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NAVLE > Medicine Stuff > Flashcards

Medicine Stuff Flashcards

1
Q

What is pathopneumonic for a liver shunt in cats

A

Bright orange irises, pytalism

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2
Q

What type of urinary stones are dogs with portosystemic shunts predisposed to

A

Urate stones

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3
Q

How do you treat portosystemic shunts and why

A

Diet change, lactulose (keeps ammonia in the excitable form), oral neomycin (kills urease producing bacteria to decrease ammonia)

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4
Q

What is the cause of erthyma migrans in humans

A

Lymes disease from ixodes ticks

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5
Q

What is the cause of canine granulocytic erlichiosis

A

E. Ewingii or anaplasma phagocytophilia - vector amblyomma

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6
Q

What is the causative agent of canine monocytosis erlichiosis

A

Evlichin canis, vector Ripicephalus

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7
Q

What are clinical signs of erlichiosis

A

Edema of limbs, petechia, oral vesicles, aqueous flare , increased alp, hypoalbuminemia

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8
Q

What is the causative agent of Rocky Mountain spotted fever and what’s the vector

A

Ricketsia rickettsia, vector is dermacentor

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9
Q

What clinical signs do you see with RMSF and why

A

Some as erlichiosis (fever, edema of limbs, oral vesiculations, aqueous flae and retinitis) - demacenter causes a vaults leading to those clinical signs

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10
Q

How do companion animals become infected with tularemia, what is the causative agent and vector

A

Close contact with rabbits (or rodents), tick vector - franciélla tulatenasis is the causative agent

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11
Q

How do companion animals become infected with tularemia, what is the causative agent and vector

A

Close contact with rabbits (or rodents), tick vector - franciélla tulatenasis is the causative agent

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12
Q

What is the most important thing to note about tularemia

A

Zoonotic - potent biological warfare (pneumonic, typhoidal, etc)

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13
Q

What clinical signs do you see in dogs with Tularemia

A

Dogs ave relatively resistant but can see anorexia, lymphadenopathy, oral ulceration

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14
Q

What is the vector of cytazoon felis

A

Dermacentor ticks

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15
Q

What clinical signs do you see with cytazuan felis - describe infection

A

Rapidly progressive, almost 100% fatal - dark red urine, icterus, fever, prolonged CRT, dic, anemia

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16
Q

You see ring shaped organisms in red blood cells and find shizonts in the liver, spleen, lymph nodes _ what is your top differential

A

Cytazoon felis

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17
Q

What does anaplasma marginale cause in cattle - how do you differentiate it from other diseases like bacillary hemoglobinuria or leptospirosis

A

Extravascular hemolysis without hemoglobinuria (those other diseases do have it)

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18
Q

What clinical signs can you see with anaplasma marginale infection in cattle

A

Weak, icteric, depressed, staring into space, pale

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19
Q

What clinical signs can you see with anaplasma marginale infection in cattle

A

Weak, icteric, depressed, staring into space, pale

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20
Q

How is Anaplasma transmitted

A

Ticks or blood vectors like shared needles

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21
Q

What is the vector for babesia - which species are affected

A

Rhipechephalus - dogs and horses are affected

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22
Q

What clinical signs do you see with babesia infection - how do you treat it

A

Anemia, thrombocytopenia due to RBC destruction - treat with imidocarb (an antiprotozoal agent)

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23
Q

What is the causative agent of heartwater disease and which species are affected

A

Erlichia ruminatum , vector amblyomma - see fatal encephalitis in sheep, goats and cattle

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24
Q

What is the causative agent of epizootic bovine abortion / California foothills

A

Ornithodoras cornicus (soft tick)

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25
Q

What signs can you see with epizootic foothill abortion

A

Aborted fetus with enlarged lymph nudes, spleen and destructive lesion to thymus

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26
Q

What is otobius megnini

A

A soft hick often found in the ears of cattle

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27
Q

What is otobius megnini

A

A soft hick often found in the ears of cattle

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28
Q

What is otobius megnini

A

A soft hick often found in the ears of cattle

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29
Q

What clinical signs do you usually see with blastomycosis

A

Think bells - bones, eyes, lungs, lymph nodes, skin - uveitis, cough, lymphadenopathy

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30
Q

Which fungal disease is common in Ohio, Mississippi, and Missouri River valley, mainly affecting dogs

A

Blastomycosis and histoplasmosis

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31
Q

On cytology, you find small intracellular yeast with small bodies, basophilic centers in mononuclear phagocytes - what is your top differential

A

Histoplasmosis

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32
Q

What clinical signs do you commonly see with histoplasmosis

A

Large bowel diarrhea - no staining, large volume, mucous, frank blood

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33
Q

Describe cryptococcus neoformans on cytology

A

Small yeast with a large capsule, narrow based budding

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34
Q

Describe cryptococcus neoformans on cytology

A

Small yeast with a large capsule, narrow based budding

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35
Q

Which fungus survives well in pigeon feces

A

CRyptococcus

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36
Q

What clinical signs do you see with cryptococus neoformans

A

Respiratory and ocular disease, Roman nose, facial swelling, lymphadenopathy

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37
Q

What clinical signs do you see with cryptococus neoformans

A

Respiratory and ocular disease, Roman nose, facial swelling, lymphadenopathy

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38
Q

How can you diagnose aspergillosis

A

On histopath, you would see branching fungal hyphae and then might see fungal plaques on rhinoscopy

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39
Q

In what breeds are you likely to see cases of aspergillosis

A

Doliocephalics - nasal aspergillosis
German sheperds- disseminated aspergillosis

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40
Q

How do you treat aspergillosis infection - what is me risk

A

Clotrimazole - risk of laryngeal edema

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41
Q

How do you treat aspergillosis infection - what is me risk

A

Clotrimazole - risk of laryngeal edema

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42
Q

How do coccidomycosis affect dogs versus cats

A

Cats - only causes skin lesions
Dogs - similar lesions to blasto (cough, lameness , draining lesions, pneumonia, lymphadenopathy)

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43
Q

How do you diagnose coccidiomycosis

A

Spherules - double walled structure with endophores

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44
Q

How do you treat coccidiomycosis- what is the exception

A

Antifungals - do not use ketconazole in cats became it will cause vomiting

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45
Q

Which antifungal should you not use in cats and why

A

Ketoconazole - will cause vomiting

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46
Q

Which fungal infection causes chronic nonhealing wounds and draining tracts, and can be zoonotic to pet owners

A

Sporothrichosis

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47
Q

How are cats infected with sporotrichosis

A

Found in soil, rose bushes

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48
Q

How are cats infected with sporotrichosis

A

Found in soil, rose bushes

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49
Q

With which type of kidney failure would you see anuria

A

Acute

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50
Q

What bloodwork abnormalities would you see with both acute and chronic renal failure

A

Hyperphosphatemia from impaired excretion and metabolic acidosis from low bicarbonate produced from kidneys

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51
Q

What type of diet should a dog with renal failure be given

A

One with low dietary protein and low in phosphorous

52
Q

What are options for treating renal failure - describe them

A

Sub Q fluids weekly, renal diet low in protein and phosphorous, oral phosphate binding agents to decrease absorption, potassium supplements if potassium gets low, calcium channel blocking agent to prevent hypercalceria 1 H2 receptor agonists to decrease gastric acid secretion

53
Q

What is the active form of vitamin D

A

Calcitriol

54
Q

That are 3 common sequence of renal failure

A

Loss of ability to make calcitriol which overproduces PTH leading to chronic weight loss, gastric ulcers due to hyper secretion of gastric fluid and secondary hyper parathyroidism

55
Q

How do you treat urethral incontinence

A

Phenylpronalamine

56
Q

Nephrotic syndrome occurs with -

A

Protein losing nephropathies like glomenonephritis or amyloidiosis

57
Q

Nephrotic syndrome occurs with -

A

Protein losing nephropathies like glomenonephritis or amyloidiosis

58
Q

What are 4 components of nephrotic syndrome

A

Proteinaria, hypercholesteremia, edema/ascites, hypoproteinemia

59
Q

What urinary stones are horses prone to getting and why

A

Calcium carbonate and calcium phosphate because equine urine has a lot of calcium - likely to form in alkaline urine

60
Q

When are you likely to see calcium carbonate urinary stones

A

Its the most common urinary stone in horses - can also see in grazing sheep in lush pastures because of the clover and alfalfa

61
Q

When are you most likely to see silica stones

A

Dehydrated animals or sheep and cattle grazing western range land

62
Q

Struvite stones are made of - and form in - urine

A

Calcium, magnesium and phosphate - forms in alkaline urine

63
Q

Struvite stones are made of - and form in - urine

A

Calcium, magnesium and phosphate - forms in alkaline urine

64
Q

When are you likely to see struvite stones (which species)

A

Feedlot the eating lots of grain

65
Q

Changing diets to prevent formation of Struvite stones has led to increased incidence of

A

Calcium oxalate stores because you’re feeding an acidifying diet

66
Q

Calcium oxalate is likely to form in- so you should treat with -

A

Acidic urine - treat with an alkalinizing diet

67
Q

What predisposes to cysteine stone formation _ how can you diagnose

A

Can not see cysteine stones on rads, use ultrasound - males are predisposed, due to a genetic defect in renal tales

68
Q

Which two urinary stores can you not see on radiographs

A

Cysteine and urate stones - I can’t C U

69
Q

Which two urinary stores can you not see on radiographs

A

Cysteine and urate stones - I can’t C U

70
Q

When are you likely to see urate stones

A

With portosustenic shunts and Dalmatians due to a defect in urate metabolism leading to urate buildup

71
Q

How do you treat urate stones and why

A

Allopurinol - inhibits xanthine oxidase

72
Q

How do you treat urate stones and why

A

Allopurinol - inhibits xanthine oxidase

73
Q

A fungal culture with a KOH prep definitively diagnoses what

A

Ringworm - dermatophytosis

74
Q

Leptospira is gram- and should be evaluated with - because-

A

Lepto is Gram negative - examine with dark field microscopy because it stains poorly

75
Q

How do you treat leptospirosis

A

Tetracycline - then vaccinate for correct serovar

76
Q

What are the lepto serovar for cattle? Swine?

A

Cattle - hardjo, swine and raccoons- Pomona

77
Q

What are the most common lepto serovars in dogs

A

Gripptophyso, Bratislava, Pomona - canicola also

78
Q

What is the lepto serovar for mice, rats and horses

A

Mice - gripptophysa, rats- icterrohemorrhagic , horses - bratslava

79
Q

Clostridial bacteria is gram

A

Positive

80
Q

What is the causative agent and disease progression of redwater

A

Clostridium hemolyticum - causes bacillary hemoglobinuria due to liver fluke migration causing anaerobic tact’s for closhidium to grow leading to acute hemolysis, port red wine urine and death

81
Q

What is the causative agent and disease progression of redwater

A

Clostridium hemolyticum - causes bacillary hemoglobinuria due to liver fluke migration causing anaerobic tact’s for closhidium to grow leading to acute hemolysis, port red wine urine and death

82
Q

What is the causative agent of malignant edema

A

Clostridium septicum, novyi, perfringens type A and sordelli

83
Q

Compare malignant edema caused by clostridium septicum and blackleg caused by clostridium chauvei

A

Both cause pitting Edema that infiltrates tissues, causing necrosis - blackleg causes crepitus and malignant edema does not

84
Q

What is the causative agent of bighead in Rams

A

Clostridium novyi type A

85
Q

Why does rigid paralysis occur with closhidium tetani infection

A

Binding of tetanus neurotoxin to inhibitory receptors, binds postsynaptic receptors

86
Q

What is the biggest difference between tetanus antitoxin and tetanus toxoid

A

Tetanus antitoxin has immediate protection, toxoid is protective after 14 days

87
Q

Why does flaccid paralysis occur with clostridium botulism infection

A

Toxin blocks acetylcholine release by binding presynaptic membranes (where as tetanus binds post synaptic)

88
Q

What is the difference between clostridium botulinum infection in foals versus adult horses

A

Foals - shaker foal syndrome, ingest the spore which grows in intestines
Adults - infected only if they ingest the preformed toxin

89
Q

What is your top differential for rights less than 7 days old with hemorrhagic and necrotic enteritis with both high morbidity and high mortality

A

Clostridium perfringens type C

90
Q

Clostridial endotoxemia in lambs 4-5 months old on rich feed is caused by

A

Closhidial perfringens type D

91
Q

What is your top differential in a foal with acute diarrhea and a pcv of over 65% (hemocpncentration)

A

Clostridial diarrhea caused by clostridial perfringens types A, B, and C

92
Q

Acute necrotizing hepatitis in foals 1-6 weeks old is caused by

A

Clostridium piliformis - tyzzers disease

93
Q

Acute necrotizing hepatitis in foals 1-6 weeks old is caused by

A

Clostridium piliformis - tyzzers disease

94
Q

What diagnostic findings would you see with tyzzers disease in foals

A

Hyperfibrinogenemia , hypoglycemia, increased liver enzymes, acidosis

95
Q

Randomly distributed foci of necrosis in the liver and long slender rods in hepatocytes indicate

A

Tyzzers disease caused by clostridium piliformis

96
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is theilers disease /serum hepatitis/ serum sickness

A

Type 3 - immune mediated

97
Q

What is a common cause of maxillary sinusitis in horses - which teeth are involved

A

Tooth root abscess- often involves the first molar tooth

98
Q

What is a common cause of maxillary sinusitis in horses - which teeth are involved

A

Tooth root abscess- often involves the first molar tooth

99
Q

How do you treat feline odontoclastic resorption lesions

A

Alendronate/biphosphate to inhibit demineralization of bone

100
Q

Why does FORL occur in cats

A

Diets high in vitamin D - low in calcium, phosphorous , magnesium and potassium

101
Q

What can cause teeth in dogs to look stained and brown

A

Tertiary dentin from aggressive chewing - prevents exposure of pup caving with rapid wear

102
Q

What are 3 goals of articular fracture healing

A

Rigid fixation, anatomic realignment and early return to function

103
Q

Describe hypertrophic osteopathy

A

Occurs distally first (tarsal bones) Pres progresses proximally to long bones - caused by thoracic masses

104
Q

Describe hypertrophic osteopathy

A

Occurs distally first (tarsal bones) Pres progresses proximally to long bones - caused by thoracic masses

105
Q

What condition affects the metaphysis of long bones causing a double physis line in young large breed dogs

A

Hypertrophic osteodystrophy

106
Q

What condition affects the metaphysis of long bones causing a double physis line in young large breed dogs

A

Hypertrophic osteodystrophy

107
Q

How do you treat hypertrophic osteodystrophy

A

Analgesia because it is very painful, bully resolves on its own

108
Q

Which antibiotic can cause enamel hypoplasia and teeth staining

A

Tetracyclines like doxycycline

109
Q

What does phenylbutazone, fluoroquinolones, clenbuterol, most sulfas and vancomycin all have in common

A

All are prohibited for use in food animals by the FDA

110
Q

Which antibiotic has the shortest withdrawl time in food animals

A

Ceftiofur / naxcel

111
Q

Most football illnesses in the US are caused by

A

Viruses (2/3)

112
Q

Most football illnesses in the US are caused by

A

Viruses (2/3)

113
Q

How does Staph aureus after people (food borne illness) - what usually happens

A

Causes abdominal cramps, vomiting, diarrhea, chills - mild illness with recovery in 2-3 days

114
Q

How do people normally became infected with campylobacter jejuni

A

Eating undercooked chicken (or raw milk) - usually see diarrhea

115
Q

How do people normally became infected with campylobacter jejuni

A

Eating undercooked chicken (or raw milk) - usually see diarrhea

116
Q

What is the causative agent of Guillian barre syndrome - describe it

A

Campylobacter jejuni - acute inflammatory polyneuropathy, autoimmune disease lefter certain GI and or respiratory diseases

117
Q

What is the enterohemorrhagic strain of E. Coli that produces shiga like toxins - how are people usually affected

A

0157: H7 - fecal contamination and raw ground beef, recently seen in spinach

118
Q

What clinical signs can you see in people infected with E. Coli 0157:H7 - how does it usually end up

A

Hemolytic uremic syndrome, severe acute hemorrhagic diarrhea, abdominal cramps - resolves in 5-10 dys but can cause renal injury in kids and old people

119
Q

Why should you not feed babies honey

A

Due to clostridial botulism spores - causing persistent constitution, change in cry due to muscle weakness, duspren and nervous system signs

120
Q

Listeria monocytogenes is pyscophilic - what does this mean and how does it apply to humans

A

Grows in low temperatures - means it can grow slowly refrigerator temperatures, can cause abortions or stillbirths in humans or CNS signs

121
Q

A person has acute abdominal pain, fever, and gastroenteritis after eating pork - what are your top 2 differentials

A

Top is yersinia enterecolita - second is trichonella spiralis but that causes a less severe abdominal pain

122
Q

Why is eradication of mycobacterium Bovis difficult

A

Wildlife act as a reservoir

123
Q

What can humans get from drinking raw unpasteurized milk

A

Mycobacterium Bovis (tuberculosis) mostly, then listeria, salmonella, mycobacterium, Brucella abortus

124
Q

Which primate disease can cause bacillary dysentery in humans

A

Shigella

125
Q

Vibrio cholera causes - in humans from eating -

A

GI signs after eating shellfish

NAVLE (19 decks)

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