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Physiology Flashcards

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1
Q

Term for EE above resting rate post exercise?

A

EPOC/Excess post-exercise oxygen consumption

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2
Q

What is relative VO2max?

A

Total volume of oxygen consumed related to body weight (in kg)

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3
Q

Formula for calculating VO2max?

A

Relative VO2max = L/min x 1000 divided by body weight

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4
Q

Why is it important to measure EE?

A

Your diet revolves around the things you do everyday

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5
Q

Why is it good to eat a decent amount of carbs and protein post-workout?

A

Stimulates MPS, improves recovery and enhances the quality of the next workout

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6
Q

Minutes of aerobic activity recommended per week for 18-65 year olds?

A

150 mins moderate/75 mins vigorous/equivalent combinations of both

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7
Q

Formula for calculating respiratory exchange ratio?

A

RER = VCO2 produced divided by VO2 consumed

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8
Q

Oxygen (L/min) needed per min to satisfy resting energy requirements?

A

0.2-0.35 L/min

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9
Q

Formula for calculating METs?

A

METs x 3.5 x Body Weight (kg) divided by 200 = kcal/min

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10
Q

What is the equivalent of foodstuff + oxygen?

A

Water + CO2 + ATP + Heat

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11
Q

What units can energy be reported in?

A

Joule (J) & kilocalorie (kcal)

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12
Q

What are the main purposes of energy?

A

Growth, repair, digestion, and storage

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13
Q

What is the 1st law of thermodynamics?

A

Energy can be changed from one form to another, but it cannot be created or destroyed

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14
Q

What is 1kcal in Joules?

A

4186J

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15
Q

What is the ratio of CO2 expired to O2 consumed at the level of lungs?

A

The respiratory exchange ratio

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16
Q

What is the average total metabolic rate of an individual engaged in normal daily activities?

A

1800-3000kcal

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17
Q

What is direct calorimetry?

A

The measurement of heat production from an individual, in calories, when placed in an insulated chamber.

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18
Q

Where does direct calorimetry usually take place?

A

In a professional medical setting and on a treadmill.

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19
Q

How is the volume of oxygen consumed measured in direct calorimetry?

A

Measured through the exhaled air.

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20
Q

How is heat production measured in direct calorimetry?

A

The temperature of water (which travels through the room via pipes) is measured before and after the subject enters the room.

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21
Q

What are the limitations of direct calorimetry?

A
  • A small percentage of heat will be lost by friction
  • A small percentage of heat will still be stored in sweat molecules
  • The method wouldn’t be relevant to measuring EE of stop/start sports
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22
Q

What is indirect calorimetry?

A

The method by which measurements of the RER are used to estimate the EE.

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23
Q

What is the principle of indirect calorimetry?

A

Energy releasing reactions in the body depend upon oxygen utilised and carbon dioxide produced.

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24
Q

What is the assumption of indirect calorimetry?

A

Rate of oxygen and carbon dioxide exchanged in the lungs = Rate of usage and release by body tissues.

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25
Q

What is an example of indirect calorimetry?

A

Spirometry

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26
Q

What is closed circuit spirometry?

A
  1. ) Subject inhales via a face mask from a container full of oxygen.
  2. ) Exhaled air goes back to the container via soda lime, which absorbs CO2.
  3. ) This changes the volume of oxygen in the container and is recorded as volume of oxygen consumed.
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27
Q

Equipment for open circuit spirometry?

A
  • Treadmill
  • Low resistance 2 way valve
  • A nose clip
  • Low resistance falconia tubing
  • Douglas bag
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28
Q

What is meant to occur in open circuit spirometry?

A
  • Exhaled oxygen = decrease
  • CO2 = increase
  • Nitrogen = stays at a similar percentage compared to inhalation
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29
Q

Why isn’t all oxygen used up in spirometry or exercise?

A

Oxygen still provides for other bodily functions, such as the function of your organs, and cannot all be used for exercise

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30
Q

What is the oxygen consumption formula? Units?

A

Volume of oxygen in - Volume of oxygen out = Oxygen consumption (VO2) (L/min)

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31
Q

What is VO2? VCO2?

A 
VO2 = Oxygen consumption
VCO2 = Carbon dioxide output
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32
Q

Other terms/abbreviations for carbohydrates?

A
  • CHO

- Glucose

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33
Q

What factors influence energy expenditure?

A
  • Gender
  • Age
  • Body mass
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34
Q

What is ATP?

A
  • Adenosine Triphosphate

- Important to all life as it stores and releases energy for many cellular processes

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35
Q

What does a fixed amount of energy expenditure always produce?

A

A fixed amount of heat

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36
Q

Ways of measuring energy expenditure?

A
  • Amount of movement
  • Weight gain/loss
  • Calorimetry
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37
Q

Source of recommended activity guidelines? Year?

A

Gary O’Donovan, Journal of Sport Sciences, 2010

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38
Q

What RER suggests that fat is the predominant source fuel? Carbs?

A
  • Fat = 0.7

- Carbs = 1.0

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39
Q

What are the names of the key connective tissue in muscle?

A 
Epimysium
Perimysium
Fascicle
Endomysium
Muscle cell
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40
Q

What is epimysium?

A

The connective tissue around muscle

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41
Q

What is total muscle?

A

Groups of fascicles

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42
Q

What is perimysium?

A

The connective tissue around fascicles

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43
Q

What are fascicles?

A

Groups of muscle cells

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44
Q

What is endomysium?

A

The connective tissue around muscle cells

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45
Q

What are muscle cells?

A

The cells that make up muscle

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46
Q

Easy sentence to remember the structure of muscle?

A

Even Pulis Finds Emery Mad

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47
Q

3 key features of skeletal muscle?

A
  1. ) Movement of skeleton
  2. ) Under voluntary control
  3. ) Rapid and forceful contractions for short durations
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48
Q

What is a sarcomere?

A

The functional unit of striated muscle (the most basic unit that makes up our skeletal muscle).

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49
Q

How many different parts does the sarcomere have? Names?

A

5 parts:

  1. ) A Line
  2. ) H Line
  3. ) I Line
  4. ) M Line
  5. ) Z Disc
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50
Q

Easy sentence to remember the structure of a sarcomere?

A

I must have a zebra

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51
Q

What is the A Line in a sarcomere?

A

Thick filaments (myosin) length

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52
Q

What is the H Line in a sarcomere?

A

Thick filaments (myosin) but no thin filaments (actin)

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53
Q

What is the I Line in a sarcomere?

A

Thin filaments (actin) but no thick filaments (myosin)

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54
Q

What is the M Line in a sarcomere?

A

Supporting proteins holding the thick filaments (myosin) in place

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55
Q

What are Z Disc’s?

A

Defines the boundaries of an individual sarcomere

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56
Q

What are the 5 key ingredients required for muscle contraction?

A
  1. ) Action potential
  2. ) Calcium
  3. ) ATP
  4. ) Actin
  5. ) Myosin
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57
Q

First step of the sliding filament theory?

A

Action potential causes the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

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58
Q

Where is calcium stored?

A

In the sarcoplasmic reticulum

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59
Q

Chemical name/abbreviation for calcium?

A

Ca2+

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60
Q

Chemical name/abbreviation for inorganic phosphate?

A

Pi

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61
Q

What is troponin?

A

Protein in muscle fibres that help to regulate muscle contraction.

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62
Q

What is actin?

A

The thin filaments in a sarcomere

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63
Q

What is myosin?

A

The thick filaments in a sarcomere

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64
Q

4 key steps for initiating a contraction?

A
  1. ) A stimulus to the skin is received by a sensory receptor
  2. ) The action potential travels through sensory neurons to the CNS
  3. ) The CNS interprets the information and the most appropriate motor response is derived
  4. ) The motor action potential travels out from the CNS through motor neurons to the appropriate point
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65
Q

What are action potentials?

A

Nerve signals.

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66
Q

What is resting membrane potential?

A

The difference in sodium and potassium ions inside and outside a neuron (nerve cell) = -70mV (millivolts)

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67
Q

Chemical name/abbreviation for sodium?

A

Na+

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68
Q

Chemical name/abbreviation for potassium?

A

K+

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69
Q

Key parts of a neuron (nerve cell)?

A
  • Cell Body
  • Dendrites
  • Axon
  • Synaptic end bulb
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70
Q

How can you measure the voltage across a neuron (nerve cell)?

A

Using a voltmeter

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71
Q

What happens to a neuron (nerve cell) when a stimulus occurs?

A
  • Sodium (Na+) moves into the cell and Potassium moves out

- Inside of the cell becomes less negative

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72
Q

What is depolarization?

A

When the inside of a neuron (nerve cell) becomes less negative due to a stimulus

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73
Q

What happens when you get a depolarization greater than or equal to 15-20 mV?

A
  • Threshold occurs

- Action potential is generated

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74
Q

How is action potential generated?

A
  1. ) -70mV is the resting membrane potential
  2. ) If the stimulus is sufficient to cause a depolarization greater than or equal to 15-20 mV (e.g. membrane potential becomes -55mV to -50mV) threshold occurs
  3. ) Action potential is generated
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75
Q

How does depolarization occur?

A
  1. ) Voltage gated sodium channels open after a stimulus
  2. ) Rapid sodium entry into the neuron occurs, making the inside less negative
  3. ) Voltage gated potassium channels open
  4. ) Potassium leaves the neuron to the outside extra cellular fluid
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76
Q

What are voltage gated sodium/potassium/calcium channels?

A

Small compartments on the membrane of a neuron (nerve cell) which allow the movement of sodium/potassium/calcium in/out of the cell

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77
Q

What occurs after depolarization in a neuron (nerve cell)?

A
  1. ) Voltage gated potassium channels remain open after depolarization allowing additional potassium to leave the neuron (nerve cell) = hyperpolarization
  2. ) Eventually the channels close
  3. ) Less potassium leaves the cell
  4. ) Sodium is pumped out of the cell
  5. ) Cell returns to its resting membrane potential
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78
Q

What is hyperpolarization?

A

When additional potassium leaves a neuron (nerve cell) due to the voltage gated potassium channels remaining open after depolarization

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79
Q

Where does action potential move to and from along a nerve cell?

A

Axon hillock to the axon terminal

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80
Q

What is the term for the process of a substance being produced and discharged by a cell?

A

Secretion

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81
Q

What is the term for the process of action potential moving from one node of ranvier to the next?

A

Saltatory conduction

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82
Q

What separates each node of ranvier along a neuron (nerve cell)?

A

Myelin sheath

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83
Q

What is the myelin sheath?

A

A waxy substance secreted by the schwaan cell that separates the nodes of ranvier

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84
Q

What are the nodes of ranvier?

A

The regions of the cell where there is no myelin sheath

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85
Q

What is the schwaan cell?

A

A cell that secretes myelin sheath

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86
Q

How does action potential move along a neuron (nerve cell)?

A
  • Opening of the voltage gated sodium channels
  • Action potential develops as an electrical impulse
  • Action potential jumps from one node of ranvier to the next
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87
Q

Where does action potential specifically move to and from when moving from nerve to muscle?

A

From the cell body to the motor end plate

88
Q

Where does the nerve cell come into very close contact with the muscle cell?

A

Motor end plate

89
Q

What happens when action potential as an electrical impulse reaches the motor end plate?

A
  • Voltage gated calcium channels open

- Calcium moves into the cell

90
Q

What happens when calcium moves into the neuron (nerve cell)?

A
  1. ) Vesicles containing acetylcholine fuse with the end of the nerve cell
  2. ) Acetylcholine releases into the gap between the nerve cell and muscle
  3. ) Acetylcholine attaches to the surface of the muscle cell
91
Q

What happens when acetylcholine attaches to the surface of the muscle cell?

A
  1. ) Causes gates on muscle cell to open and sodium rushes in
  2. ) AP then passes through the muscle cell and calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
92
Q

What happens when AP passes through the muscle cell and calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A
  1. ) Causes a change in actin allowing binding to occur

2. ) Allows the sliding filament theory to occur thus leading to muscle contraction

93
Q

What is a neurotransmitter?

A

A group of chemical substances released by neurons to stimulate other neurons or muscle or gland cells

94
Q

How fast does action potential travel through a neuron (nerve cell)?

A

119m/s

95
Q

What is multiple sclerosis?

A
  • Autoimmune disease that attacks myelin sheath causing scarring
  • This results in the slowing/blocking of action potential
96
Q

What is demyelination?

A

Any condition that attacks myelin

97
Q

What is sclerosis?

A

When the myelin sheath is scarred

98
Q

What is a muscle biopsy?

A
  • A method of examining an individuals fibre types
    1. ) A small device plunged into muscle, removing a sample of it
    2. ) It is then frozen, sliced up, stained, and looked at under a microscope
    3. ) Type 1 appears black, type 2a = white, type 2x = grey
99
Q

What are type 1 muscle fibres?

A

Slow twitch muscle fibres

100
Q

What are type 2 muscle fibres?

A

Fast twitch muscle fibres

101
Q

What determines fibre type?

A

Fibre type depends upon the nerve (motor) that innervates the fibres

102
Q

What are the characteristics of type 1 fibres?

A
  • High oxidative capacity
  • Low glycolytic capacity
  • Slow contractile speed
  • High fatigue resistance
  • Low motor unit strength
103
Q

What are the characteristics of type 2 (x) fibres?

A
  • Low oxidative capacity
  • Highest glycolytic capacity
  • Fast contractile speed
  • Low fatigue resistance
  • High motor unit strength
104
Q

What is a motor unit?

A

Term to describe a group of muscle fibres controlled by a single nerve

105
Q

Which fibre type means that the motor nerve fires at a low frequency?

A

Slow twitch/type 1

106
Q

Which fibre type means that the motor nerve fires at a high frequency?

A

Fast twitch/type 2

107
Q

Why is power greater in type 2 muscle fibres for the same absolute force?

A
  1. ) Velocity is 5-6 times greater
  2. ) Fast form of myosin ATPase, therefore faster cross bridges are formed
  3. ) More developed SR, therefore greater storage of calcium and a faster release of it
108
Q

Formula for power?

A

Power = Force x Velocity

109
Q

What is myosin ATPase?

A

The enzyme that helps break down ATP in the myosin head

110
Q

What are enzymes?

A

Proteins that speeds up the rate of a chemical reaction in a living organisms

111
Q

Why is force 10-20% greater in type 2 fibres?

A
  1. ) Larger, therefore more myosin cross-bridges per unit CSA
  2. ) Motor nerve excite >300 fibres whereas type 1 = <300
112
Q

CSA?

A

Cross sectional area

113
Q

What does the level of force a muscle produces depend upon?

A
  1. ) Number and type of motor units recruited
  2. ) Firing frequency of each motor unit
  3. ) The size of muscle
  4. ) Speed and type of contraction
  5. ) Sarcomere length
114
Q

Why is there an optimal sarcomere length for force production? (Person and year?)

A

There is an optimal overlap between thick (myosin) and thin (actin) filaments. (Macintosh, 2006)

115
Q

When do we get maximum force?

A

When there is maximum cross-bridge formation being able to generate force

116
Q

When does maximal isometric force occur?

A

At zero velocity

117
Q

What happens as the velocity of concentric contraction increases?

A

Force generation decreases

118
Q

What is a reason for force generation decreasing as the velocity of contraction increases?

A

As the velocity is increasing, there is insufficient time for myosin and actin to form cross bridges during force

119
Q

What happens as the velocity of eccentric contraction increases?

A

Force generation increases

120
Q

What is a reason for force generation increasing as eccentric contraction increases?

A

Increased number of cross bridges attached to actin, increased actin/myosin interactions generating more force

121
Q

In what way are muscle fibres recruited?

A

During a physical task according to their size, in this order:

  1. ) Type 1/Slow twitch
  2. ) Type IIa
  3. ) Type IIx
122
Q

In what pattern does the blood flow through the heart?

A

Cycle of down, up, down, up

123
Q

How does deoxygenated blood travel DOWN the heart?

A
  1. ) Superior vena cava
  2. ) Right atrium
  3. ) Tricuspid valve
  4. ) Right ventricle
124
Q

How does deoxygenated blood travel UP the heart?

A
  1. ) Pulmonary semilunar valve

2. ) Pulmonary artery

125
Q

What does blood do after it travels through the left pulmonary artery?

A

Picks up oxygen from the lungs

126
Q

How does oxygenated blood travel DOWN the heart?

A
  1. ) Pulmonary vein
  2. ) Left atrium
  3. ) Mitral (biscupid) valve
  4. ) Left ventricle
127
Q

How does oxygenated blood travel UP the heart prior to around the body and before the cycle repeats itself?

A
  1. ) Aortic semi-lunar valve

2. ) Aorta

128
Q

What is the whole heart known as? What does it mean?

A

Myocardium:

  • Myo = muscle
  • Cardium = heart
129
Q

Which part of the myocardium divides the two ventricles?

A

Interventricular septum

130
Q

Cardiac structure? (outside to inside)

A
  1. ) Fibrous pericardium
  2. ) Pericardium
  3. ) Pericardial cavity
  4. ) Epicardium
  5. ) Myocardium
  6. ) Endocardium
  7. ) Heart chamber
131
Q

What is the role of the pericardial cavity?

A

To allow the expansion and contraction of the heart

132
Q

3 layers of the heart which classify as the ‘heart wall’?

A
  1. ) Epicardium
  2. ) Myocardium
  3. ) Endocardium
133
Q

How does blood travel AWAY from the heart?

A

Through the pulmonary artery

134
Q

How does blood travel TOWARDS the heart?

A

Through the pulmonary vein

135
Q

What is the biggest chamber of the heart?

A

Left ventricle

136
Q

When does the first heart sound occur?

A

When the atrioventricular valves close and the semilunar valves open

137
Q

When does the second heart sound occur?

A

When the semilunar valves close and the semilunar valves open

138
Q

What does systole mean?

A

Contraction of`

139
Q

When is the atria relaxed?

A

During the ventricular systole & diastole phase

140
Q

What does diastole mean?

A

Relaxation of

141
Q

What happens during phase 1 of the Wiggins diagram?

A

Rapid ventricular filling:

  • Mitral valve opens
  • Zero aortic blood flow
142
Q

What happens during phase 2 of the Wiggins diagram?

A

Rapid ventricular filling begins to slow down:

  • Mitral valve still open
  • Still zero aortic blood flow
143
Q

What happens during phase 3 of the Wiggins diagram?

A

Atrial systole occurs:

  • Still zero aortic blood flow
  • Ventricles are full of blood and pressure starts to build
144
Q

What happens during isovolumetric contraction? (Phase 4 of Wiggins diagram during ventricular systole)

A
  1. ) Mitral valve closes and ventricular pressure increases as its full of blood
  2. ) Aortic valve opens
145
Q

What happens during rapid ejection? (Phase 5 of Wiggins diagram during ventricular systole)

A

Blood flows out at a high pressure thus ventricular volume decreases and aortic blood flow increases

146
Q

Another term for aortic blood flow?

A

Ventricular outflow

147
Q

What happens during reduced ejection? (Phase 6 of Wiggins diagram during ventricular systole)

A
  • Blood is released at a reduced rate
  • Left ventricular pressure decreases
  • Aortic blood flow decreases
148
Q

What happens during isovolumetric relaxation? (Phase 7 of Wiggins diagram during ventricular systole) (Final phase)

A
  • Left ventricular pressure continues to decrease
  • Aortic blood flow returns to zero as the aortic valve closes
  • Ventricular volume plateaus
149
Q

2 key terms for intrinsic cardiac stimulation?

A
  1. ) Autorhythmic

2. ) Myogenic

150
Q

What does Autorhythmic refer to?

A

The heart maintains its own pulse rate.

  • External control dictates the change in pulse rate
  • Without external stimulus pulse rate would be 100bpm
151
Q

What does Myogenic refer to?

A

The heart acts as its own conduction system as the cardiac cells are able to conduct electrical stimulation, and activate the cardiac muscle cells in a particular pathway

152
Q

How is the heart Autorhythmic?

A
  1. ) The sinoatrial node, located at the top right atria stimulates the atria and makes it contract.
  2. ) It then sends a signal to the atrioventricular node, located between the aria and ventricles in the middle of the heart.
  3. ) The atrioventricular node then sends an electrical impulse around the ventricles initiating their contraction, sending blood through the body.
153
Q

2 types of extrinsic cardiac control?

A
  1. ) Parasympathetic

2. ) Sympathetic

154
Q

What is the role of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

The slowing of the heart, hyperpolarising autorhythmic fibres.

155
Q

What is the vagus nerve?

A

Part of the PNS.

Decreases heart rate and force of contraction.

156
Q

What does PNS mean?

A

Parasympathetic nervous system.

157
Q

What does SNS mean?

A

Sympathetic nervous system.

158
Q

What is the role of the sympathetic nervous system?

A

To increase HR and force of contraction due to a stress stimulus, through depolarising autorhythmic fibres.

159
Q

How does the SNS increase BPM?

A

Uses either:
The sympathetic cardiac nerve to act on the SA node or the AV node.
Through catecholamines.

160
Q

What are cathecholamines?

A

Adrenaline.

161
Q

What does ‘hyperpolarisation’ mean?

A

A less polarised state making it harder for a contraction to occur

162
Q

What does ‘depolarisation’ mean?

A

A more polarised state making it easier for a contraction to occur.

163
Q

What type of control is the heart under when your HR is BELOW 100bpm? Through what?

A

Under parasympathetic control through the vagus nerve

164
Q

What type of control is the heart under when you HR is OVER 100bpm? Through what?

A

Under sympathetic control through sympathetic fibres and cathecholamines

165
Q

What does ‘polarisation’ refer to?

A

The level of charge a nerve fibre has.

166
Q

What happens to nerves millivolts when depolarisation occurs?

A

The level of charge goes closer to zero from -70mv.

167
Q

What happens to nerves millivolts when repolarisation occurs?

A

The level of charge increases/decreases AWAY from zero.

168
Q

What happens to nerves millivolts when hyperpolarization occurs?

A

Decreasing level of charge.

169
Q

Hyperplasia?

A

An increase in the number of cells within a muscle associated with maturation.

170
Q

Statural/incremental growth?

A

Body mass increases in size and length.

171
Q

What is statural/incremental growth due to?

A

An increase in the length of bones.

172
Q

Where do the cells involving growth habituate?

A

Epiphyseal plate.

173
Q

When does growth stop?

A

When your epiphyseal plates fuse and create solid bone.

174
Q

3 types of growth?

A
  1. ) Statural/incremental growth.
  2. ) Hypertrophic growth.
  3. ) Reparative growth.
175
Q

Hypertrophic growth?

A

Body mass increases in response to functional demands.

176
Q

Reparative growth?

A

Structural maintenance of tissue and repair of damaged tissues.

177
Q

3 stages of growth & development?

A
  1. ) Infancy.
  2. ) Childhood.
  3. ) Adolescence.
178
Q

When does a very rapid rate of growth and improved neuromuscular co-ordination occur?

A

During infancy.

179
Q

How long does the infancy period last for?

A

1 year.

180
Q

When does a steady rate of growth and maturation with large increases in motor co-ordination occur?

A

Childhood.

181
Q

When is the childhood period?

A

Junior school years.

182
Q

When does the growth spurt and puberty phase occur?

A

During adolescence.

183
Q

Until around what age do boys and girls grow at a similar rate?

A

8.

184
Q

When does peak height velocity occur in girls?

A

8-12 years.

185
Q

When does peak height velocity occur for boys?

A

12-15 years.

186
Q

What factors regulate growth?

A

Hormones.

Environmental factors.

187
Q

What does the growth hormone affect the most?

A

Long bones.

188
Q

Which hormone tends to turn off the epiphyseal plates causing bones to fuse?

A

Oestrogen.

189
Q

Do men or women produce more oestrogen?

A

Women.

190
Q

What environmental factors up regulate GH, receptors and stimulate growth factors?

A

Moderate exercise.

Proper nutrition.

191
Q

What environmental factors can impair growth?

A

Excessive exercise.

Inadequate caloric intake.

192
Q

Maturation?

A

The timing and tempo of the biological system as it matures.

193
Q

What is the final period in the growth process leading to maturity?

A

Adolescence.

194
Q

When does adolescence begin?

A 
When you reach critical levels of:
Body fat.
Body mass.
Height.
Skeletal maturity.
195
Q

When does adolescence occur for girls on average? Boys?

A 
Girls = 10.5-13 years.
Boys = 12.5-15 years.
196
Q

What happens to girls the earlier the onset of adolescence?

A

Rate of growth is faster the earlier the onset of adolescence.

197
Q

What do female early maturers typically have?

A

Shorter legs.

Narrower shoulders.

198
Q

What is the typical growth (inches) for girls per year during adolescence?

A

3 inches per year.

199
Q

What do male early maturers typically have?

A

Muscular short legs.

Broader hips.

200
Q

What is the typical growth (inches) for boys per year during adolescence?

A

4 inches per year.

201
Q

What is considered a poor measure of “real” biological age?

A

Chronological age.

202
Q

Most exercise performance indices are related to growth and maturation factors such as…?

A

Muscle mass.
Height.
Heart size.
Etc.

203
Q

What types of body composition does maturation affect?

A

Fat tissue.
Bones.
Muscle.

204
Q

How does hypertrophy/hyperplasia affect fat tissue throughout maturation?

A 
Hypertrophy = Increase in fat cell size.
Hyperplasia = Increase in fat cell number.
205
Q

How does bone growth occur during maturation?

A

Deposition/increase of minerals.

Increasing number of cells.

206
Q

How does muscle growth occur during maturation?

A

Hypertrophy.

207
Q

Around what kg of fat free mass do boys/girls reach by adulthood?

A 
Boys = 65kg.
Girls = 45kg.
208
Q

Around what kg of fat mass do boys/girls reach by adulthood?

A 
Boys = 10kg.
Girls = 15kg.
209
Q

Around what fat % do boys/girls reach by adulthood?

A 
Boys = 15%.
Girls = 25%.
210
Q

What factors in children warrant special consideration in exercise testing and prescription?

A

Smaller stature.
Smaller body mass.
Immaturity of their physiologic systems.

211
Q

At the ages of 5, 7, 9 and 11, what excess % of energy will children need in order to walk at the same speed as an adult?

A 
5 = 37%
7 = 26%
9 = 19%
11 = 13%
212
Q

Gait dynamics?

A

The way you walk.

213
Q

Second step of the sliding filament theory?

A

Calcium binds to troponin, moves tropomyosin and reveals binding site on actin.

214
Q

Third step of the sliding filament theory?

A

Myosin attaches to actin via cross-bridge and power stroke occurs due to the release of inorganic phosphate.

215
Q

Myofibrillar ATPase?

A

Identifying fast and slow contracting muscle fibres.

216
Q

Cross-bridge cycling?

A

Bridges constantly being formed and broken during muscle contraction.

Sport & Exercise Science (33 decks)

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