Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Dr. Omar's Deck of Secret Knowledge > Pharm: Antiparasitics > Flashcards

Pharm: Antiparasitics Flashcards

1
Q

During treatment for malaria a patient begins to experience abdominal cramps, headache, vertigo, BOV and tinnitus. What drug was he most probably given?

A

Quinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When quinine cannot be given because of vomiting what stereoisomer can be given IV?

A

Quinidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What enzyme does pyrimethamine and cycoguanil block to stop plasmodium?

A

Protozoan Dihydrofolate Reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

This quinine derivative appears to disrupt the mitochondrial electron transport in Protozoa. It is a component of ___, used in ___.

A

Atovaquone, a component of malarone (along with proguanil), which is effective for chemoprophylaxis and treatment of falciparum malaria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The only anti-malarial drugs reliably effective against quinine-resistant chains

A

Artemisinins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Malarone is composed of which two drugs. Fansidar? Coartem?

A

Malarone is a fixed combination of proguanil with atovaquone.
Fansidar is a fixed combination of pyrimethamine and sulfadoxine.
Coartem is a combination of lumefantrine and artemether

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the luminal amebicides?

A

DIP

Dilozanide furoate
Iodoquinol
Paromomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the MOA of emetines?

A

Tissue amebicides which inhibit protein synthesis by blocking ribosomal movement along mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the mechanism of action of the DOC for Chagas’ disease?

A

Nifurtimox, inhibits trypanothione reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

An aminoglycoside used as a luminal amebicide

A

Paromomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MOA of pentamidine? Indications?

A

Unknown but may involve:

  1. Inhibition of glycolysis
  2. Interference with nucleic acid metabolism

Second line drug for toxoplasmosis (1st line is sulfa-pyridoxamine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

TMP-SMZ prophylaxis in AIDS is started when CD4 count falls below ____. It is prophylactic against:

A

200 cells/uL
PCP pneumonia
Toxoplasmosis
Isospora belli infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the mechanism of actions of drugs used for P vivax and P ovals infections?

A

Chloroquine heme accumulation AND

Primaquine free radical formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the mechanism of action the drugs used for uncomplicated infections with chloroquine resistant P. falciparum?

A

Quinine prevents DNA separation AND

Doxycyline binds to 30s ribosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Malarone?

A

Cygoguanil for dihydrofolate reductase inhibition
AND
Atovaquone disrupts mitochondrial electron transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the three tissue amoebicides?

A

Chloroquine, metronidazole/tinidazole, emetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Drug of choice for African sleeping sickness? MOA?

A

Melasoprol

Inhibits enzyme sulfhydryl groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the drug of choice for toxoplasma infection?

A

Pyrimethamine plus sulfadiazine with folinic acid if encephalitis long term trreatmet

19
Q

What is the MOA for the DOC for leishmaniasis?

A

Sodium stibogluconate, inhibition of glycolysis and nucleic acid metabolism.

20
Q

Name symptoms of cinchonism, a known adverse effect of quinines.

A 
GI distress
Vertigo
Headache
Blurred vision
Tinnitus
21
Q

At high doses what are the 2 important AE’s of chloroquine?

A

Auditory and renal dysfunction

22
Q

What are the prophylactic regimens in:

  1. Regions without falciparum resistance
  2. Regions with chloroquine-resistant falciparum
  3. Regions with MDR-falciparum
A
  1. Chloroquine
  2. Mefloquine
  3. Doxycycline / malarone
23
Q

What is the MOA of the DOC for Ascariasis?

A

Albendazole or Mebendazole: Inhibition of microtubule formation.

24
Q

Albendazole is the primary drug for:

A

Ascariasis
Hookworm
Pinworm
Whipworm

25
Q

Diethylcarbamazine is the drug of choice in infections caused by:

A

Wuchereria bancrofti
Brugia malayi
Loa loa (eye worm disease)

26
Q

Ivermectin is the drug of choice for:

A

Strongyloidiasis
Cutaneous larva migrans
Onchocerciasis

27
Q

This drug which stimulates nicotinic receptors at the neuromuscular junction is the drug of choice for infections caused by:

A

Pyrantel pamoate for hookworm and roundworm infections

28
Q

What is the DOC for all trematodes except Fasciola hepatica? What is it’s MOA?

A

Increase in membrane permeability causing marked contraction then paralysis.

29
Q

What is the only Cestoda that does not have Praziquantel as DOC?

A

Echinococcus granulosus uses Albendazole.

30
Q

What is the MOA of niclosamide?

A

Uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation and activating ATPases.

31
Q

Praziquantel is contraindicated in:

A

Ocular cysticercosis

32
Q

Organophosphate drug converted by the body to the dichlorvos, which acts on S. haematobium

A

Metrifonate

33
Q

This drug is effectively solely in S. mansoni infections causing paralysis of the worms.

A

Oxamniquine

34
Q

A patient was treated with DEC after being diagnosed with Brugia malayi. He began to experience rashes, fever, ocular damage, and lymphangitis. Why?

A

Reactions to proteins of dying filariae

35
Q

What is the MOA of the SOC for Onchocerca volvulus and Strongyloides stercoralis?

A

Intensifies GABA transmission in the worms. Resulting in paralysis.

36
Q

In contrast to the MOA of ivermectin how does Pyrantel pamoate cause paralysis of the worms?

A

Stimulates nicotinic receptors resulting in depolarization induced paralysis.

37
Q

What is the treatment for T. brucei that presents with winter bottom sign only and kerandel sign only?

A

Suramin

38
Q

What is the toxicity associated with mebendazole at high doses?

A

Agranulocytopenia and alopecia

39
Q

What should be avoided when taking niclosamide?

A

Ethanol for 24 to 48 hours

40
Q

What is the contraindication to pyrantel pamoate?

A

Hepatic dysfuncition?

41
Q

What intensifies GABA in nematodes?

A

Ivermectin

42
Q

Fever, dizziness, rashes, pruritus, tachycardia, hypotension, joint pain and muscle pain after DEC treatment?

A

Mazotti reaction

43
Q

What accumulates when Chloroquine acts on Plasmodium?

A

Heme

Dr. Omar's Deck of Secret Knowledge (57 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions