the arrestee If it’s in the best interest of the department.

210
Q

Arrest procedure:Detectives will submit the case to the DA (felonies and gross) within ________ working days of the criminal complaint.

A

5

211
Q

Arrest procedures:The DA reviews all cases submitted and files charges on ALL appropriate offenses. If the suspect is released from custody warrants or summons will be issued by:

A

The court

212
Q

DV: what misdemeanor crimes get an entire booking package?

A

Batt DV and violation of protective orders

213
Q

CIT: if an interpreter is used and recorded, it will be:

A

Impounded by the person requesting the interpreter

214
Q

Vehicle pursuits:A pursuit with a primary, secondary, and third unit is taking place. Who will broadcast progress if feasible? (Assuming the air unit is NOT there)

A

The secondary unit.

215
Q

Vehicle pursuits:Who will designate a supervisor to monitor a pursuit IF the officers supervisor is not available?

A

Communications

216
Q

Vehicle pursuits:A pursuit with a primary, secondary, and third unit is taking place. Who will broadcast progress if feasible? (Assuming the air unit is NOT there)

A

The secondary unit.

217
Q

Vehicle pursuits:Who will designate a supervisor to monitor a pursuit IF the officers supervisor is not available?

A

Communications

218
Q

Code 3: 1 and 2 units arriving will ______________or_____________ as needed. Field supervisors will ______________ or ______________ code 3 as warranted.

A

1 continue or discontinue2 cancel or direct

219
Q

What should be documented in an L2K? MACD

A

MedsActions/statementsContact info (family, relatives)Diagnosis

220
Q

Supervisors review all applicable reports in Blue Team for accuracy and completeness, what 3 documentations are done?

A
  1. Document how use of force was justified and adhered to policy.2. Document training deficiencies and how they were corrected.3. Document any identified misconduct and how it was addressed.
221
Q

Deadly force or force involving SBH or death: who acts as the IC until relieved by the LT or WC?

A

First supervisor on scene.

222
Q

Intentional use of more than one ECD simultaneously is:

A

Prohibited.

223
Q

Unintentional discharge of a firearm that does not cause injury or death to a person, or the humane euthanising of injured or dangerous animals.

A

Other firearm discharge.

224
Q

Deadly force or force involving SBH or death: the IC should also:5

A
  1. Establish a command post2. Establish 3 staging areas (yours, PPA, Media)3. Establish a outer perimeter4. Identify and separate civilians, officers, and assign witness monitors. (This is duplicated from msliscp)PD will:4. Begin preliminary investigation5. Ensure the major incident log is assigned and completed.
225
Q

Deadly force or significant force investigations. Any officer/supervisor assigned, involved or arrived on scene will not leave until released by Who?

A

The FIT supervisor involved.

226
Q

Blocking blue team v incident?

A

Blue team- officer makes occupied contactIncident- suspect makes contact

227
Q

Each involved officer does a blue team that includes:4

A

Level of “force”, tool/tactic, effectiveness, and 8 reasonableness factors.

228
Q

CCDc is notified of what uses of force for screening:

A

OCLVNRECDCanineLL/40

229
Q

For PIT, supervisors should: 2

A

Acknowledge officers intent over the radio and weigh if you’ll approve the PIT and;Consider other options

230
Q

Who notifies the IAB LT if significant force is used?

A

Area LT or WC.

231
Q

PIT application is for : (2)

A

Driver refuses to stop (Patrol is using lights and sirens and giving opportunity).
And elements of pursuit must be met.

232
Q

When is PIT deadly force?

A

Over 40 mph.Motor cyclesHigh center of gravityOther circumstances

233
Q

Deadly force or force involving SBH or death: IC first initial steps (7)Ms LISCP

A

M- ensure medical is provided.S - search for outstanding suspectsL- lockdown sceneI- identify and isolate witnessesS- seperate witness and involved officers, get witness monitors not connected to the incident.C- notify comms of incidentP- public safety statement (done separately with all necessary. Written down from the card)

234
Q

OC- caution should be used for?

A

Extremes of ages, pregnant, disabled.

235
Q

CIRT will complete the UOF report for what?

A

When deadly force is used or force which results in death. Less lethal during deadly force incident will be at the discretion of the cirt LT.

236
Q

Supervisors oversee and address over deployment of rifles. They will: (3)

A
  1. Proceed to an incident with rifle deployment and assume control, when possible.2. Ensure the deployment is appropriate.3. Modify or cancel if necessary.
237
Q

Handcuffing on terry stops. (8)

A
  1. Physically uncooperative2. Actions present physical danger to themselves or others3 possibility of flight4 info subject is armed5 closely follows violent crime and specific parts match6 crime of violence is about to occur7 avoid age extremes, pregnant, disabled8 only handcuff as long as above exists
238
Q

Without exception approved by the supervisor, when are blue teams completed?

A

By the end of shift.

239
Q

For unfounded, alleged uses of force, what will the supervisor complete?

A

Citizen contact in Blue Team

240
Q

When 40mm or low leathal is deployed, how many officers WILL be present?

A

2

241
Q

When may animals be shot (3)

A

Self defenseDefense of othersBadly injured to prevent suffering ONLY AFTER ATTEMPTS HAVE BEEN MADE WITH ASSISTING AGENCIES

242
Q

LL avoid shooting through what?

A

Glass/ chain link fences

243
Q

Officer/supervisor who participated, directed or influenced the application of force.

A

Involved officer

244
Q

Deadly force or force involving SBH or death: who does the briefing and what does it include?5. Locations and summary….HA gave ya one.

A

Patrol detective or on-scene supervisor

  1. Location of involved officer, witness, civilian witness.
  2. Location of Subject
  3. Location of scene
  4. Location of evidence.
  5. Location of supervisor taking PSS if applicable.
  6. Details of incident.
245
Q

LL and 40mm SHOULD NOT be used for (4)H.E.E.B

A
  1. Extremes of ages or disabled2. Elevated position3. Handcuffed4 breeching tool
246
Q

LL and 40 WILL NOT be used:(3)

A
  1. Subject with a FA unless compelling reasons can be articulated.2. Civil unrest unless authorised by IC or above. Must specifically target an imminent threat.3. Pregnant unless deadly force is the only other option.
247
Q

Low level vehicle force 2

A

pinching

248
Q

OC can be used on protesters when?

A

Authorised by the IC in response to an imminent threat.

249
Q

LL and 40mm May be used in deadly force:

A

Only when it doesn’t create unnecessary risk to officers or others

250
Q

Ecd will not be used:8

A

1.Flammable situations2. Position to fall3. Coercion4. Escort/jab5. Awaken/intoxicated6. Pregnant unless deadly force is only other7. Solely passive/active resistance8. Fleeing is sole justification

251
Q

Disapproved handcuffing 2

A

Refrain: when medical circumstances make it unreasonable.In-custody: until RS or PC is established

252
Q

Criteria to block:

A

RS a crime was committed and will try to flee

253
Q

OC is only authorised for vehicles when?

A

Police are attempting to secure an aggressive subject in their vehicle. NOT USED FOR EXTRACTION OUTSIDE OF DETENTION FACILITY

254
Q

Non deadly with ECD, 2 things a Supervisor does?

A
  1. Ensure video is uploaded into Blue Team prior to end of shift.2. Verify probes wire and cartridges are impounded. Not done on an AD unless injury occurs. Arrange for replacements.
255
Q

PIT is reportable for:

A

Success, attempts, or declared use

256
Q

UOF Blue teams are forwarded to?

A

Investigating supervisor????????

257
Q

Non deadly force, a supervisor starts the investigation by: Mr Nnipc

A

M- ensure Medical is requested when applicable.
R- Respond without unnecessary delay (if unable, get the same level or higher)
N- ensure force is Non-deadly
N- notify comms and LT/WC for proper Notifications to include when significant force is used.
I- interview subject, officer, medical, witnesses who have 1st hand knowledge. Obtain vols through uninvolved officer.
P- takes Photos of subjects, scene, officers and collect evidence.
Check and obtain video.

258
Q

Ramming is for:

A

Deadly force only

259
Q

Handcuff outside terry stops.

A

Suicidal persons
SW- for safety
Transport to detox facility
CCDC moving in-custody’s

260
Q

May OC be used on animals for self defense or others?

A

Yes

261
Q

Officers discharge of a firearm at a person, with or without physical injury or death of the person

A

OIS

262
Q

Deadly force or force involving SBH or death: Supervisor places involved officer on what:And who determines if other officers will be on this status??

A

Relief of duty.
PEAP - PEAP will determine other officers, but the supervisor actually places them on relief of duty (ie. COMPLETES THE FORM)

263
Q

ECD should not be used unless can be clearly articulated: 5

A
  1. Handcuffed
  2. Operating vehicle
  3. Holding FA
  4. Extremes of age or disabled
  5. Clearly deadly force but other officer present and capable of providing deadly force of necessary
264
Q

Video, supervisors will: 2

A

Permit officer to review only THEIR actions before doing their report.
Ensure it’s impounded as evidence and noted in Blue Team

265
Q

Officer or supervisor who did not participate in or directly influence the application of the use of force.

A

Witness officer

266
Q

Officers may use reasonable force to: 5

A
Protect themselves 
Protect others
Affect lawful detention 
Affect lawful arrest
Conduct lawful search
267
Q

Chain of command has how long on blue teams?

A

30 Calendar days!

268
Q

If a Supervisor is involved in a UOF, May they investigate?

A

No, it goes to the next level of supervision.

269
Q

Officers will not discharge at or from a moving vehicle. If done: (3)

A
  1. Will get out of the path as a priority!
  2. person in the vehicle is an imminent deadly threat to officers or others by means other than the vehicle (such as an occupant firing a handgun at an officer).
  3. The driver is using the vehicle as a weapon to inflict mass causalities (such as a truck driving through a crowd).
  4. Officers will not discharge a firearm from their moving (Department) vehicle unless a person is an imminent deadly threat to officers or others (such a discharge must be limited to the most extreme circumstances).
270
Q

When multiple rifles are deployed, who does the blue team?

A

One, they list the others as involved.

271
Q

Officers will handcuff an arrested person:

A

As soon as possible.

272
Q

Photos will be taken when?

A

All reportable uses of force, regardless of visible injury.

273
Q

Firearms discharge is not authorised for(2)

A
  1. Warning shots

2. It appears likely an innocent person may be injured.

274
Q

Use of impact weapons out side of baton is:

A

Strongly discouraged and must be articulated after other authorised methods are exhausted/unavailable/ineffective

275
Q

Canine may be used for civil disorder in dire emergency authorised by who?

A

Any subsequent use of canine is only authorized by a lieutenant or higher for extreme emergencies.

276
Q

4 duties of the witness monitor:

A
  1. Ensure involved and witnesses don’t speak to each other.
  2. PPA and attorneys not allowed to speak or move until FIT supervisor has arrived.
  3. Monitor will not talk about the event.
  4. Stay with them until countdown is done.
277
Q

OC- may be used on handcuffed subjects who?

A

OC spray will not be used on a handcuffed subject unless the subject is displaying assaultive resistance.

278
Q

Deadly force or force involving SBH or death: If sole officer wants to arrest, who arranges for transportation?

A

Supervisor.

279
Q

Deadly force maybe used upon another person when it is objectively reasonable to (2)

A
  1. Protect themselves /others from what is reasonably believed to be an imminent threat of death/SBH
  2. prevent escape of fleeing felon, PC to believe has committed a violent felony and is imminent threat to human life if escape should occur.
280
Q

Rifles may be deployed when?

A

Potential for deadly force based on:
distance,
cover , and the
tactical situation.

281
Q

Deadly force or force involving SBH or death: who chooses the briefing location?

A

IC

282
Q

What is required for pinching?

A

Rs of crime and attempting to evade, or has potential to harm themselves or others

283
Q

For PIT, when contact is made, communications will advise who?

A
  1. Officers immediate chain.
  2. WC
  3. On duty traffics supervisor.
    If ANY questions or concerns arise of deadly v non deadly, FIT or Fatal shall be notified.
284
Q

For significant force, who does the LT/WC notify?

A

IAB LT

285
Q

Level of control: empty hand

A

Low, intermediate, deadly

286
Q

Level of control: handcuffing

A

Low

287
Q

Level of control: baton/impact tool

A

Low, intermediate, deadly

288
Q

Level of control: OC

A

Intermediate

289
Q

Level of control: lvnr

A

prohibited

290
Q

Level of control:ECD

A

Intermediate

291
Q

Level of control: K9

A

Low, intermediate

292
Q

Level of control: vehicle

A

Low, intermediate, deadly

293
Q

Level of control: LL

A

Intermediate, deadly

294
Q

What is significant force?

A

Any use of force which results in treatment at a medical facility due to injuries or alleged injuries caused by an officer.Ex) fractures, complaint of injury to head, sternum.

295
Q

In a use of force incident, the governmental interest must match the level of BLANK and BLANK upon an individuals constitutional rights.

A

Force and intrusion.

296
Q

Officers should place a BLANK reliance upon use of force.

A

Minimal

297
Q

The use of force policy applies to who?

A

All commissioned officers

298
Q

United States constitution states a police officer may only use such force as is “BLANK”

A

Objectively reasonable

299
Q

Civilian employees have no arrest powers but may carry a firearm or OC, they must use force consistent with:

A

Nevada laws of self defense or defense of another.
They still do blue teams!!!
And you will respond with another officer to assist

300
Q

The use of force chart is a graphic that is intended to be a BLANK for an officer??

A

GENERAL GUIDELINE

301
Q

Supervisors WILL acknowledge and respond to incidents in a timely manner where law enforcement use of force is BLANK?

A

PROBABLE.

302
Q

Elements of deadly force: 4

A

Ability
Opportunity
Preclusion
Imminent Jeopardy

303
Q

Levels of control

A

Low level
Intermediate
Deadly force

304
Q

Levels of resistance:

A

Compliant
Obstructive
Assaultive
Life threatening 🔫

305
Q

Graham v. Conner establishes if force is objectively reasonable with 3 prongs:And 5 additional considerations:

A
  1. Severity of the crime at issue
  2. Whether the subject poses an immediate threat to the safety of officers or others
  3. Whether the subject is actively resisting arrest or attempting to evade arrest by flight.
    - —————————————————————————————-
  4. Influence of alcohol/drugs or mental capacity
  5. time available to an officer to make a decision
  6. Availability of resources/officers present to deescalate.
  7. proximity or access to weapons
  8. environmental factors or other exigent circumstances
306
Q

UOF Canine presence on leash is approved for:

A

Obstructive

307
Q

UOF Canine with bites is approved for:

A

Assaultive

308
Q

U of FIn police operation, who is in charge and responsible for the dog?

A

The handler!

309
Q

U of F The _________ must be aware of the number of rifles already deployed.

A

Officer

310
Q

U of F Airport bureau officers may openly carry rifles, slung muzzle down, when? (2).

A

At the directions of the airport bureau commander, orWhen it could make the officer more effective at crime (terrorism) prevention.No blue team needed for this!

311
Q

U of F The ________ SHOULD be used on subjects armed with a weapon. Or when a subject poses an imminent threat of safety to officers or others The ________ WILL be used on subjects armed with a weapon. Or when a subject poses an imminent threat of safety to officers or others.(Such as a brick, bottle, knife, club, etc.)

A
  1. LL shotgun2. 40mm
312
Q

U of F 40 mm will only be carried where?

A

Designated tactical vehiclesIn the trunk in their designated bag

313
Q

U of FWhen multiple rifles are deployed, the _________ shall designate one deploying officer to complete the rifle deployment report in blue team.

A

Supervisor

314
Q

U of F: who completes an annual U of F analysis?

A

IOCP

315
Q

U of F: who may interact and explain the investigative process to involved officers while being monitored by a witness monitor?

A

PEAP

316
Q

U of F: if an involved officer declines any FIT interview this is ok. However, they will be admonished by ____________ and will make a compelled statement to (answer) on a future date.

A

CIRT

317
Q

U of F: scene walkthroughs are conducted by: For involved they are:For witnesses they:

A

FIT
Voluntary.
Will be provided

318
Q

U of F: on an OIS or use of deadly force, who determines what to do with potential video surveillance (not BWC)

A

The FIT supervisor

319
Q

U of F: who ensures non-essential personnel stay out of the FIT briefing?

A

FIT LT or designee

320
Q

U of F: at a deadly force incident, who confers prior to evidence documentation and collection?

A

Fit supervisor and csi supervisor

321
Q

U of F: there is an active shooter incident that concludes prior to metro involvement. Who would request CIRT?

A

The sheriff

322
Q

U of F: you respond to a successful PIT, even though it was great application, speed was questionable. To determine if it was deadly or non deadly force who shall be notified?

A

FIT. OR. FATAL

323
Q

U of F: you respond to an OIS and take 3 PSS. Who will you hand these over to?

A

A FIT detective

324
Q

U of F: who makes the final determination on a deadly force incident of who is a witness or involved?

A

The ranking fit supervisor

325
Q

U of F: who collects/photographs PIT evidence?

A

CSI

326
Q

U of F: for cases of deadly force or in-custody death, who impounded ECD proves, wires, and cartridges?

A

CSI

327
Q

U of F: ____________ will provide a monthly report to the appropriate division commander listing all U of F reports which have exceeded the 30 day limitation.

A

IOCP

328
Q

U of F: photos taken by officers on a U of Force are downloaded to:Photos taken by CSI are uploaded to:

A

Blue team OnBase

329
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYthe positioning of a police vehicle in the path of an occupied subject vehicle where contact between the vehicles is not anticipated or is anticipated to be minimal.

A

Blocking

330
Q

U of F: when In uniform, commissioned officers will carry:

A

All issued tools and equipment required by policy

331
Q

U of F: Officers LT and below out of uniform on duty will have one intermediate option on them. Except when waiver by their:

A

Division commander

332
Q

U of Force: handcuffs may only be colored:

A

Chrome or black

333
Q

U of force: what’re deadly force strikes with a baton:

A
Head 
Neck
sternum
Spine
Groin
Kidneys
334
Q

U of F: ECD video may not be disseminated with out permission of the :

A

Sheriff or designee

335
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYDeadly Force - the degree of force which is likely to produce death or serious bodily injury. Deadly force can also result from a force option being ________ applied. Deadly force is not limited to the use of firearms.

A

Improperly

336
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYa team put in place to conduct a criminal investigation to determine whether the use of deadly force was legally justified under criminal law. ____also directs the investigation against a subject who either committed crimes which led to the use of deadly force or who has committed crimes against an officer.

A

FIT

337
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYa level of force that has the potential to cause injury or substantial pain, and is greater than low-level force

A

Intermediate Force

338
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYa level of force or control that is neither likely nor intended to cause injury

A

Low Level Force

339
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYthe level of force required to compel compliance, which is not intended to and is not known to create a substantial risk of causing death or serious bodily harm

A

Non-Deadly Force

340
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYa designated officer who is not involved in the use of deadly force. The responsibilities of the officer witness monitor are to observe and prevent discussions regarding the incident among involved officer(s), witness officer(s), witness(es), and other individuals who arrive at the scene (lieutenants, captains, Collective Bargaining Association representatives/attorneys, etc.) prior to the arrival of FIT.

A

Officer Witness Monitor

341
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYan unintentional discharge of a firearm that does not cause injury or death to a person, or the humane euthanizing of injured or dangerous animals.

A

Other Firearm Discharge

342
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYT/F: The supervisor must take appropriate action to ensure public safety, based on the information received from the PSS.

A

TRUE

343
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYany use of force which is required to overcome subject resistance to gain compliance that results in injury or complaint of injury, complaint of continuing pain, or any use of force greater than low level force (see Levels of Control)

A

Reportable Force

344
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYT/F: the department examines all uses of force from an subjective standard.

A

False - UOF is judged from an OBJECTIVE standard

345
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYMedical attention will be summoned for the following use of force applications, regardless of visible injury or complaint of injury:Baton/Impact Weapons

A

any strikes to the head, neck or groin area

346
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYMedical attention will be summoned for the following use of force applications, regardless of visible injury or complaint of injury:Canine

A

all bites

347
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYMedical attention will be summoned for the following use of force applications, regardless of visible injury or complaint of injuryECD

A

probe strikes to the head, neck or groin area

348
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYMedical attention will be summoned for the following use of force applications, regardless of visible injury or complaint of injuryLVNR

A

will NOT be used or applied in any way shape or form.

349
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYMedical attention will be summoned for the following use of force applications, regardless of visible injury or complaint of injuryUse of Force with a Firearm

A

a. Low Lethality Shotgun - all strikes.
b. 40mm Specialty Impact Weapon - all strikes.
c. Handgun/Shotgun (“00” Buck & Slug)/Rifle - any discharge

350
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYMedical attention will be summoned for the following use of force applications, regardless of visible injury or complaint of injury Use of Force with a Vehicle

A

Use of Force with a Vehicle:

a. Precision intervention technique (PIT)
b. Ramming – all

351
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYT/F: Medical will be summonsed for all successful applications of a PIT

A

False - ALL PIT

352
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYT/F The officers actions will dictate the resistance level

A

False - The Subjects actions will.

353
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYT/F: The UOF model provided in policy is a strict model which will be adhered to for all applications of force by LVMPD officers

A

False, policy states “This graphic is intended as a general guideline for an officer”

354
Q

6/002.01 USE OF FORCE PROCEDUREAny commissioned officer present and observing another officer using force that is clearly beyond that which is “objectively reasonable” under the circumstances will, when in a position to do so, safely intercede to prevent the use of excessive force. Officers will promptly report these observations to________

A

a supervisor

355
Q

6/002.01 USE OF FORCE PROCEDURE a person contacted by an officer who acknowledges direction or lawful orders given and offers no resistance.

A

Compliant

356
Q

6/002.01 USE OF FORCE PROCEDURE

The subject is uncooperative, not complying with an officer’s commands, or their physical actions are intended to prevent an officer from placing the subject in custody or under control; the subject’s actions are not directed at harming the officer or others.

A

Obstructive

357
Q

6/002.01 USE OF FORCE PROCEDURE
the subject is uncooperative, not complying with an officer’s commands, or their physical actions are intended to prevent an officer from placing the subject in custody or under control; the subject’s actions are not directed at harming the officer or others.
Examples include:
a. Standing stationary and not moving upon lawful direction
b. Becoming “dead weight”
c. Holding onto a fixed object (e.g., utility pole or steering wheel) or locking arms with another during a
protest
d. Walking or running away
e. Breaking the officer’s grip

A

Obstructive

358
Q

6/002.01 USE OF FORCE PROCEDURE
the subject demonstrates the intent to harm the officer, others or themselves.

Examples include:

a. A subject taking a fighting stance, punching, kicking, striking, or attacking with weapons
b. Other actions which present an imminent threat of physical harm
c. A subject fleeing while in control of weapon (e.g., firearm in a waistband)

A

Assaultive

359
Q

6/002.01 USE OF FORCE PROCEDURE

the subject’s actions are likely to result in death or substantial bodily injury to the officer or others.
Examples include:
a. The imminent use of a firearm, blunt, or bladed weapon
b. Extreme physical force

A

Life-Threatening

360
Q

6/002.01 USE OF FORCE PROCEDURE

This level of control includes:

a. Officer presence
b. Verbal communication
c. Empty hand tactics (physical constraint, hand control [escorts], takedowns not likely to cause injury)
d. Handcuffs/Hobbles/DSD specialty restraints
e. Baton (as escort tool)
f. Canine (on leash)
g. Stationary vehicle immobilization technique (pinching)

A

Low Level Force – a level of control that balances against a subject who is compliant or obstructive, and is neither likely nor intended to cause injury. Examples are handcuffing a compliant arrestee or proning a subject out on a high-risk vehicle stop.

361
Q

6/002.01 USE OF FORCE PROCEDURE This level of control includes:

a. Empty hand tactics (strikes, kicks)
b. DSD specialty restraint devices (restraint chair/bed)
c. Baton/Impact tools (jabs, strikes)
d. Oleoresin capsicum (OC) spray
e. Electronic control device (ECD)
f. Low lethality shotgun (fired at a distance of seven [7] yards or greater)
g. 40mm specialty impact weapon (fired at a distance of five [5] yards or greater)
h. Canine (with bites)
i. PIT (speeds 40 mph or below)

A

Intermediate Force – a level of control that balances against a subject who is assaultive and has the potential to cause injury or substantial pain.

362
Q

6/002.01 USE OF FORCE PROCEDURE

a degree of force which balances against a subject whose actions are life-threatening and likely to result in death or substantial bodily injury.
This level of force includes:
a. Baton (striking head, neck, chest, spine, groin, or kidneys)
b. Low lethality shotgun (fired at a distance less than seven [7] yards)
c. 40mm specialty impact weapon (fired at a distance less than five [5] yards)
d. PIT (speeds more than 40 mph)
e. Ramming
f. Firearm use
An officer will not use deadly force against a person based on the threat that the person poses solely to themselves.

A

Deadly Force -

363
Q

6/002.01 USE OF FORCE PROCEDURET/F: It is the policy of this department that everypotential violent confrontation can be de-escalated

A

False”Clearly, not every potential violent confrontation can be de-escalated, but officers do have the ability to impact the direction and the outcome of many situations they handle, based on their decision-making and the tactics they choose to employ”

364
Q

6/002.01 USE OF FORCE PROCEDUREOfficers should use __________________________ as alternatives to higher levels of force.

A

advisements, warnings, verbal persuasion and other tactics

365
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYMedical attention will be summoned for the following use of force applications, regardless of visible injury or complaint of injury:OC Spray

A

Direct exposure to the facial area

366
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYT/F - Medical will be called for all baton/impact weapon strikes

A

False, ONLY FOR Any strikes to the head, neck, chest, spine, kidneys, or groin area

367
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYT/F - Medical will be called for all ECD applications

A

False -Only probe strikes to the head, neck, chest, or groin area

368
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYT/F - Medical will be called for all applications of OC

A

FalseOnly applications to the facial area.

369
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSNon-uniformed commissioned personnel the rank of lieutenant and below are required to carry at least ____intermediate force option (baton, OC spray or ECD) on their person when on-duty unless the requirement is waived, via completion of an Authorized Force Tools and Equipment Exemption Waiver, LVMPD 483, by their ______commander.

A

OneDivision

370
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSb. Officers ______ only use tactics appropriate to the situation which have been taught by department Defensive Tactics instructors.

A

should

371
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLS Baton strikes are deadly force if they impact what areas of the body?

A

striking subjects on the head, neck, chest, spine, groin, or kidneys

372
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSc. The use of instruments as a tool for the purpose of striking or jabbing (i.e., flashlights, radio, etc.) other than department-authorized batons, is ____________

A

Strongly Discouraged

373
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSOfficers are _______from using their firearm as an impact tool due to the possibility of an unintentional discharge.

A

Discouraged

374
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSa. OC spray expiration date and serviceability will be checked _______

A

Annually

375
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSc. OC spray may be used on vicious or aggressive animals when those animals _______ the safety of the officers or citizens.

A

“Interfere with”

376
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLS LVNR® will not be used on subjects T/F

A

True

377
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSIs an ECD spark display (not a spark check) a reportable use of force?

A

YES

378
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSHow many annual DT hours are required annually for Lt’s and below?

A

8 (IE 2 per quarter)Falls under general DT’s

379
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSHow many annual handcuffing training hours are required annually for Lt’s and below?

A

8 (IE 2 per quarter)Falls under general DT’s

380
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSHow many annual baton/impact tools training hours are required annually for Lt’s and below?

A

8 (IE 2 per quarter)Falls under general DT’s

381
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSHow many annual OC training hours are required annually for Lt’s and below?

A

8 (IE 2 per quarter)Falls under general DT’s

382
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSHow many annual LVNR training hours are required annually for all LVNR certified officers?

A

Zero

383
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSHow many annual ECD training hours are required annually for ALL ECD certified officers?

A

d. Annual Training - once certified, all officers, regardless of issuance of an ECD, must attend a two-hour (2) recertification training taught by the Advanced Officer Skills Training (AOST) staff.

384
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSHow many times per year are LL shotgun and 40MM certified officers required to qual?

A

Low Lethality Shotgun – re-qualify annually.40mm Specialty Impact Weapon - FTTU or Adjunct FTTU initial class, re-qualify annually.

385
Q

U of F:Who can pit? (Vehicles?)

A

Not trucks or SUVs!Unless a Ford Explorer in patrol. OrMV, Narcs, and Viper.

386
Q

U of F:All pinching is reportable T/F?

A

TRUE

387
Q

What will CIRT go to…that FIT doesn’t??

A

Dog/animal shoots
AD during police operation
Suicide attempt at CCDC
Officer killed or critically injured in an incident (NOT A VICTIM, ex 401)
Suspect/citizen critically injured/killed in INCIDENT. Such as an accident….this last one is super grey

388
Q

U of FIOCP will notify who for outstanding u of f reports exceeding 30 days (1)Weekly outstanding reports (2)Bi- weekly outstanding reports (3)

A
  1. Division commander 2. Bureau commander every week3. Executive staff bi-weekly
389
Q

Vehicle Pursuits: if you were primary AT ANY POINT IN A PURSUIT you must advise communications via :

A

Radio

390
Q

Vehicle pursuit: The following modify circumstances identifiers for pursuits and are updated in CAD:What do they stand for PS - 1PC - 2PO -3

A

PS - pursuit initiated and completed
PC- pursuit initiated but cancelled prior to completion
P.O. - potential pursuit situation observed but did not meet criteria.
NOTE: if an officer observed any of these they MUST notify communications

391
Q

6/002.03 POST USE OF FORCE INVESTIGATIONST/F: ANY UOF by a civilian employee will require a UOF report?

A

TRUE

392
Q

6/002.03 POST USE OF FORCE INVESTIGATIONSThere are several instances where a firearms discharge report is required to be completed. What are the only two instances where CIRT will complete the report?

A

CIRT will complete the Firearm Discharge Report on:

a. Any discharge at a person regardless of injury.
b. Accidental discharge of a firearm during a law enforcement operation.
c. The intentional discharge of any firearm (other than at a human being) which includes dog or animal shoots in self-defense or to humanely euthanize. Resident officers are an exception

393
Q

6/002.03 POST USE OF FORCE INVESTIGATIONSWho completes the UOF report if deadly force is used?

A

CIRT

If its a LL, the CIRT Lt. has discretion on this.

394
Q

6/002.03 POST USE OF FORCE INVESTIGATIONSDo Photographs have to be taken during all post UOF investigations, even if there are no visible injury/marks?

A

YES

395
Q

6/002.03 POST USE OF FORCE INVESTIGATIONSIs a NHP 5 required for Blocking, Pinching or PIT?

A

NO, these are pre-planned techniques and not “accidents”

396
Q

6/002.03 POST USE OF FORCE INVESTIGATIONSCan supervisors make their own PSS cards, even if they have the exact same PSS questions?

A

No

397
Q

6/002.03 POST USE OF FORCE INVESTIGATIONSWhat are the seven MAIN PSS questions?

A
  1. Did you discharge your firearm?
  2. Is anyone injured? If so, where are they located?
  3. Are there any outstanding suspects?a. If so, what is their description?
  4. Is it possible the suspect fired rounds at you?
  5. Do you know if any other officer(s) discharged their firearms?
  6. Are there any weapons or evidence that needs to be secured/protected? If so, where are they located?
  7. Are you aware of any witnesses? If so, what is their location?
398
Q

UOFSCENARIO:an officer uses deadly force on a suspect and the officer is the only witness to the incident, the officer has decided to NOT speak to FIT detectives and the suspect is still alive.Who makes the decision to arrest the suspect?

A

The officer does.

  • But if he does, he has to complete a TCR/DOA…
  • the sergeant will arrange for transport and
  • the officer is responsible for an arrest report prior to the end of shift
399
Q

6/002.03 POST USE OF FORCE INVESTIGATIONS Who has the responsibility for monitoring a post DF briefing to ensure only essential personnel are in attendance?

A

Essential personnel will be identified by the FIT supervisor.

400
Q

6/002.03 POST USE OF FORCE INVESTIGATIONSAre the following officers allowed to have a rep/attorney present with them for a post deadly UOF walkthrough?Witness:Involved:

A

Both - YES

401
Q

6/002.03 POST USE OF FORCE INVESTIGATIONSFIT interviews with involved officers shall take place no earlier than ____ after the incident?

A

48 hoursUnless the officer waives.

402
Q

Vehicle tactics: environmental factors specific to use of any force:

A
  1. areas with pedestrians
  2. Other vehicle traffic
  3. Parked vehicles
  4. Telephone/utility poles
  5. Bridges/overpass
  6. Adjacent to areas with large elevation change
403
Q

Vehicle Tactics: subject factor specific to use of force:

A
  1. Seriousness of crime
  2. Number of subjects
  3. Subjects known or have access to firearms
  4. Potential to use vehicle as weapon
  5. Potential disadvantage due to proximity to subjects
  6. Potential of creating crossfire situation
  7. Size/weight of subjects vehicle. Impaired to police vehicle.
404
Q

A subject is injured by a K9 and they are not the subject of the search. This is documented in an:

A

Any injury caused by a patrol dog to a person who was not the subject of the search will be documented in Blue Team as an Accidental/Unintentional Bite Incident Report and require a supervisor response.

405
Q

When do you make the notification a ramming technique has occurred?

A

Immediately after

406
Q

Take downs, lowest level of resistance:

A

Obstructive

407
Q

pinching, lowest level of resistance:

A

Obstructive

408
Q

Baton escort, lowest level of resistance:

A

Compliant

409
Q

If there is a loss of communication units return to the area command, if already on a call, the sergeant should?

A

ATL or attempt to communicate by other means.

410
Q

You are the NEAC sgt, what do you advise over the radio when leaving the rally point?

A

“NEAC strike team leaving area”

411
Q

Squads that leave their rally point are considered what?

A

MACTAC squads

412
Q

Sitreps can be given using what?

A
SALUTE 
Size
Activity
Location
Uniform
Time
Equipment
413
Q

In convoys, the convoy will always What?Where does the sgt or team leader ride?

A

Stay together!In the front with a designated driver for command and control.

414
Q

What does the SGT, or team leader in their absence AM dispatch when leaving the area?

A

Which units are ACTUALLY leaving the area.

415
Q

What are the 4 C’s?

A

Contain
Control
Communicate
Coordinate

416
Q

Who establishes incident command on a MACTAC incident (and starts the 4C’s)?

A

The Area LT, or Sergeant in their absence

417
Q

CCAC, DT, Airport and resident do what for NOTIFICATION, ALERT or ACTIVATION anywhere in the valley? (4)

A

Don’t leave!
Uniformed immediately go to rally point.
Non-uniformed get gear and “police” attire”
LT or senior SGT assigns strike teams to tactical locations.

418
Q

What is the current sop for hazard identification?

A

Red chemical light. Known or unknownGreen, chalk, marker -FOR LOCATIONS CHECKED!

419
Q

Who initiates call screening?

A

The WC.

420
Q

Who gives in the box supervisors/leaders incident information?

A

Communications supervisor.

421
Q

Upon arrival at the staging area, the sergeant/leader contacts who? For what?

A

Staging manager, operations chief, or IC for team assignment.

422
Q

What four areas are 100% in the box?

A

CCAC
DTAC
Airport
Resident

423
Q

When arriving at the rally point, the first unit should what?

A

Perform site security for other units.

424
Q

Who should call dispatch supervisor for the brief?

A

SGT or second arriving unit.

425
Q

What are the five team missions?

A

Assault, rescue, containment, force protection, reconnaissance

426
Q

First arriving officer: What are the four A’s?

A

Assess
Announce
Assemble
Act

427
Q

For MACTAC alerts or activations, regular area commands will (3)?

A

Clear non-life threatening calls ASAP.
In the box WILL respond to the rally point
Stay at home will protect critical infrastructure.
ALERT -monitor
ACTIVATION- go

428
Q

Who advises Sergeants of self dispatching?

A

Channel dispatchers

429
Q

What are the four MACTAC phases?

A

MACTAC incident, MACTAC activation, control phase, investigative phase

430
Q

At the airport for notifications-activations, what uniformed officers will not go to the rally points?

A

Those assigned to a post.

431
Q

Each squad has one BLANK and two or more BLANKS

A

Squad leaderTeam leader

432
Q

Communications advises who of MACTAC alerts and activations?

A

Area commands affected

433
Q

What are the stay at home squad priorities?

A

Respond to critical calls at their area command (or otherwise directed by comms/Supervisor)Protect critical infrastructure.Supervisors ensure units don’t self dispatch to the incident unless authorised!

434
Q

Who approves the “in the box” assignments?

A

Area command captains

435
Q

Specialized units assigned report to Who? What will they have?

A

Staging area manager, or IC if no manager is assigned.

They will have “police” identifieble equipment.

436
Q

Officers that do not arrive at the rally point prior to the squad leaving will do what?

A

Not attempt to catch up, they will be reassigned to the stay at home squad

437
Q

For MACTAC NOTIFICATIONS, regular area commands will (3)?

A

Clear from non-life threatening calls ASAP.Consider heading to the rally points.Stay at home supervisors should send units to Critical infrastructure protection.

438
Q

What are strike team call signs? (2)

A

Sgt call sign 690A, B….until staging manager or IC assigns assault team 1, rescue task force 1 etc…

439
Q

Who gives a valley wide notification of a MACTAC incident?

A

Communications

440
Q

Who assessed and determines the need to request a MACTAC notification, alert, or activation?

A

The WC/ Area LT or higher.

Request minimal amount of resources and use adjoining area commands first.

441
Q

phase: mactac incident-

A

Onset of the incident

442
Q

Phase: mactac activation

A
As 
Cs 
deployment, 
planning, 
intelligence ** critical to outcome!**
443
Q

Phase: control phase

A
ICS 
Medical triage
Force pro
Neutralise devices
Rescue
Security
444
Q

Phase: investigative phase

A
Investigation
 Evidence gathering
Debrief
Deactivation
Grief counseling
Litigation
445
Q

Area of mactac incident, all blank and blank personnel will respond and (ACE)

A

Uniformed and non uniformed.
Assess
contain
end

446
Q

What are examples of a MACTAC incident?

A

Active Shooter
Hostage Siege
Terrorist Attack

447
Q

What are the “Basic” tactics?

A

Active Shooter
Officer Rescue
Force Protection

448
Q

What are the “Field” tactics?

A

Tactical movement formations and techniques (Individual, Team, Squad)

449
Q

MACTAC: Conduct BLANK inspections of your officers, equipment etc.

A

Weekly.

450
Q

What are the MACTAC basic tactics?

A

Active shooter
Officer rescue
Rescue task force

451
Q

What are the MACTAC objectives?

A
  1. Immediately switch from community policing/patrol to a rapid response in minutes, not hours.
  2. Effectively deal with simultaneous incidents
  3. Provide seamless coordination between all responding agencies
  4. Facilitate casualty treatment and evacuation
  5. TO SAVE LIVES
452
Q

What are the 4 phases of a MACTAC incident?

A

MACTAC incident, MACTAC activationControl phaseinvestigative phase

453
Q

According to the MACTAC manual, which phase is the most critical?

A

MACTAC activation

454
Q

According to the MACTAC manual, when arriving on a MACTAC incident, WHO conducts the 4 A’s?

A

The first arriving officer

455
Q

According to the MACTAC manual, who conducts the 4 C’s

A

As soon as possible, the area lieutenant or in their absence, the area sergeant

456
Q

What are the duties relating to a radio broadcast of a MACTAC notification/alert/activation?

A

NOTIFICATION - a MACTAC incident occurs or is occurring. WC/area Lt or higher initiates MACTAC protocols a valley wide notification is given for the MACTAC incident by communications
ALERT - “in the box” squads respond to their rally points and await orders/info.
ACTIVATION - “in the box” squads respond to their rally points, receives orders and respond as a team

457
Q

Upon arrival at a MACTAC staging area, who should call dispatch to get the brief?

A

It is recommended that either the sergeant or the second arriving person at the rally point makes the call to communications

458
Q

How often does MACTAC testing and evaluation normally occur for patrol squads assigned to “in the box” missions?

A

Yearly

459
Q

MACTAC mission:

A

Save lives
Domestic police force that can quickly adapt to small team leadership and embraces decentralized command and control -Moody

460
Q

MACTAC concept:

A

MACTAC is and acronym used when deadly force incidents occur simultaneously or concurrently or a terrorist attack involving improvised explosive device, high-powered weapons, hostage siege where the armed subjects have used deadly force or are preparing to use deadly force on others and is an ongoing dynamic incident

MACTAC INCIDENT - an extraordinary incident by law enforcement standard, unusual occurrences that exceed conventional law enforcement tactics and resources (active assailant, hostage siege, terrorist attack)

461
Q

If violation by LE is long term or covert who is notified directly?

A

The criminal investigations section supervisor

462
Q

Conduct Handbook: What is the purpose of a contact report?

A

A tool to articulate a positive or negative conversation to clearly identify what was ultimately discussed.

463
Q

Are LVMPD members Who witness alleged criminal acts entitled to 48 hours notice or a representative?

A

No

464
Q

Conduct Handbook: if an employee refuses to sign a contact, what should be done?

A

Have a 3rd party witness and write “refused to sign”.

465
Q

An employee has an ADA accommodation request, who should the supervisor contact?

A

The Health and Safety Manager.

466
Q

A customer service dispute is not an allegation that involves:

A

A violation of department policy or violation of law

467
Q

Impairment testing process does not apply when?

A

Criminal investigations

468
Q

Except for Veteran Status, how many days from the last discrimination/harassment claim be reported?

A

300 days.

469
Q

Conduct Handbook: If an employee refuses to sign the performance appraisal what should you do?

A

Call another supervisor to witness and mark the appraisal refused.

470
Q

2 types of sexual harassment.

A

Quid pro quo and hostile work environment.

471
Q

What are the protected classes? I

A

Federal: Race, Color, Religion, Sex, National Origin. Age and Disability individually. Veteran status.
NRS: Sexual Orientation.
Policy: Poltical affiliation. Sexual identification, genetic information, FMLA, Workers Comp.

472
Q

Offensive verbal or physical conduct due to RACE, COLOR, RELIGION, N. ORIGIN, SEX, AGE, or SEXUAL ORIENTATION frequent and or repetitively

A

Harassment

473
Q

Conduct Handbook: if an employee wants to actually change the appraisal and marks it so, what needs to be done?

A

The employee MUST complete a request for review form.
With in 15 days the 2nd chain will meet, if not resolved a written explaination will be given within 15 days.
An additional meeting may be held in 10 Callander days.

474
Q

IAB Is immediately notified of what complaints?

A

Major Violations, alcohol or drug abuse, or criminal acts (sgt notifies WC for criminal acts).

475
Q

For supervisor Testing supervisors may have representation but who conducts the investigation?

A

CIRT, CIRT will advise IAB of verifies positives

476
Q

A person who meets skill, experience, education, and other requirements and can perform with or with reasonable accommodations the essential functions of a job.

A

Qualified Individual

477
Q

What are the nine steps of supervisory intervention

A
  1. Review SOC
  2. Coordinate with IA and OLR to determine formal or informal.
  3. Contact complainant to ensure investigation is complete.
  4. Get approved by IS, OLR, and Captain.
  5. Meet with employee to verify allegations are true.
  6. Use Bureau Investigation Supervisory Intervention form.
  7. A) document on form
    B) counsel
    C)document session on contact.
    8) Complete form with summary and outcome.
    9) Forward form and contact to IA for review.
478
Q

If a subject employee waived their 48 hour right for investigation, who do they speak to and who must be present?

A

Supervisor of IAB, with an association rep or attorney. The waiver is either on tape or written.

479
Q

What will a supervisor do regarding complaint which violates policy or law?

A
  1. Open an SOC documenting the nature, witness allegations and the person making the complaint. When in doubt, do this! (Estimation)2. Explain the process to the complainant.
480
Q

Sexual Harassment must be: (2 Prong)

A

Sexual in nature and unwelcome.

481
Q

Conduct Handbook: What does the narrative of the performance appraisal address?

A

Objective assessment of the assignments knowledge skills and abilities and is based on Contact Reports from the time period.

482
Q

EIIP Reports will not be documented how?

A

On contact Reports.

483
Q

Diversity, to prevent harassment and discrimination, supervisors should do this: MRCSLR

A
Monitor the environment
Refrain from participation
Counsel employees on prohibited behavior 
Stop actions regardless of who they are
Limit contact between complainants
Report all complaints.
484
Q

An employee wants to file for a religious accommodation, a supervisor:

A

Notifies the director of EDS to begin the formal interactive process in a timely manner.

485
Q

Minor allegation investigation

A

Discipline ranging from a written reprimand to a suspension of less than 40 hours or disciplinary transfer