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NAVLE > Parsitology > Flashcards

Parsitology Flashcards

1
Q

Cutaneous larval migrans in humans is caused by what

A

Ancylostoma caninum

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2
Q

How does ancylostoma caninum (hookworms) affect dogs - how do you treat it

A

Causes anemia - use any antiparasitics except praziquntal

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3
Q

Describe ancyclostoma caninum on microscopy

A

Thin walls with 2-8 cells inside

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4
Q

What is the cause of visceral and larval migrans in humans

A

Toxocara canis or Cati - roundworms/ascarids

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5
Q

How are roundworms transmitted in both dogs and cats (toxocara canis and cati)

A

Dogs - transplacentally
Cats - transmammary

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6
Q

What is the scientific name for tapeworms

A

Echinococcus granulosus , diplydium caninum, or Taenia tanieformis

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7
Q

What is the causative agent of fatal hyatid cyst disease in humans

A

Echinococcus granulosa, tapeworm

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8
Q

How are animals usually infected with Taenia taeniformis tapeworms

A

Eating infected prey

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9
Q

How are animals normally infected with diplydium caninum tapeworm

A

Fleas are the intermediate hosts

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10
Q

How do you treat trichuris vulpis (whipworms)

A

Fenbendazole or milbenycin oxime

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11
Q

List 3 types of coccidia parasites

A

Eimeria, isospora, cryptosporidium

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12
Q

What does eimeria look like on microscopy - how do dogs become infected

A

Thin wall, 4 sporocysts - usually infected from eating rabbit feces

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13
Q

Which species are most affected by eimeria

A

Birds, reptiles and herbivores - dogs and cats usually non clinical and need no treatment

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14
Q

How do you treat coccidiosis caused by isospora

A

Sulfadimethoxine

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15
Q

How do you diagnose cryptosporidium

A

Look smaller than RBC on cytology - need an acid fast skin or IFA stain to find

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16
Q

How do humans usually became infected with cryptosporidium

A

Water contamination

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17
Q

How do you treat cryptosporidium

A

Clindamycin, tylosin, azithromycin - inhibit growth of bacteria, variable efficacy

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18
Q

How can you diagnose Giardia

A

Trophoroites in fecal smear , cysts in fecal float, IFA, giardia Elisa

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19
Q

How do you treat Giardia

A

Metronidazole or fenbendazole

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20
Q

How do you treat tritrichomonas foetus

A

Ronidazole

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21
Q

When do you normally see cases of tritrichomonas foetus

A

In kittens with unresponsive diarrhea

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22
Q

What is the best way to diagnose threadworms, or strongyloides stercolasis

A

Baermann fecal technique

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23
Q

What clinical signs do threadworms cause

A

Mucoid diarrhea and anemia in kittens and puppies

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24
Q

What type of parasite is gnasthostoma (what does it look like )

A

Nematode stomach worm - spire covered heads

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25
Q

What clinical signs do you see with gnathostoma stomach worms and why

A

Gastritis because the adults live in the stomach, animal often vomits them up

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26
Q

What is super important to note about gnathostoma stomach worms

A

Zoonotic from ingestion of undercooked fish causing gastritis and cutaneous or neural migrans in people

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27
Q

What is super important to note about gnathostoma stomach worms

A

Zoonotic from ingestion of undercooked fish causing gastritis and cutaneous or neural migrans in people

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28
Q

What is super important to note about gnathostoma stomach worms

A

Zoonotic from ingestion of undercooked fish causing gastritis and cutaneous or neural migrans in people

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29
Q

How do you treat gnathostoma stomach worms

A

Albendazole

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30
Q

How are patrallogimus kellicotti and capillaria aerophilia related

A

Both are lungworms in dogs

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31
Q

What is a common lungworm in cats

A

Aerostrongylus abstrusus

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32
Q

What is the host of paragonius kellocotti, the lung worm of dogs

A

Crawfish and snails

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33
Q

How do you normally treat lungworms in small animals

A

Fenbendazole

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34
Q

How do you normally treat lungworms in small animals

A

Fenbendazole

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35
Q

How do you treat toxoplasma Gondii

A

Clindamycin

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36
Q

Which species are affected by toxoplasma Gondii - what clinical signs will you see

A

Sheep, kittens, pigs, dogs - will see abortions, stillbirths, seizures, dyspnea, myositis

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37
Q

A knotts test tests for

A

Heart worm microfilaria

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38
Q

A knotts test tests for

A

Heart worm microfilaria

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39
Q

What are some major differences in heartworm for dogs vs cats

A

Cats usually have a lower adult worm burden, the larvae are more likely to might to ectopic locations, they are often microfilarie negative became on of only male occult infections and worms live a shorter amount of time compared to the dog

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40
Q

What are some major differences in heartworm for dogs vs cats

A

Cats usually have a lower adult worm burden, the larvae are more likely to might to ectopic locations, they are often microfilarie negative became on of only male occult infections and worms live a shorter amount of time compared to the dog

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41
Q

What does the heart worm antigen test detect

A

Adult female worms

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42
Q

How do you treat heartworm in cats and why

A

Use corticosteroids because immiticides can cause immobilization and death

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43
Q

How do you treat heartworm in cats and why

A

Use corticosteroids because immiticides can cause immobilization and death

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44
Q

What are the 3 aspects of treating heartworm in dogs

A

Immiticide (an adulticide), ivermectin to kill microfilaria, and strict activity rest to prevent pulmonary thromboembolism

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45
Q

What is dipetalonema recondite and why do we care

A

Parasite that looks like Diofilaris immitis- need to differentiate to figure out if you need to treat

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46
Q

What is most important to note about the raccoon roundworm bayliscarasis procynosis

A

Zoonotic and can cause larval migrans in the brain leading to CNS disease

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47
Q

What is most important to note about the raccoon roundworm bayliscarasis procynosis

A

Zoonotic and can cause larval migrans in the brain leading to CNS disease

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48
Q

How is leishmania transmitted

A

Sand flies

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49
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of cuterebra infections (botfies)

A

Eggs in the environment get on the animal I whose body heat causes the eggs to hatch - the larvae then migrate to subatareas locations where they make breathing pores in the skin, then eventually exit the skin

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50
Q

How do you remove cuterebra and why

A

Remove it in one piece because rupturing the larvae can cause anaphylaxis

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51
Q

Lesions associated with flea allergy dermatitis in dogs and cats are often found where

A

Caudal half of body - inguinal and caudal thigh

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52
Q

Eosinophilic plaques, dark brown specs in fur and genes like military dermatitis in cats can indicate

A

Flea zallergy dermatitis

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53
Q

Ctenocephalides felis is the

A

Cat flea

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54
Q

Differentiate between demodex canis in young animals versus in adults

A

In young animals, likely inherited defect that will go away on its own - in adults it is likely the animal is immune suppressed I treat with ivermectin and look for the underlying cause

55
Q

Differentiate between demodex canis in young animals versus in adults

A

In young animals, likely inherited defect that will go away on its own - in adults it is likely the animal is immune suppressed I treat with ivermectin and look for the underlying cause

56
Q

What is the only FDA approved treatment for demodex canis

A

Amitraz/mitiban

57
Q

What is the only FDA approved treatment for demodex canis

A

Amitraz/mitiban - dip that has to be done in hospital

58
Q

Where are you likely to see demodox canis lesions

A

Head, neck

59
Q

Where do you usually see lesions associated with scabies ascaris

A

Pinnae, ventral abdomen and thorax, limbs

60
Q

How do you treat scabies ascarais

A

Ivermectin, milbemycin, amitraz/mitaban

61
Q

Do you see diarrhea with haemonchus contortus

A

No

62
Q

What is considered the blood sucker of the abomasum

A

Haemonchus contortus

63
Q

How do you treat haemonchus contortus

A

Fenbendazole

64
Q

You find an elliptical shaped parasite with sharply curved poles and 2-8 blastomeres surrounded by a fluid filled cavity - what is it

A

Nematodirus

65
Q

Describe type I ostertagia in ruminants

A

Causes acute weight loss in naive cows in the winter and spring due to high egg courts and high numbers of L3 in contaminated pastures

66
Q

Describe type I ostertagia in ruminants

A

Causes acute weight loss in naive cows in the winter and spring due to high egg courts and high numbers of L3 in contaminated pastures

67
Q

Describe type 2 osteotagia - how is it different from type 1

A

Chronic weight loss and diarrhea in older cows in autumn and winter with low legs counts, will find thousandsof larvae in the abomasum ( only find a few with type I)

68
Q

What parasite causes a morraccon leather appearance of the abomasum

A

Ostertagia type 2

69
Q

How do you treat ostertagia

A

Ivermectin or Fenbendazole

70
Q

Which cause of coccidiosis affects ruminants and which affects carnivores

A

Ruminants - eimeria
Carnivores - isospera

71
Q

How do you treat coccidiosis caused by eimeria in calves les man a year old

A

Sulfa containing drugs like amprolium

72
Q

Monezia is what

A

Tapeworm - usually non pathogenic, rectangular Structure

73
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of strongyloides intestinal threadworm

A

Migrates to intestines by penetrating oral mucosa or skin, entering the bloodstream and traveling to heart and lungs where they are coughed up and reswallowed

74
Q

Which parasite causes anal pruritis and alopecia around the tail and anus in horses and needs to be diagnosed using scotch tape to look for eggs

A

Oxyuris equi - pinworm

75
Q

A foal presents with a suspected intestinal impaction causing colic, and is showing respiratory signs along with diarrhea and weight loss - what is your top differential

A

Parascaris equorum - equine roundworm/ascarid

76
Q

How does the equine roundworm (parascaros equorum) affect adult horses

A

Can cause immune mediated sensitivities

77
Q

Anoplocephala is what type of parasite - how do you treat

A

Equine tapeworm that with praziquantal or pyrantel

78
Q

What clinical signs can you see with equine tapeworm (anoplocephala)

A

GI disturbances, ulceration, anemia, unthriftiness, colic

79
Q

What parasite is transmitted to foals transmammary through milk, causing diarrhea

A

Strongyloides westi

80
Q

How do you prevent infection in foals with strongyloides westi

A

Treat mare prepartem with ivermectin - or give foals ivermectin / oxibendazole

81
Q

What parasite do you often see in horses housed near cattle - causes chronic gastritis and weight loss

A

Small stomach worm / hair worm - trichostrongulus axei

82
Q

You find yellowish eggs on the medial aspect of the forelimb cannon bones in a horse who appears otherwise normal - what is your top differential

A

Gasterophilus intestinalis

83
Q

Which parasite in equine attaches eggs to hair on the feet, where hey burrow into the skin and migrate to dorsum where the became L3 in the subcutaneous issue, causing nodules with breathing holes

A

Hypoderma Bovis or litineaum - will “hypo” ventilate without a breathing hole

84
Q

Which parasite in equine attaches eggs to hair on the feet, where hey burrow into the skin and migrate to dorsum where the became L3 in the subcutaneous issue, causing nodules with breathing holes

A

Hypoderma Bovis or litineaum - will “hypo” ventilate without a breathing hole

85
Q

Which parasite in equine attaches eggs to hair on the feet, where hey burrow into the skin and migrate to dorsum where the became L3 in the subcutaneous issue, causing nodules with breathing holes

A

Hypoderma Bovis or litineaum - will “hypo” ventilate without a breathing hole

86
Q

When and how do you treat for hypoderma Bovis in horses

A

Treat with ivermectin in the fall

87
Q

When and how do you treat for hypoderma Bovis in horses

A

Treat with ivermectin in the fall

88
Q

What is the scientific name for cattle grub, heel fly or warble fly

A

Hypoderma Bovis

89
Q

What is the vector for onchocercara cervicalis

A

Culicoides

90
Q

What is the difference between onchocecera and culicoides hypersensitivity

A

Onchocera - non seasonal , nonpruritic, causes dermatitis due to aberrant migration and death of microfilaria
Culcuides - seasonal, very pruritic, sweet itch, type I hypersensitivity caused by gnat saliva

91
Q

How do you treat onchocecera cervicalis

A

Ivermectin for microfilaria - no treatment for adults

92
Q

How do you treat sweet itch caused by culcoides hypersensitivity

A

Steroids -no topical shampoos

93
Q

What clinical signs are classic for onchocecera cervicalis

A

Ventral midline dermatitis (non pruritic), Diamond shaped bulls eye lesion on head, ocular lesions like uveitis or conjunctivitis

94
Q

What is your top differential in a horse housed near cattle with ventral midline dermatitis that is not pruritic

A

Ademotobin inntans - horn or face fly of cattle that reproduce in cattle feces

95
Q

What is the causative agent of summer sores in horses

A

Habronema muscae - also the stomach worm

96
Q

Which parasite would you find calcified larvae within granulomatous lesions on the eye, lower extremities and genitalia

A

Habronema muscae , stomach worm, summer sores in ruminants and horses

97
Q

What is the vector for summer sores (habronema mucsae)

A

Stomoxys calcitrans - house fly

98
Q

What is your diagnosis for a horse, with signs of gastritis and eosinophilia granulomas

A

Habronema muscae - summer sores, stomach worm in horses and ruminants

99
Q

You see severe pruritis around the head and ears with hyperkeratotic ear lesions in swine - what is your top differential

A

Sarcoptic mange caused by sarcoptes scabei

100
Q

You see severe pruritis around the head and ears with hyperkeratotic ear lesions in swine - what is your top differential

A

Sarcoptic mange caused by sarcoptes scabei

101
Q

What is the most important thing to remember with sarcoptic mange

A

It is zoonotic and reportable

102
Q

What is the vector for thelezia lacrymalis (equine eye worm)

A

Musca autumnalis

103
Q

Sheep keds have - legs and cause what clinical signs

A

6 legs - stained wool, pruritis , anemia

104
Q

How do ya diagnose dictyocaulus (horse lungworm)

A

Baermann fecal technique (both types)

105
Q

What is the difference between dictyocalcus arnfeldi and viviparous

A

The definitive host of arnfeldi is the donkey and involves L1 in the feces - viviparous is just the horse and involves ingestion of l3

106
Q

How do you treat dictyocalceus viviparous

A

Fenbendazole, ivermectin, levamisolet

107
Q

What is dictyocalceus filial and what clinical effect does it have

A

Goat lungworm (can also be mullerias or protostrongylus)- causes bronchitis in goats

108
Q

What do you do if you suspect a screwworm infection (cochliomya hominovorax)

A

Report-eradicated from the US by releasing a lot of sterile males

109
Q

What is hematopinus and which species are affected

A

Blood sucking lice that affects calves 2-7 months old causing anemia and secondary pneumonia

110
Q

Lice have - legs, sheep keds have _ and ticks have

A

Lice - 6 legs
Keds- 6 legs
Ticks - 8 legs

111
Q

The causative agent for African sleeping sickness in humans is - and transmitted by -

A

Trypanosoma brucei - transmitted by the tsetse fly

112
Q

What disease is caused by trypanosoma cruzi - describe it

A

Chagas disease - affects the nervous, cardiac and digestive system

113
Q

What disease is caused by trypanosoma cruzi - describe it

A

Chagas disease - affects the nervous, cardiac and digestive system

114
Q

What is the vector for Chagas’ disease caused by trypanosoma Cruzi

A

Reduvid beetle

115
Q

In pigs - which parasite causes milk spots in the liver and migrates trash the lungs causing thumps (coughing)

A

Ascaris suum - porcine roundworm

116
Q

How do you treat the porcine parasite

A

Fenbendazole

117
Q

If you find milk spots in the liver of a pig on slaughter (due to ascaris suum) - what do you have to do

A

Condemn meat

118
Q

Which parasite can cause mucohemorhagic diarrhea (large bowel) in pigs of all ages

A

Trichuris suis - whip worm

119
Q

How can you prevent whip worm infections in porcine

A

Give anthelmintics a week before farrowing and mar today pastures

120
Q

Tania solium (pork tapeworm) is - and can cause -

A

Zoonotic - causes cystericosis in humans if they eat undercooked pork (pigs actually get this parasite from infected human feces)

121
Q

Isospora suis causes what in pigs - what age do you see it and what is the morbidity/mortality like

A

Coccidiosis - most often affects piglets 1-3 weeks old (nursing and weaned pigs), has a high morbidity

122
Q

What other disease in swine looks very similar to coccidiosis caused by isospora causing watery diarrhea, I’ll thrift, failure to thrive and dehydration - how do you differentiate

A

Ecoli - can differentiate because isospor sis will not respond to antibiotics

123
Q

With what drug do you treat coccidiosis caused by isospora Suis and why

A

Amprolium - coccidiostat

124
Q

How is strongyloides ransomi ( porcine threadworm) transmitted - what clinical signs do you see

A

Transcolostrally - reside in intestines so can see anemia, diarrhea, emaciation and death

125
Q

How do pigs get infected with metastrongylus (porcine lungworm) - how do you prevent it

A

Earthworms are the intermediate hosts - keep away from soil infected with earthworms

126
Q

How can you prevent infection with stephanuris dentatus - the porcine kidney worm

A

Transmitted by earthworms so keep Off soil contaminated with earthworms

127
Q

Why should pigs be afraid of earthworms

A

Earthworms carry lungworm (metastrongylus) and kidney worm ( stephanurus dentatus)

128
Q

How do you diagnose stephanurus dentatus

A

Urinalysis - porcine kidney worm

129
Q

How do pigs became infected with trichenella suis

A

Eating garbage and ingesting encysted larvae in muscle

130
Q

Which species can be infected with trichenella suis

A

Most mammals - zoonotic and humans get it from eating undercooked pork

131
Q

Eosinophilia on a CSF top of a llama showing ataxia and hindlimb paresis that progresses to forelimbs confirms diagnosis of

A

P. Tenuis - meningeal worm

132
Q

A yang alpaca presents for difficulty breathing and nursing, cyanosis and lack of weight gain - what is your top differential and what do you do about it

A

Choanal atresia (blockage between the nasal and pharyngeal area) - euthanize, often have other organ deficits

133
Q

What is the most common cause of diarrhea in adult camels and how do you treat

A

Whipworms - treat with panacur / fenbendazole

NAVLE (18 decks)

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