Pathology (cortex ones better) Flashcards

1
Q

what are autoimmune conditions characterised by

A

presence of autoantibodies

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2
Q

what autoantibody is present in rheumatoid arthritis

A

rheumatoid factor

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3
Q

what is rheumatoid arthritis

A

autoimmune disease, typically causing inflammation of the joints but can have many manifestations

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4
Q

what is seen histologically in aute RA

A

pannus formation- inflammatory granulation tissue

hyperplasic/ reactive synovium

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5
Q

what is seen in chronic RA

A

cartilage is destroyed by inflammatory process, loss of joint space= fibrosis, deformity

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6
Q

what autoantibodies are seen in SLE

A

ones directed at structural parts of DNA- 95% ANA+ve

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7
Q

what are inflammatory arthritides

A

inflammatory diseases that affect the joints and surrounding structures

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8
Q

what is seen acutely is histology of a inflammatory arthritides

A

oedema, fibrin, reactive features in synovial cells

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9
Q

what is seen chronically is histology of a inflammatory arthritides

A

lymphocytes and plasma cells

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10
Q

what autoantibody in scleroderma

A

anti centromere, antitelomere

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11
Q

what autoantibody in dermatositis

A

anti jo

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12
Q

what is uric acid and why can it reach high concentrations

A

the end product of purine synthesis. Adenine and guanine and purine based, anything that increases turnover of these is associated with a crystal arthropathy

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13
Q

what are the two types of crystal arthropathy

A

gout and psuedo gout

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14
Q

what causes gout

A

hyperuricaemia- either increased urate production (e.g. increased cell turnover- psoriasis, cancer or tumour lysis) or reduced excretion (drug side effect- thiazide diuretics)

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15
Q

what is the pathological manifestation of gout

A

precipitation of crystals (due to reduced solubility) usually in joints (due to lower temps) elicit inflammatory reaction

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16
Q

what are the clinical implications of gout

A
causes secondary degeneration changes in joint, 
deposition in soft tissue causes gouty trophy. 
renal diseases (stones and direct deposition in tubules and interstitium)
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17
Q

what is seen in cytology of gout

A

needle shaped crystals seen in cross polarised light

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18
Q

what is seen histologically in gout

A

amorphous eosinophillic debris and inflammation (giant cells).

NOT crystals as lost during tissue processing

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19
Q

what crystal causes pseudogout/ chrondrocalciosis

A

calcium phosphate (rhomboid shaped crystals)

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20
Q

what are features of pseudo gout

A

older patient, larger joint. usually asymptomatic but can cause range of joint pain

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21
Q

what is pagets disease

A

when there is an abnormailty of bone turnover- increased oestoclastic activity

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22
Q

what is the cause of pagets

A

unknown, genetic components, RANKL, viral infection

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23
Q

what are the three stages of pagets

A

osteolytic, mixed and burnt out

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24
Q

what is the net result of pagets

A

thick excess bone with abnormal reversal lines- mosaic pattern

pain- microfractures or nerve compression (bone expansile)

enlargement and abnormal shape

increased metabolism- heat, warm skin, AV shunt, high output cardiac failure

secondary malignancy (osteosarcoma)

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25
what is histologically in the initially phases of a fracture
haematoma (fibrin mesh), influx of inflammatory cells, cytokine release, recruitment of osteoprogenitor cells from periosteum and medulla cavity (repair cells)
26
what is seen histologically a week after a fracture
callous, organised haematoma, early recruitment and bone remodelling
27
what can cause delay healing of a fracture
poor blood supply poor nutrition too much movement too great a distance
28
what is a pathological fracture
when bone is not normal before fracture e.g. oestoperosis/ tumours (benign/ malignant)
29
what are cancers that commonly metastasise to bone
lung, kidney, breasts prostate
30
what does bone metastasis look like
most oestolytic- bone is resorbed and appears radiolucent prostate appears as osteosclerotic- areas of opacity (more dense)
31
what are myeoma/plasmacytoma
malignant proliferation of plasma cells, causes bony lesion
32
what is avascular necrosis
bone infarction, causes 10% of hip fractures
33
what causes avascular necrosis
trauma, alcohol main causes steroid injection, dysbarism, sickle cell diseases, infection
34
what does avascular necrosis look like histologically
wedge shaped area of discolouration, often subcortical creeping substitution (new bone grows over old dead bone)
35
what is osteoarthitis
a degenerative disease cause by mechanical injury due to abnormal load distribution, previous fracture or anatomical abnormality
36
what are the changes of osteoarthritis
damage to cartilage surfaces then later damage to the underlying bone
37
what is seen histologically in osteoarthitis
fibrillation, erosion/ eburnation (subchondral sclerosis), subchondral cyst formation (synovial fluid accumulation), osteophyte (disorganised bone formation limits joint movement), loss of joint space
38
what causes osteophytes
cortical bone thickens to cope with load, rapid bone remodelling= abnormal outgrowths
39
what is subchondral sclerosis a sign of
eburnation
40
describe karotyping
culture cells and then arrest during cell division- provides overview of chromosomal structure but will not detect small or subtle lesions
41
what is FISH useful for
to find known translocations- if signals move together then translocation
42
what does immunohistochemistry do
places a pigment on an antibody to target a protein to see whether it is present
43
describe ganglion cysts
lump peripheral and near a joint capsule or tendon sheath, common around the wrist degenerative change within connective tissue. not a true cyst no epithelial lining
44
what is seen histologically in in a ganglion cyst
space with myxoid material, secondary inflammatory changes
45
where are common places for superficial fibromatoses
dupuytrens, knuckle pads, plantar, penile (peyronie's)
46
what causes dupuytrens
idiopathic- associated with alcohol and anticonvulsants
47
what is deep fibromatoses
mesenteric or pelvic tumours desmoid tumours- deeper in viscera of body association with gardner's syndrome
48
what is pigmented villonodular synovitis
giant cell tumour that you get in large joints
49
where do you get giant cell tumours of tendon sheath
digits
50
describe angiolipoma
usually multiple and peripheral, vascular with fibrin thrombin, painful
51
what is a leiomyoma
smooth muscle tumour
52
what are the main proteins in smooth muscles
actin, desmin and caldesom
53
who gets cardiac phabdomyomas
kids
54
what are the forms of skeletal muscle malignant tumours
embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma (children), alveolar (young adults), pleomorphic (young adults)
55
do cartilage sarcomas affect the paediatric population
no
56
what is more worrying, a cartilage tumour in the extremities or central body
central more likely to be sarcoma
57
what is gardners syndrome
multiple bone lesions
58
what is characteristic of osteoid osteoma
nidus (focus of infection), associated with tenderness
59
what is an osteoma
benign tumour of the bone
60
who and where do you get osteosarcoma
usually paediatric age group, long bones
61
what is a pathology diagnostic sign of osteosarcoma
any malignant tumour that produces osteoid is oestosarcoma until proven otherwise
62
where do osteosarcomas metastasise to first
lung fields
63
who gets ewings sarcoma, what is it like
children and adolescents destructive, rapildy growing and highly malignant
64
what do the ewings family of tumours look like
small round blue cell tumours
65
what cancer is commonly missdiagnosed as sarcoma
carcinoma
66
what is nodular fascitis
reactive lesion, affects any age group, rapid growth, snall
67
what is seen histologically in nodular fascitis
chaotic appearance, haemorrhage, pseudocystic spaces, large atypical cells, frequent mitoses, normal mitoses
68
what is myositis ossificans
reactive lesion, small, preceeds trauma
69
what are rheumatoid nodules
common, elbow, reactive lesion