2020 questions review.

Question 1

A MACTAC _________ is a general notification for area commands that are not affected. Patrol squads do not need to respond to their rally point but should orient themselves in the event they are placed on alert or are activated. In any confirmed MACTAC incident, the Communications Bureau should broadcast a valley-wide MACTAC Notification, is the definition of?

Answer 1

Notification

Question 2

A report of a MACTAC incident occurring or potentially occurring. “In the Box” patrol squads may be placed on alert in preparation or as a reserve to Activated units. “In the Box” patrol squads placed on alert will respond to their rally point, prepare, and await further direction, is the definition of?

Answer 2

MACTAC Alert

Question 3

A confirmed MACTAC incident is occurring, and the affected area command will respond directly to the incident. The “In the Box” patrol squads who have been activated will respond to their rally point, receive the brief, gear up, and respond as directed (support team, assault team, security team, Rescue Task Force [RTF]). is the definition of?

Answer 3

MACTAC Activation

Question 4

Compliant with National Incident Management System (NIMS), a strike team is comprised of 4-5 officers brought together as a tactical response team, is the definition of?

Answer 4

strike team

Question 5

The _________ team will attempt to make sure all teams are not flanked or ambushed by any unforeseen threats as the support and assault teams attempt to neutralize the threat(s). is the definition of?

Answer 5

security team

Question 6

In MACTAC If one of the first arriving officers has taken IC, determine if a transfer of command needs to occur from the officer to the sergeant. This will be based on_____________.

Answer 6

the size, type, and complexity of the incident.

Question 7

Any use of force which results in injury or complaint of injury, complaint of continuing pain, or any use of force greater than low-level force , is the definition of?

Answer 7

reportable force

Question 8

This is the level of resistance in which the subject demonstrates the intent to harm the officer, others or themselves.

Examples include:

a. A subject taking a fighting stance, punching, kicking, striking, or attacking with weapons
b. Other actions which present an imminent threat of physical harm
c. A subject fleeing while in control of weapon (e.g., firearm in a waistband) .

Answer 8

Assaultive

Question 9

This is the level of control that balances against a subject who is assaultive and has the potential to cause injury or substantial pain ___________.

Answer 9

Intermediate Force

Question 10

Duty to Intervine:

The officer will promptly report these observations and the efforts made to intervene to a supervisor. If the supervisor is using unjustified force, the officer will report it to the next level of supervision. If the observing officer is a supervisor, they will issue a ______ ______ to stop the violation.

Answer 10

direct order

Question 11

DUTY TO INTERVENE:

Any officer present, regardless of rank, and observing another officer using force that is clearly beyond what is justified or objectively reasonable under the circumstances ______, when in a safe position to do so, intercede to prevent the use of unreasonable force.

Answer 11

will

Question 12

DUTY TO INTERVENE:

Reporting officer will document in writing no later than __ days after the occurrence:

Date, time, and location of the incident

Identity, if known, and description of the participants

Description of the actions taken as a result of the observation

Answer 12

10

Question 13

________ (Level of resistance)– the subject demonstrates the intent to harm the officer, others or themselves.

Answer 13

Assaultive

Examples include:

A. a subject taking a fighting stance, punching, kicking, striking, or attacking with weapons

B. Other actions which present an imminent threat of physical harm

C. A subject fleeing while in control of weapon (e.g., firearm in a waistband)

Question 14

_________ (Level of resistance)– the subject’s actions are likely to result in death or substantial bodily injury to the officer or others.

Answer 14

Life-Threatening

Examples include:

The imminent use of a firearm, blunt, or bladed weapon

Extreme physical force

Question 15

___________ (Level of control)– a level of control that balances against a subject who is assaultive and has the potential to cause injury or substantial pain.

Answer 15

Intermediate Force

Question 16

When are Officers legally authorized to use deadly force to effect an arrest when in compliance with Nevada Revised Statues (NRS) and the legal standards under Tennessee v. Garner (1985) to:

Answer 16

1. Protect themselves or others from what is reasonably believed to be an imminent threat of death or substantial bodily injury.
2. Prevent the escape of a fleeing felon who the officer has probable cause to believe has committed a violent felony crime and is an imminent threat to human life if escape should occur. (Also see NRS 171.1455.)

Officers will give a warning, if feasible, before the use of deadly force.

Question 17

In a protest or demonstration situation, OC spray may only be used when authorized by an ______ _______ in response to imminent threat of harm.

Answer 17

incident commander

Question 18

OC spray is not intended to force extraction from an _______area unless utilized in a detention facility.

Answer 18

enclosed

Question 19

reportable force is:

Answer 19

Any use of force which results in injury or complaint of injury, complaint of continuing pain, or any use of force greater than low-level force.

Question 20

The ECD disaproved use:

The ECD will be handled in the same manner as a firearm and will be secured before entering any detention facility except Clark County Detention Center (CCDC).

The intentional use of more than one (1) ECD simultaneously on the same subject is prohibited.

The ECD will not be used:

Answer 20

On a handcuffed person.

When the officer knows a subject has come in contact with flammable liquids or substances.

On a fleeing subject (without other known factors). Mere flight from an officer cannot be the sole justification for use of the ECD.

On persons with known heart conditions.

Question 21

________ – any contact with damage will be reported as a traffic incident on a Vehicle Incident Report (LVMPD 42). A Use of Force Report is not required.

Answer 21

Blocking

Question 22

When multiple officers have deployed rifles, the supervisor will designate one (1) deploying officer to complete the Rifle Deployment Report, listing ______ who deployed a rifle.

Answer 22

all officers

Question 23

A Use of Force Report is required by _______ officer who uses reportable force in an incident. A civilian employee who also uses force (empty hand, OC spray, or firearm) is required to complete a Use of Force Report.

Answer 23

each

Question 24

blocking -The positioning of a police vehicle in the path of an occupied subject vehicle where contact between the vehicles is anticipated to be minimal, and the potential for injuries is low. The intent of blocking is to prevent an avenue of escape by the ____ ______ of a police vehicle. Blocking is not a use of force.

Answer 24

safe placement

Question 25

INVESTIGATIVE RESPONSIBILITIES – Use of Non-Deadly Force

Document the investigation in a Citizen Contact (CC) in Blue Team when alleged use of force is determined to be ________.

Answer 25

unfounded

If the use of force is determined to not be appropriate, it will be sent through the chain of command to decide if a Statement of Complaint (SOC) is necessary

Question 26

A concentration of alcohol which indicates a .__ percent or above, at the time of a BAC test, is per se impairment and may be grounds for discipline.

Answer 26

.02

Question 27

The pursuit will consist of the primary unit and, when possible, a secondary unit and third unit. The primary unit may request the field supervisor to _____________ to join the pursuit, if necessary.

Answer 27

authorize additional units

Question 28

Supervisors will relinquish all position(s) to standard marked patrol unit(s) joining the pursuit to enable the supervisor to maintain _______and _______of continuing the pursuit or determining if it should be discontinued.

Answer 28

control and objectivity

Question 29

If an officer is involved in a motor vehicle collision during an emergency response or a pursuit, the officer will immediately discontinue involvement and take proper action as is required unless (3):

Answer 29

1. No unit is available to assume the pursuit or respond to the unit involved.
2. Damage to the unit is minor, and it can still be operated without danger.
3. There are no apparent injuries as a result of the accident.

Question 30

A pursuit will be conducted only for a violent felony or if the suspect presents a clear and immediate danger to the public. A pursuit will not be engaged for?

Answer 30

a property crime

minor traffic infraction.

or stolen vehicle

Question 31

Officers are prohibited from entering into pursuits that were initiated by another jurisdiction or law enforcement agency unless assigned to the pursuit by a supervisor. A supervisor may authorize officer(s) to drive in routine operation toward the area of the pursuit to be in a relatively good position to __________ and ________ once the pursuit vehicle is stopped.

Answer 31

render back up and other aid .

Question 32

When a CIT officer has been dispatched to an event, the ______ officer on the scene has the authority to direct police activities during the event unless relieved by a field supervisor.

Answer 32

senior CIT

Question 33

For CIT, the field supervisor will Ensure completion of, review, and approve the CIT After Action Report, LVMPD 367, by _______.

Answer 33

end of shift.

Question 34

Persons who are clearly in an intoxicated condition and unable to exercise care for themselves or others should, if circumstances permit, be allowed to go home in a cab or be taken home by a relative or friend. Only as a last resort should these persons be detained for _______ custody.

Answer 34

protective

Question 35

Nevada law allows for a person to be placed in Civil Protective Custody if the person is in a public place unlawfully under the influence of a controlled substance or alcohol and is unable to exercise care for his health or safety or the health or safety of ___________, per NRS 458.175 and NRS 458.270.

Answer 35

other persons.

If detention is necessary, these individuals may be delivered to Westcare - Civil Protective Custody and Detoxification Center,

Question 36

Under no circumstances should an officer assume that a person is “______” because they are incoherent or unconscious. Neither should an officer assume the liability for someone with an obvious health problem.

Answer 36

“just drunk”

Question 37

Department members must give thoughtful consideration to their actions to avoid damaging the ______ and ______ the department has with the community.

Answer 37

reputation and trust

Question 38

Department members are free to express themselves as private citizens in matters of public concern to the degree that their speech does not:

Answer 38

1. Impair working relationships of the department for which loyalty and confidentiality are important.
2. Impede the performance of duties.
3. Impair discipline and harmony among co-workers; or
4. Negatively impact or tend to negatively impact the department’s ability to serve the public.

Question 39

Supervisor Receiving or Initiating a Complaint will:

Interview the complainant to determine the facts and circumstances of the alleged misconduct. If the complaint is not an allegation that involves a violation of department policy or violation of law, handle the matter as a ________ (CC) dispute. If it does involve a violation of LVMPD policy or law, an _____ will be opened.

Answer 39

• customer service
• SOC

Question 40

Supervisor Receiving or Initiating a Complaint will:

If the complainant insists on making a complaint that may not equal misconduct in the supervisor’s estimation, an _____ will be completed and forwarded to IAB for review and conclusion.

Answer 40

SOC

Question 41

If the complaint only involves the complainant’s disagreement with an established and proper department policy, procedure, rule, regulation, law, or practice a supervisor conducting the inquiry will:

Answer 41

Document the discussion in Blue Team as a citizen contact (CC).

Question 42

EIIP thresholds are adjusted annually by the EIIP _______, if needed. Thresholds are based on data in IAPro and Blue Team. Changes to the EIIP thresholds are approved by the Internal Affairs Bureau Commander.

Answer 42

sergeant

Question 43

(EIIP ) First Line Supervisor will:

If no pattern or concern exists after face to face meeting, complete EIIP Alert in Blue Team and forward Alert to _______________ for approval within 14 calendar days of the chain receiving an EIIP Alert email notification.

Answer 43

second line supervisor

Question 44

First line supervisors will review their employees’ Blue Team dashboard on a monthly basis and respond to EIIP Alerts in Blue Team within ___ calendar days of the chain receiving an EIIP Alert email notification.

Answer 44

14 calendar days

Question 45

The EIIP ______ will establish the Significant Event Reporting (SER) threshold and adjust it as needed on a yearly basis.

Answer 45

sergeant

Question 46

Any supervisor, or person acting in a supervisor capacity, being notified of criminal or suspected criminal misconduct by an LVMPD employee shall immediately notify the ________ and __________ Section of the Internal Affairs Bureau (IAB).

Answer 46

watch commander (WC) and the Criminal Investigations (CIS)

Question 47

If an LVMPD employee is a victim of a felony crime or other crime of violence (e.g., domestic violence) notify, the __________ and _____________ supervisor.

Answer 47

watch commander(WC) and the Criminal Investigations Section(CIS) supervisor.

Question 48

421 Calls.

If the injured person is suffering from a potential life threatening injury or substantial head trauma, an __________________and __________will be taken to document the details of the event.

Answer 48

Incident Crime Report (sick or injured person) and photographs

Question 49

FIREARMS AT THE SCENE OF A DEAD BODY CALL

Only the firearm used in an incident (suicide, accidental shooting, etc.) will be impounded as evidence by a __________. All other firearms will be the responsibility of the _____________or _____________.

Answer 49

crime scene analyst

Deputy Coroner investigator or Public Administrator

Question 50

FIREARMS AT THE SCENE OF A DEAD BODY CALL

Patrol officers may impound other firearms for safekeeping when a ________ or safety exists. The justification will be documented and articulated in the narrative portion of the, Property Report.

Answer 50

threat to life

Question 51

COP/SARA method

Officers in patrol, Traffic and Detectives: Coordinate with the appropriate ____________to analyze problems and to determine responses.

Answer 51

COP officers

Question 52

DOMESTIC DOG ENCOUNTERS

A team tactic deployment utilizing multiple officers is the preferred method: ideally (4 memebers include):

Answer 52

1. a sergeant,
2. one officer with the catchpole,
3. one officer on a less lethal option, and
4. one on lethal coverage.

Officers will remain mindful that disengagement and/or tactical retreat are also options. Under no circumstances will a catchpole be used on a human being.

Question 53

As a Sgt. Responding to STAR protocol, what steps do I need to take (9):

Answer 53

1. Acknowledge STAR protocol
2. Respond to the call
3. Ask for another Sgt. or Lt. if I’m unable to respond
4. Be responsible for the tactics and supervision of the call
5. Determine use of: Arrest team, LL, Shot gun, rifle, (Shield, Air unit, K9, and SWAT)
6. Rifle deployment if allowed per policy
7. Call or direct an officer to contact Analytical Section (ANSEC) to get a complete work up
8. Maintain the STAR Protocol, unless the first arriving unit confirmed the incident no longer meets the criteria.
9. If protocol no longer met, the Supervisors will ensure units advise Communications of the reasoning and that Communications update event.

Question 54

Suzanne’s Law, entry into NCIC will be made under the following circumstances:

1. All juveniles, 17 years old and younger, will be entered into NCIC within ____ hours of receiving the required minimum data elements.
2. Missing persons 18 through 20 years old (even though legally considered adults) will also be immediately entered into NCIC in accordance with the federally mandated Suzanne’s Law within ___ hours of receiving the required minimum data elements.

Answer 54

two hours

Question 55

Adults may go missing for a variety of reasons. However, adults can only be entered into NCIC if they have (5 reasons):

Answer 55

1. a disability,
2. are in physical danger,
3. involuntary circumstances,
4. victim of a catastrophe, or
5. other suspicious circumstances.

Question 56

For missing persons, All juvenile reports will contain the ___ number from NCIC.

Answer 56

NIC

Question 57

For missing person, After initial entry with the minimum data elements, a report must be completed and any additional information obtained must be added to the _______ NCIC record in a timely manner.

Answer 57

existing

Question 58

For missing persons, If the juvenile is located, the report must still be completed and the NCIC record must be cancelled by contacting ______.

Answer 58

Records

Question 59

Copies of all reports are available to the Office of the _____ ______, who acts as the Nevada State Clearinghouse for missing children. However, at their direction, LVMPD reports will only be sent to the Office of the Attorney General when requested.

Answer 59

Attorney General

Question 60

If the missing person is located, advise the reporting party to cancel the report by contacting the Missing Persons Detail during normal business hours. After hours, cancellations will be made through the ________.

Answer 60

Records Bureau

Question 61

Entry by invitation by a person with standing, is the definition of __________.

Answer 61

consensual entry

Question 62

Agreement, approval, or permission to act. A person giving ______ must do so freely and voluntarily. A person consenting must be (4):

Answer 62

consent

(1) informed (tell the subject what is being searched for);
(2) not be coerced;
(3) have actual authority or apparent authority (“standing”); and
(4) have the ability to revoke consent at any time during the search.

Question 63

An exception to the search warrant requirement that must satisfy these conditions: (1) the officer must be in a position in which he has a legal right to be;

(2) the items must be immediately recognizable as contraband or evidence; and
(3) the seizure must be made without substantial addition intrusion. (Not to be confused with open view.)

Answer 63

plain view

Question 64

The three levels of police interaction for the purpose of criminal investigations are?

Answer 64

(1) consensual encounter, which is completely voluntary and for which a police officer needs no justification;
(2) the investigative detention or Terry stop, which is a seizure of no more than 60 minutes (NRS 171.123), with limited scope and purpose for conducting an investigation and for which a police officer must have reasonable suspicion the person being detained is committing, has committed, or is about to commit a crime, and;
(3) the arrest for which a police officer must have probable cause.

Question 65

Consent may be revoked at any time by the consenting party. (An officer must be within a reasonable distance so consent may be verbally revoked.) If anyone who is present and has standing objects to a search, a _________ must be obtained.

Answer 65

search warrant

Question 66

If the consent to search is in written form, it will be documented on the Consent to Search, (LVMPD 79 or 79a - ). The original form shall be scanned into _____.

Answer 66

OnBase

Question 67

For STRUCTURES/RESIDENCES, What are the exceptions to the Search Warrant Requirement ?

Answer 67

1. Consent Searches
2. Frisk for Weapons
3. Protective Sweep
4. Exigent Circumstances

Question 68

The supervisor will notify the __________of the request for a religious accommodation by a member in a timely manner to begin the formal interactive process.

Answer 68

EDS director

Question 69

Patrol Investigations (PD) will be notified on all crimes involving:

1. ________and _________-related crimes at a felony level
2. Suspicious _______
3. Any of the above-listed crimes which require _________ follow-up and the need for a ___________.

Answer 69

1. Property-related and Person-related crimes at a felony level to include
2. Suspicious deaths
3. Any of the above-listed crimes which require investigative follow-up and the need for a search warrant.

Question 70

PD notifications for property related crimes include (5):

Answer 70

1. Auto thefts requiring immediate follow-up
2. Residential/commercial burglaries over $50,000
3. Grand larceny over $75,000
4. Residential/commercial/vehicle burglaries as part of an identified series
5. Firearm-related crimes to include:
   
   1. Prohibited person in possession of a firearm
   2. Possession of a stolen firearm or obliterated serial number

Question 71

PD notifications for Person related crimes include (2):

Answer 71

1. Assault, battery, mayhem, attempt murder, robberies, and larceny from persons
2. Domestic related crimes at a felony level to include:
   
   1. Assault
   2. Battery
   3. Strangulation
   4. Harassment
   5. Stalking
   6. Violation of protective orders

Question 72

PD receives notifications for Suspicious deaths, but If (CSI), the coroner’s investigator, or (PD) assessed the scene and observed something suspicious, who should be notified?

Answer 72

Homicide

Question 73

Retail Apprehension Prevention Partnership (RAPP) Detail/Task Force will be notified, and will take primary responsibility for crimes when:

Answer 73

1. The object of a theft calls for national or international resources outside of normal tourist-related investigations
2. Theft is over $250,000 in value of a retail product(s)
3. Theft involves high profile/celebrated victims (not to include a standard residential burglary)
4. Theft with international nexus
5. Theft involves national or international treasures
6. Theft of a single type of retail item that would exceed normal personal use and likely to be resold
7. Theft involving a suspect in-custody with information on a fencing operation
8. Theft involving a suspect in-custody in possession of professional booster tools (e.g., Faraday bags or preprinted barcode stickers)
9. A series of three (3) or more events involving the same suspect(s), same or similar modus operandi involving thefts to commercial retailers during business hours that have an identifiable nexus to organized retail theft groups

Question 74

First arriving officers will protect the inner and outer perimeter of the crime scene with ________ crime scene tape.

Answer 74

YELLOW

Question 75

At all crime scenes that are a result of an OIS, in-custody death, or a use of deadly force incident, ______ crime scene tape will also be used to protect the inner perimeter. After the YELLOW crime scene tape has been placed around the scene, the responding _____ supervisor or designee will place RED tape around the inner scene.

Answer 75

RED

FIT

Question 76

Rifle Deployment:

Senior supervisor on-scene will:

Answer 76

Ensure officer(s) who deployed a rifle complete a Rifle Deployment Report via Blue Team. For multiple officers during a single incident, designate one (1) deploying officer to complete the report . List all officers who deployed a rifle as “involved officers” in the report.

Question 77

SHOW-UPS

In the event multiple suspects are detained at that same time, a show-up will only be conducted with one suspect at a time. The show-up should be done within a relative timeframe of ____ hours following the incident.

Answer 77

1-3

A show-up should be conducted at the location where the suspect is detained, within sixty (60) minutes of detainment, if not under arrest. See NRS 171.123.

Question 78

The Show-Up Witness Instruction form will be completed on all show-up’s involving ________ crimes regardless of identification oiutcome. The administrator will also seek and document a statement of confidence in the eyewitness’s own words.

Answer 78

Felony

Question 79

INVESTIGATION OF DEPARTMENT VEHICLE COLLISIONS

The Commissioned Supervisor will:

Ensure that a Check Ride Report, LVMPD 461, is completed on the involved member, and forward a copy to ____ and _____ for entry in the member’s UMLV training record.

Answer 79

VCB and AOST

Question 80

VEHICLE COLLISOINS/INCIDENTS

Supervisor’s Report of Department Vehicle Incident LVMPD 393, Investigator/Criteria are?

Answer 80

Question 81

VEHICLE COLLISOINS/INCIDENTS

Department Vehicle Incident Report LVMPD PD42 or PDO Investigator/Criteria are?

Answer 81

Question 82

VEHICLE COLLISOINS/INCIDENTS

State of Nevada Traffic Collision Report PDO/NHP 5 Investigator/Criteria are?

Answer 82

Question 83

FIT personnel will be responsible for collecting and securing the BWC from all involved and witness officers upon arrival at the scene. ____ or ____ is responsible for upload of video into Evidence.com.

Answer 83

FIT or CIRT

Question 84

Field supervisors are permitted to utilize the self-dispatch feature under what circumstances?

Answer 84

To close out pending non-response required calls without using the radio (i.e., a sergeant calls a person reporting (PR) and determines a 416B subject is gone. The sergeant can self-dispatch to update and close the call).

After contacting the PR and deeming the call can be canceled, or if the sergeant resolves the call.

Question 85

the supervisor is required to send an administrative message (preferred method) to the dispatcher or advise over the radio which event they have _________ to in addition to updating the call with the appropriate disposition and details.

Answer 85

self-dispatched

Question 86

Is the supervisor’s physical presence required to exercise control over afoot pursuit and the supporting resources? (e.g., K-9, Air Support, or additional officers).

Answer 86

The supervisor’s physical presence is not required to exercise control over the foot pursuit

Question 87

A supervisor will respond to a foot pursuit when the following occur (4).

Answer 87

1. Injury to an officer, citizen, or suspect;
2. Any entry into a residence or similar structure, regardless if it is occupied or not;
3. Any reportable force; or
4. Any other unusual occurrence that warrants supervisory oversight.

Note: Upon apprehension of the suspect, the supervisor should promptly respond to the termination point

Question 88

For non-emergency calls for service (CFS):

The Communications Bureau will dispatch shift units to routine calls (including report calls) up to __ minutes before the conclusion of their shift.

Answer 88

45

Note: Report calls will not be held for a cadet or patrol services representative unit when area units are clear and not responding to higher priority calls.

Question 89

When a call is canceled or held by direction of the area sergeant, the area sergeant will contact the PR and advise of the reason for _______or _______ and update the event accordingly via telephone call or radio broadcast.

Answer 89

cancellation or time delay

Question 90

Area sergeants will make calls to PRs to advise of delays or cancellations unless they are unavailable to do so due to:

Answer 90

1. being assigned to an event,
2. checked out for administrative duties, or
3. when they do not have access to an MDT.

Note: In these instances, the dispatcher will make the call at the sergeant’s request.

Question 91

This department maintains Explosive Detector Dogs (EDD) which aretrained to find the presence of explosive substances to include firearms and ammunition. The EDD can be used to search what places or things?(9)

Answer 91

1. offices,
2. casinos,
3. vehicles,
4. parking lots,
5. aircraft,
6. luggage,
7. packages,
8. schools and
9. locker rooms

Question 92

When responding to a bomb threat, unattended item, or suspicious item officers should conduct 25- and 100-ft. searches.

1. Upon arrival officers should do a visual search of 25-ft. around _______________ location;
2. After the initial 25-ft. search a 100-ft. search should be conducted;
3. If a new location is established for a Command Post the 25- and 100-ft. search shall be conducted again. The use of an ____ should be utilized if available.

Answer 92

their initial arrival

EDD

Question 93

When the incident commander (IC) or on-scene supervisor determines a suspicious object is a suspected explosive device, ______ will be called to coordinate the appropriate resources (Las Vegas Fire and Rescue Bomb Squad, Nellis AFB Explosive Ordinance Disposal team, etc.)

Answer 93

ARMOR

Question 94

Can EDD be use to sniff a suspected explosive device once a suspicious device was determined to be an explosive device?

Question 95

the EDD should be called to search the area for a second device. If a second device is located, ______ will coordinate the “render safe” operation of the second device with the appropriate resource. The EDD will then continue to search until no further devices are located.

Answer 95

ARMOR

Question 96

When the ranking field supervisor requests ARMOR, a responsible person from the establishment will be advised, by the field supervisor, of the potential for explosion and an evacuation of the premises will be initiated. At least ___ floors above and below the device should be evacuated in a high-rise building:

Answer 96

two

Question 97

Two command and control locations will be established when a device or suspected device is located. They are called?

Answer 97

1. The Tactical Operations Center (TOC) placed in the vicinity of the device determined suitable by ARMOR supervisor
2. The field command post (CP). operated and staffed, and a staging area established as for any unusual occurrence, by LVMPD personnel, who will be in charge of all field operations

Question 98

In any case where an explosion has occurred, there is always the chance for the presence of unexploded bombs or a second device left by the suspect. The ____ should be used to clear the crime scene prior to personnel entering and conducting investigations.

Answer 98

EDD

Question 99

Items of a documentary nature (e.g., forged or stolen checks, altered titles, or counterfeited papers) recovered by ______ _______ Bureau personnel, and video/audio recordings recovered by the _______ _________ Bureau, may be retained and secured in approved storage areas past the end of shift for examination/processing.

Answer 99

• Theft Crimes
• Digital Investigations

Question 100

The standard tool used for command, control, response coordination, and overall management of complex incidents, planned events, or emergencies. This system permits a clear point of command and can be expanded or contracted with ease, is the definition of?

Answer 100

Incident Command System (ICS)

Question 101

MAJOR INCIDENT AND ALL HAZARD PLAN.

Regardless of size or type of incident, the top three (3) priorities for establishing incident objectives are:

Answer 101

1. Life safety
2. Incident stabilization
3. Property preservation

Question 102

In a confirmed hostage situation, the SWAT commander or designee will be immediately notified by __________.

Answer 102

Communications

Question 103

Once the SWAT commander and team arrive at the scene, the SWAT commander (captain) or the SWAT tactical commander (SWAT lieutenant) will assume command of all tactical operations, _____ _______ control, and will coordinate all contact with the hostage taker through the Crisis Negotiation Team (CNT).

Answer 103

inner perimeter

Question 104

The patrol supervisor will also retain command of the incident command post (ICP), staging area, __________ perimeter, and other police operations.

Answer 104

secondary

Note: The mere presence of senior officers will not imply the assumption of command.

Question 105

Who notifies the following, for a confirmed hostage incident and advise the field supervisor when notifications have been made:

SWAT tactical commander

Other agencies, as applicable

Answer 105

Communications

Question 106

What are the supervisor’s responsbility for a hostage situation? (11 steps)

samer as barricade steps.

Answer 106

1. Upon arrival, assess the situation and take command by prioritizing and communicating objectives.
2. Reinforce the inner perimeter and establish a secondary perimeter based on the nature of the incident.
3. Direct units to stop any inbound foot or vehicle traffic.
4. Assign officers as an immediate-action team (designating roles such as verbal communication, low lethality options, hands on, etc.) to control the subject should the subject surrender, release the hostage, or exit the structure.
5. Evacuate or shelter-in-place bystanders and injured persons from the vicinity around the suspect’s location.
6. Designate an officer with strong verbal skills to make contact with the hostage taker to determine their intent and solicit information on the well-being of hostages. If contact is made with the subject, ensure officers remain in a tactically sound position, using effective cover and concealment. Efforts should be made to persuade the suspect to voluntarily surrender.
7. Prior to the arrival of SWAT/CNT, there will be no negotiations for the supply of weapons, ammunition, drugs, alcohol, or exchange of hostages.
8. Request a dedicated radio channel with a dispatcher, if required.
9. Communicate with and direct subsequent arriving supervisors to perform other tasks that require handling.
10. Any subsequent arriving supervisor will assess and determine where they are needed and establish communication with the first arriving supervisor to provide support. All supervisors on-scene have a responsibility in the command and control process.
11. Designate an officer to record names and addresses of persons and residences evacuated.

Question 107

As a supervisor for a CBRNE event i will? (6 steps)

Answer 107

1. Establish a command post (at a safe distance upwind from the scene).
2. Assign second or third unit arriving at the command post to check the immediate area for possible secondary devices. The officer(s) conducting the check should not touch suspicious objects. The locations that have been thoroughly checked should be marked so the explosive detector dogs or Bomb Squad can eliminate those not marked as threats.
3. Review established security perimeter and ensure that no personnel are deployed in a designated contaminated area without proper protective equipment.
4. Determine the need for an outer perimeter depending upon the circumstances of the incident.
5. Coordinate the evacuation of the area downwind of the spillage or suspected spillage, with the ARMOR section or fire department, in accordance with the Table of Isolation and Evacuation Distances found in the Hazardous Materials Guidebook. Department members will NOT conduct rescues without utilizing the proper protective equipment and being trained in its use.
6. Request Communications Bureau to make notifications.

Question 108

When a suspect is being arrested and there is an indication that the suspect has a previous conviction for domestic violence and is in possession of a firearm and/or ammunition the officer:

Answer 108

1. Verify the suspect has a prior conviction for domestic violence (to include offense and conviction, date, court, or event number).
2. Interview the suspect/witness to determine whether the relationship in the suspect’s prior conviction meets the federal definition in 18 USC 921(a)(33) (see Criminal Offense Handbook) to make an arrest.
   
   1. If there is no probable cause for the additional charge of a prohibited person in possession of a firearm under the federal definition, the firearm may be impounded for safekeeping.
3. If an arrest is made for a prohibited person in possession of a firearm, the officer will:
   
   1. Complete a Firearms Notification (LVMPD 181), and fax it to the local office of the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF) and LVMPD CCW Dispositions Detail.
   2. Impound the firearm and/or ammunition as evidence, and write on the impound form, “Evidence - Prohibited Person.” Write in the circumstances section of the impound form, “firearms impounded, prohibited person,” and explain the reason they are prohibited (i.e., “Previous conviction for domestic violence”).

Question 109

BDV:

If there are firearms present and an involved party has control over those firearms, an officer may impound the firearms for safekeeping if the officer has an articulable reason that a danger exists, and _____________or ____________.

Answer 109

the involved party agrees or gives consent.

Question 110

BDV:

For BDV events as a supervisor my responsabilities are?

Answer 110

1. In cases of mutual arrest, ensure that every attempt has been made to try and determine a primary physical aggressor and that probable cause exists for both arrests prior to giving approval for any mutual arrest.
2. In cases meeting the Family Justice Center (FJC) call-out criteria, immediately notify FJC detectives. Current criteria can be obtained through the Dispatch supervisor.
3. If parties involved are believed to be a pimp and prostitute, immediately notify the Vice Section.
4. In cases when a law enforcement employee of any agency is involved as a suspect or victim of domestic violence, immediately notify the watch commander (if unavailable, contact the Criminal Investigations Section supervisor) and the area lieutenant to respond.
5. Review all reports for accuracy and consistency, including jurisdiction, elements of the crime, and probable cause.

Question 111

Code 3 driving is a police tactic used in responding to an emergency. Good __________,__________ and ___________are important elements of a code 3 response that ensure officers are maximizing safety while minimizing risks.

Answer 111

1. judgment,
2. communication,
3. coordination

Question 112

As a supervisor my job is to monitor respective radio channels to ensure strict adherence to this policy and will ______or _____ code 3 responses, as warranted.

Answer 112

cancel or direct

Question 113

Releasing Property of an Arrestee to a Third Party:

If the arrested person requests that all or part of their personal property be released to a third party and the officer can safely accommodate the arrestee:

Answer 113

1. All property will be documented on a Property Report (LVMPD 67A) and the report will be completed and signed by the third party as directed.
2. The officer will request the presence of a supervisor for cash being released valuing over $100 or for non-cash property being released valuing over $250 (see LVMPD 5/210.01, Body Worn Cameras, “Activation”).
   
   1. The supervisor will sign the Property Report prior to the arrestee being transported to the appropriate correctional facility.

Question 114

DOMESTIC ABUSE AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES

Employee’s Immediate Supervisor will Address the employee’s behavior through:

Answer 114

1. Discipline; and/or
2. Counseling, training, or care programs.

Question 115

If the arrest does not meet all the necessary requirements, the charge(s) can be released by filing for NCF. Arrests will not be routinely NCF’d from the Las Vegas City Detention Center. NCF must be done within _____ hours of the time of arrest in the field (prior to the submission of the arrest information to the DA)

Answer 115

48

Note: otherwise the release must be coordinated directly with the DA (Screening Office 702-455-4721), as the authority to release is out of the control of LVMPD.

Question 116

Vehicles Without Prisoner Screens:

A police officer, in a standard sedan without a prisoner screen, transporting an individual prisoner will place the prisoner in the front passenger seat. In a two-officer unit, the prisoner will be placed in the rear seat behind the passenger’s position and the second officer behind the driver. A second prisoner would be placed in the _____seat.

Answer 116

front

Note: Individual officers will not transport more than one prisoner, nor a two-officer unit more than two prisoners without supervisory approval.

Question 117

When two prisoners are combative, officers may, at their discretion, _________the prisoners or ______them separately.

Answer 117

1. hobble
2. transport

Question 118

In the event of a prisoner escape, the transporting officer will notify _________\_and attempt to ________\_ the prisoner. The officer may request additional units to establish a perimeter and/or conduct a search, taking into consideration the original charge for which the prisoner was in custody and the level of threat to citizens in the area.

Answer 118

Communications and attempt to recapture