Other Flashcards
The USDA regulates - while the FDA regulates _
USDA - meat and poultry products egg products but not eggs themselves
FDA - all other food, eggs themselves, sea food, etc
Tetracycline is a -
Broad spectrum antibiotic
How do you determine the value of assets on a balance sheet
Assets = liabilities + shareholder equity
What is the mechanism of action of Beta lactams
Inhibit cell wall synthesis leading to lysis of bacteria
What is a 2.5 % solution in mg/ml
25 mg/ml (multiply by 10)
Ivermectin is effective against what group of parasites
Nematodes
Can you use topical insecticides like frontline off label
No - it is illegal by the EPA
Who regulates topical insecticides like frontline
EPA
Who regulates oral a transdermal insecticides
FDA
What drug class is amlodipine in (also called norvasc)
Calcium channel blocking agent and vasodilator
How can you give amlodipine and what is it used for
Orally - used to treat systemic hypertension (a common cardiac med)
What should you monitor for if patient is on amlodipine
Hypotension and bradycardia
What drug class is enalapril in
Angiotensin converting enzyme (ace inhibitor)
What is the mechanism of action of enalapril
Blocks angiotensin 2 which causes vasodilation of glomerular efferent arterioles leading to decreased GFR
What are common indications for enalapril
Vasodilator - used in Chf Or to treat systemic supertension
What should you monitor a patient for when on enalapril
Hypotension, renal function , electrolytes
How can you give enalapril
Orally
What type of drug is furosemide /lasix and what is its mechanism of action
Loop diuretic - acts in the ascending loop of henle to inhibit reabsorption of sodium and chloride (and water follows sodium so it decreases total volume)
How can you give furosemide
Orally and IV
What are common indications for furosemide
CHF to reduce pulmonary edema and sometimes in oliguria or anuria cases
What should you monitor for when using furosemide
Fluid/electrolyte changes, azotemia , monitor hydration stats and bloodwork values too
What should you advise owners of when their pet is on furosemide
They will urinate more often so make sure they have access to sesh water at all times
What type of drug class is lidocaine
Antiarrhythmic - non cardiac related use as local anesthetic
What is the mechanism of action of lidocaine
Binds to and inhibits voltage gated sodium channels
How can you give lidocaine
IV or regional infusion
What are indications for lidocaine
Ventricular tachyarrhythmias or to help with analgesia
What should you monitor for when using lidocaine
Be cautious in hepatic disease and has decreased efficacy if patient is hypokalemic
What drug class is pimobendan in
Inotropic drug that causes vasodilation
How can you give pimobendan
Orally
What are common indications for using pinobendan
Adjunct therapy for CHF, chf secondary to DCM or Chf due to mitral valve disease
What is important to note when using pinobendan
Not FDA approved for use in cats contraindicated in HCM cases and use cautiously with arrythmias
What drug class is spironolactone
Aldosterone competitive antagonist
What is the MOA of spironolactore
Competitively inhibits aldosterone at the level of the distal renal tubules
What are common indications of spironolactone
Diuretic agent used in CHF, some renal conditions like neuphrotic syndrome
What is important to note when using spironolactone
Weak diuretic so often used with more potent diuretics - potassium sparing so monitor or hyper kalemiq
What could happen if patient is hyperkalemic
An cause life threatening heart arrhythmias, muscle weakness or paralysis
What is the function of aldosterone
Contributes to sodium and water reabsorption, and potassium secretion
What is the function of aldosterone
Contributes to sodium and water reabsorption, and potassium secretion
What is the MOA of pinobendan
Calcium sensitizer, inotropic (affecting force of heart contractions) increase heart contractility
Define ptosis
Drooping of the upper eyelid
Define mydriasis
Dilated pupils
Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell? How do you test it
Cranial nerve 1 - olfactory nerve , watch patient sniff room or a noxious substance
What’s the function of the optic nerve and which CN is it
Carries visual signals from retina to occipital lobe of brain - cranial nerve 2
How can you test the function of CN 2 - the optic nerve
Drop a cotton ball and watch patient follow it, check for menace response (visual cue portion), or check pupillary light response (plr) for visual cue also
Testing PLR tests the function of which cranial nerves
2 - for visual cue
3 - for pupil constriction
What is CN 3 and what is its function
Oculomotor nerve - Provides motor to most of the extra ocular muscles and causes pupil constriction
how can you test the function of the oculomotor nerve (cn 3)
Observe for physiologic nystagmus when turning the head or observe for pupillary constriction with a pale
What is physiologic nystagmus
Normal dog where nystagmus is induced by turning head side to side - involuntary rhythmic oscillation of the eyes
Describe the fast phase of nystagmus vs the slow phase
Fast phase - always away from the lesion
Slow phase - always towards the lesion
What cranial nerves are involved when inducing physiologic nystagmus
3,4, 6, 8
What is cranial nerve 4 and what is its function
Trochlear nerve - provides motor function to dorsal oblique extracts muscles and rolls globe medially
How can you test the function of cranial nerve 4 - the trochlear nerve
Watch for dorso lateral rotation of the pupil
What is cranial nerve 5 and its branches
Trigeminal nerve - maxillary , mandibular and opthalmic branches
What is the function of the trigeminal nerve - cranial nerve 5
Motor - muscles of mastication (masseter and temporal)
Sensory - eyelids , Cornea, tongue, nasal mucosa and mouth
How can you test the function of trigeminal nerve or CN 5
Palpate masseter muscles for atrophy, check jaw tone, touch globe and look for retraction, palpebral response (blinking when touching the medial canthus) / pinch lip and observe snarl response
The touching of the globe tests which cranial nerves
5 for sensory, 6 for retraction
Which cranial nerve provides motor function to the lateral rectus extraocular muscle and retractor bulbi muscle
Cranal nerve 6 - abducens muscle
How do you test the function of cranial nerve 6 - the abducens muscle
Touch globe and observe for retraction, observe for medial strabismus, observe for physiologic nystagmus when turning head
What is strabismus
MIsdirection of the eye -either inward towards nose Or away from nose
What is the function of CN 7 - the facial nerve
Motor - muscles of facial expression (eyelids, ears, lips)
Sensory- medial pinna
Taste - rostral tongue and parasympathetic innervation to lacrimal glands and salivary glands
How do you test function of the facial nerve (CN5)
Menace response for blink response, palpebral response , observe for facial paralysis, deviation of nose to one side ,droopy lips, schirmer tear test , ear flick in response to stimulation of medial pinna
What cranial nerves does the menace response test for
2 - visual cue
7 -blink response
What cranial nerves does the palpebral response test for
5-sensory
7 - facial nerve
What is CN 8 and what is its function
Vestibulocochlear nerve - provides sensory input for hearing and head position
How do you test for function of CN 8- vestibulocochlear nerve
Hearing assessment , observe for head tilt, abnormal nystagmus, presence of normal physiologic nystagmus
What is cranial nerve 9
Glossopharyngeal nerve
What is the function of CN 9 - glossopharyngeal nerve
Motor and sensory innovation to pharynx for swallowing (along with CN 10), innervates some salivary glands, provides taste innervation from caudal tongue
How do you test the function of CN 10
Elicit a gag reflex ,observe for dysphagia
Describe the function of CN 10 - the vagus nerve
Innervates the larynx , esophagus and pharynx - provides parasympathetic innervation to the heart and viscera
How can you test the function of cn 10 - vagus nerve
Elicit gag reflex, observe for laryngeal paralysis and assess for megaesophagus and regurgitation
What is cranial nerve 11 and what is its function
Spinal accessory nerve - innovates cranial cervical muscles
What is cranial nerve 12 and what is its function
Hypoglossal nerve - provides motor to tongue
How do you test the function of CN 12 - the hypoglossal nerve
Observe tongue movement and symmetry for problems drinking and prehending food
What is chrondro dysplasia
Genetic, short legs - faulty development of cartilage and bone growth in the ossification centers of bones
What will you see histologically with pyrrolizidine alkaloid toxicity
Negalocutosis, fibrosis and bile duct hyperplasia
What causes pyrrolizidine alkalosis and what does it ultimately lead to
Plant species - ragwort, rathe weed, yellow tar weed
Ultimately leads to hepatic failure
What is megalocytosis
Enlargement of liver cells often due to toxins
Describe clinical signs you might see in a llama infected with P. Tenuis (meningeal worm) and their progression
Near signs - hypermedia, ataxia, stiffness, muscle weakness, posterior paresis, arching neck and circling I dully starts in hind limbs and progresses to front limbs
Eosinophilia in CSF fluid indicates what
Parasitic infection
How is propylene glycol given
Orally - not IV
What is monensin
Commonly used coccidiostat used in feedstuff of cattle - an ionophone that is very toxic to horses
Define a rhabdomyosarcoma
Tumor derived from striated muscle (skeletal muscle)
Describe pds or polydioxionne suture simply
Monofilament, absorbable - good for things like the bladder
What is one benefit of pds suture over catgut
PDS lasts longer
What do pt and PTT stand for
Pt - prothrombin time
PTT - partial thromboplastin time
Define urohydro propulsion
Expulsion of cystic calculi when animal under anesthesia sing manual pressure on the bladder to expel store through the urethra
Define oliguric renal failure
Reduced urine output due to renal failure
What makes up the tetralogy of fallot
Overriding aorta, ventricular septal defect , pulmonic stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy
What is the human health concern tor HPAI
If it were to acquire the gene needed to attach to human respiratory mucosa
What is the acid fast stain mostly used for
To identify acid fast organisms like mycobacteria or nocardia
What type of toxicity turns blood a bright red
Cyanide toxicity
What is the difference between an open and closed reduction
Open - fracture fragments surgically repaired and repositioned
Closed - fragments repositioned externally without surgically exposing the bone
Define arthroplasty
Surgery to restore unction of a joint - either by replacing, realigning or remodeling
Define ectopic cilia
Abnormal hair growing out of the conjunctiva
Define distichia
Extra eyelashes grow from an abnormal part of the eyelid
Define entropion
When the eyelid turns inward toward eye cursing eyelashes to tub against the eye
What could cause decreased corneal protection, leading to corneal ulcers
Decreased tear production (kcs/ dry eye), decreased tear quality (exposure keratitis), decreased blink reflex (CN 5 or 7 deficit)
Define lagopthalomus
Inability to fully close eyelids
What cranial nerve delicious could cause a decreased blink reflex
Cranial nerve 5 or 7
What are general causes of superficial corneal ulceration in dogs
Traumatic or decreased corneal protection
What 3 structures make up the uvea
Iris, ciliary body, choroid
Which part of the eye is extremely vascular
Uvea - iris, ciliary body and choroid
What is inflammed in anterior uveitis
Iris and ciliary body
What is inflamed in posterior uveitis
Choroid - also called choritis
What are common clinical signs of uveitis
Photophobia, red eye due to conjunctival hyperemia, epiphora, seromucoid discharge , blephospasm , 3rd eyelid elevation
Define epiphora
Excess watering of the eye
What sign on your ophthalmic exam is pathopneumonic for anterior uveitis
Aqueous flare
What signs might you find on your diagnostic ophthalmic exam that indicate aqueous flare
Biotic pupil, corneal edema, keratin precipitates, hypopyon, fibrin, ocular hypotension, synechia, cataract, superfigmentation or iridil thickening
What signs might you find on your diagnostic ophthalmic exam that indicate aqueous flare
Biotic pupil, corneal edema, keratin precipitates, hypopyon, fibrin, ocular hypotension, synechia, cataract, superfigmentation or iridil thickening
What is hypopyon
Milky white appearance at bottom of eye with episcleral injection
Define synechiae
Abnormal adhesions between iris and Cornea
How can you differentiate between uveal cyst and a uveal melanoma
Uveal cysts are free floating, uveal melanomas are attached
What enzyme is produced by the pancreas, found in saliva and hydrolyzes starches
Amylase
What should you treat yourself with it you stab yourself accidentally with the RB51 strain
Doxycline and tmp - vitamin is no longer used because RB51 is resistant
What on a microscopic slide would be highly suggestive of IMHA
Hemagglutination - due to antibodies on the surface of the erythrocytes, leading to cross linking then clump formation
What are the cholestatic hepatic enzymes
Alp and GGT
What are the cholestatic hepatic enzymes
Alp and GGT
What are the hepatic leakage enzymes
AST and alt
How is thelezia transmitted
Face flies - adults live in tear ducts and conjunctival sac
What lesions might you see with thelezia and why
Photophobia, conjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, keratitis, eyelid abscesses
What is the major copper storage organ
Liver
How can you differentiate between vomiting and diarrhea caused by vincristine versus l-asparaginase
Vincristine side effects takes a few days, l-asparaginase is acute (30 minutes)
How does cat scratch fever car and what is the causative agent
Feline bartorella transmitted to cat through fleas, and if flea dirt gets under the nail of the cut and then they scratch the owner it can transmit the bartonelka
What test can you use to check for lungworms and why
Baermann fecal exam - first stage larvae in the lungs are coughed up, then reswallowed and passed in the feces
What is the intermediate host of lungworms like M. Capillaris
Snails who ingest larvae from feces on the pasture
What is the intermediate host of lungworms like M. Capillaris
Snails who ingest larvae from feces on the pasture
Define anhidrosis
Absence or lack of sweating
Define anhidrosis
Absence or lack of sweating
What type of drug is theophylline
Bronchodilator mostly used in dogs and cats
What type of drug is theophylline
Bronchodilator mostly used in dogs and cats
Why would chemotherapy cause a neutropenia
Chemo targets cells that replicate quickly und neutrophils have a lifespan of 5-9 hours
What would be more helpful in diagnosing an active infection - igm or IgG
IGM -peak at 3-6 weeks and drop 12 weeks post exposure
IGG - con remain elevated for months to years
How can IGG tigers tell you an active infection
If there is a 4 fold increase in IgG in serial tests 2-3 weeks apart
Which species exhibit a true lactational anestrus
Pigs and cats
What are 3 primary causes of mitral regurgitation
Degenerative thickening, bacterial endocarditis and ruptured chordinae tendinae
Amoxicillin is effective against gram - like -
Positive bacteria - staph
What do air bronchiograms indicate
Ventral lung consolidation - will percuss dull
Define hydrenencephaly
Absence of cerebral hemispheres with replacement of normal location with fluid
What can you use to treat muscle tremors secondary to permethrin toxicosis
IV methocarbomal
What is the causative agent of proliferative ileitis
Lawsonia intracellularis
What is used to decrease unit acid formation
Allopurinol
What indicates a stress leukogram
Mature neutrophilia , lymphopenia, eosinopenia
Define polycythemia
Abnormally high number of red blood cells - usually associated with lung or heart disease (or high altitudes)
Define polycythemia
Abnormally high number of red blood cells - usually associated with lung or heart disease (or high altitudes)
Describe the uses for metoclopromide
Nausea relief in dogs and improvement of stomach contraction (increase mobility) in cats - prevents esophageal reflex
Give examples of Macrolide’S
Erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin
What kind of drug is rifampinand what is effective against
Rifamycin - effective against gram positive, mycobacteria, gram negative cocci, anaerobes , chlamydiae and most MRSAs
Why is rifampin used (in combo with a macrolide) to treat R. Equi in foals
Penetrates some tissues and cells, effective against intracellular organisms (and R. Equi is a gram positive bacteria)
Define mastocytosis
Abnormal accumulation of most cells in body tissues - more mast cells means more histamine release leading to an over reaction to allergens and long lasting reactions
What is a mast cell
Type of white blood cell specific to allergies, playing a role in the allergic response 1 also release histamine when exposed to allergens
What could happen if there was mass degranulation of mast cells like with a mast cell tumor
Anaphylaxis, life threatening allergic reactions, decked wound healing, bleeding disorder and GI ulceration
What clinical signs might you see with a mast cell tumor
Raised, swollen, ulcerated bump that can fluctuate in size - an case writing, lethargy , appetite loss , Melina associated with bleeding anaphylaxis I Ln enlargement, swollen abdomen due to peritoneal effusion
Define ablation
Surgical removal of body tissue
Define erythema
Superficial reddening of skin due to dilation of blood capillaries
Define adenocarcinoma
Malignant tumor of glandular and epithelial tissue lining internal organs (GIT, mammary tissue, prostate, anal glands)
What is loperamide used for
Treat acute diarrhea or chronic diarrhea due to IBD
What is another name for loperamide
Imodium
What is amprolium used for
Treat and prevent coccidiosis due to E. Bovis - thiamine analogue (blocks thiamine uptake)
What is the purpose of amlodipine
Calcium channel blocker - treats high blood pressure mostly in cats (Off label in dogs and cats)
What can cause both right sided heart failure and a nutmeg liver
Pericardial effusion causing swollen hepatocytes
What is hemochromatosis and how is it diagnosed in bird,
Too much iron accumulation in liver and other organs - diagnose with a liver biopsy
A lack of a papebal reflex indicates a deficit in which CN
CN 5 - trigeminal (sensory deficit)
An intact menace and dazzle reflex means which cranial nerves are intact
CN 2 and the visual cortex are intact - no visual deficits
What occurs with nitrate toxicity and how do you treat
Causes a methemoglobinemia making the blood chocolate brown leading to greatly reduced oxygen carrying capacity - that with methylene blue
What occurs with nitrate toxicity and how do you treat
Causes a methemoglobinemia making the blood chocolate brown leading to greatly reduced oxygen carrying capacity - that with methylene blue
What are glial cells
Most abundant cell in CNS , support neurons and form myelin
What are glial cells
Most abundant cell in CNS , support neurons and form myelin
What is the function of myelin
Insults the neurons to allow electrical impulses to conduct faster
What is the function of myelin
Insults the neurons to allow electrical impulses to conduct faster
What are 3 tses that are important to note and which species do they affect
BSE (cows), scrapie in sheep, chronic washing disease in deer and elk
Define hydronephrosis
Dilation of the renal pelvis due to obstruction of urine outflow
Define uremia
Urine in the blood usually due to end stage renal failure
Define alloantibody
Immune antibodies produced following exposure to foreign RBC antigens
Differentiate between axial and sagital planes
Axial - transverse, upper and lower
Sagitall - longitudinal right and left
Which bacteria is associated with hemolytic uremic syndrome
E. coli H57 producing shiga toxins
What occurs due to aminoglycoside toxicity
Renal tubular nephrosis
What occurs due to aminoglycoside toxicity
Renal tubular nephrosis
What type of diets should be avoided in animals with hepatic encephalopathies
High protein diets
- Is prohibited for use in all food animals in the Ulsan
Chloramphenicol
Where do infected animals carry lepto
Renal carriers
Where do infected animals carry lepto
Renal carriers
Where do infected animals carry lepto
Renal carriers
Assets = - +-
Liabilities + equity
What type of hypersensitivity reaction occurs with diseases like atopy, flea allergy dematitis (fad), urticaria and anaphylaxis from penicillin and bee stings
Type 1 - immediate
Describe type I hypersensitivity - when does the reaction occur
Immediate reaction in 15-30 minutes - antigen binds with IGE leading to degranulation and release of histamine
What body systems is type I hypersensitivity associated with
Skin, intestines and lung
What cells is IGE associated with
Mast cells
What type of hypersensitivity is related to diseases like immune mediated hemolytic anemia, transfusion reactions and neonatal isoerythrolysis in foals
Type 2 - cytotoxic
Describe type 2 autotoxic hypersensitivity reactions - which antibodies are involved
Cell destruction mediated by IGM and IGG antibodies, and complement
What immune hypersensitivity reaction is associated with diseases like glomerulonephritis, systemic lupus erythematosus
Type 3 - immune complex
Describe type 3 hypersensitivity reactions
Immune complex - soluble immune complexes , IGG and exogenous antigens, complement activated immune emplexes are damaged, deposit in tissues leading to migration of neutrophils leading to tissue destruction
What is systemic lupus erythematosus
Chronic immune mediated disease where dogs own immune system attacks its healthy tissues
What is systemic lupus erythematosus
Chronic immune mediated disease where dogs own immune system attacks its healthy tissues
What hypersensitivity reaction type is associated with diseases like allergic contact dermatitis (poison ivy) Or tuberculin reactions
Type 4 - delayed
When will a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction occur
48-72 hours after reaction occurred - think of the tuberculin skin test in cattle( come back and check in 72 hours)
What are Beta lactams - give examples
Penicillins and cephalosporins - ampicillin, amoxicillin, ceftiofur, etc
What are Beta lactams - give examples
Penicillins and cephalosporins - ampicillin, amoxicillin, ceftiofur, etc
What is the spectrum of activity of Beta lactams
Gram positives, anaerobes - penicillin has limited gram negative activity, cephalosporins better for gram negative (out of the Beta lactams)
Beta lactams are bacteri-
Cidal - kill bacteria
Beta lactams are - dependent
Time
Why is clavulonic acid often used with amoxicillin (a beta lactam)
Clavulonic acid is a beta lactamase inhibitor - use with a Beta lactam to extend antibacterial spectrum
What could potentially occur as a side effect when using penicillin
Type I hypersensitivity reaction immediate
As generation of cephalosporin increases - spectrum increases
Gram negative spectrum increases (3rd gen highest activity against gram negatives)
Give examples of aminoglycosides - what is their spectrum of activity
Gentamicin, amikacin - gram negatives
Aminoglycosides like gentamicin are bacteri- and - dependent
Bactericidal and concentration dependent
What are possible side effects of aminoglycoside use
Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, neuromusaks blockades
Give examples of fluroquinolones - what is their spectrum of activity
Enrofoxacin, ciprofloxacin, marbofloxacin, orbifloxacin - gram negatives
Floroquinolones are bacteri - and - dependent
Bactericidal and concentration dependent
What is a side effect of fluoroquinolone use
Can damage cartilage in young animals
Give examples of tetracyclines - what are their mechanism of actions
Tetracycline and doxycycline - gram positive, gram negative, anaerobes, tick borne diseases (erlichia, anaplasma, rickettsial organisms)
What is borrelia burgdefori
Lymes disease
Tetracyclines are bacteri- and - dependent
Bacteristatic and time dependent
Tetracyclines are bacteri- and - dependent
Bacteristatic and time dependent
Differentiate between bacteristatic and bactericidal
Bacteristatic - prevents growth of bacteria
Bactericidal - prevents growth of bacteria
What are possible side effect of tetracycline use like doxycycline
Nephrotoxic, discoloration of teeth, GI upset (why you give doxycycline with a meal)
Why are trimethoprim and sulfonamides combined
When combined they become bactericidal
Why are trimethoprim and sulfonamides combined
When combined they become bactericidal
What is the spectrum of activity of trimethroprim sulfonamides
Gram positive, gram negative, anaerobes
What is the spectrum of activity of trimethroprim sulfonamides
Gram positive, gram negative, anaerobes
Trimethoprim sulfonamides are - dependent
Time
With what drug should you tell owners to wear gloves before handling and why
Chloramphenicol - causes bore marrow suppression if humans come into direct contact
With what drug should you tell owners to wear gloves before handling and why
Chloramphenicol - causes bore marrow suppression if humans come into direct contact
Chloramphenicol is bacteri- and - dependent
Bacteristatic and time dependent
What is the spectrum of activity for chloramphenicol
Gram prince, gram negative, anaerobes
What is the spectrum of activity for chloramphenicol
Gram prince, gram negative, anaerobes
In what animals can you not use lincosmides like clindamycin or lincomysin and why
Horses, rabbits or ruminants - cases GI upset/ colic that can be fatal
What are examples of lincosmides, are they bacteristatic or cidal
Clindamycin and lincomysin - bacteriostatic
What are examples of Macrolides and what is their spectrum of activity
Erythromycin, azithromyan , clarithromycun - gram positive and anaerobes
Macrolides like erythromycin are bacteri- and - dependent
Bacteristicic and time dependent
What is the spectrum of action of vancomycin and when should it be used
Gram positive - limit use to organisms resident to other antimicrobials
Vancomycin is bacteri- and - dependent
Bactericidal and time dependent
What is the spectrum of action of rifampin and when is it mostly used
Gram positive - mostly used to that R. Equi pneumonia in foals
What is the spectrum of action of rifampin and when is it mostly used
Gram positive - mostly used to that R. Equi pneumonia in foals
Rifampin is bacteri- and - dependent
Bactericidal and time dependent
What is the spectrum of activity of metronidazole
Anaerobes, Protozoa
What is the spectrum of activity of metronidazole
Anaerobes, Protozoa
What are possible side effects of metronidazole
Neuralgic signs like weakness, ataxia, vestibular signs, anorexia
Metronidazole is bacteri- and - dependent
Bactericidal and concentration dependent
What is the general lifecycle of platelets
5-10 days
How long does it take for a platelet plug to form
5 minutes
What occurs when vascular endothelium is disrupted (in the coagulation cascade)
Collages becomes exposed , attracting platelets which then undergo 3 reactions - adhesion and shape change, secretion, aggregation
What does platelet adhesion during coagulation cascade depend on
Von willebrand factor
Describe the coagulation cascade as simply as possible
Series of reactions causing fibrin, red cells, plasma and platelets to be trapped in the platelet plug forming a fibrin clot / thrombin absorbs to abrin while the rest of the thrombin is inclipted to prevent excessive clotting
What can bind to anti thrombin to make it more potent in preventing coagulation
Heparin
What are the key tests used to assess primary hemostasis
Platelet count and bleeding time
At what platelet count would you be concerned for spontaneous bleeding
Less than 30,000
At what platelet count would you be concerned for spontaneous bleeding
Less than 30,000
What is the buccal mucosal bleeding time test and what is normal
Incision is made into skin or mm and time until bleeding completely stops is measured - normal in less than 4 minutes
What does the act test measure - activated clotting time test
Measures time required for fibrin clot formation in fresh whole blood
What is normal for the act test
60 - 90 second
What is normal for the act test
60 - 90 second
What intrinsic pathway test is more sensitive than the act test
PTT- activated partial thromboplastin time
What intrinsic pathway test is more sensitive than the act test
PTT- activated partial thromboplastin time
What does the pt (prothrombin time) test for
Auction of factors 2,5 , 10 and 7
What is Von willebrands disease and which breeds are most affected
Low concentration of Von willebrand factor - needed for platelet adhesion, most common in Dobermans (hereditary )
How do yw treat Von willebrands disease
Treat with desmopressin/ ddavp 30 minutes before induction of surgery - or fresh frozen plasma
Why is a lack of Von willeband factor a problem
Can coagulate when bleeding - continues bleeding!
Why is a lack of Von willeband factor a problem
Can coagulate when bleeding - continues bleeding!
What is hemophilia A and what does it cause
A factor 8 deficiency - leads to elected PTT and act time
What is hemophilia B and what does it cause
Facto a deficiency -leads to elevated act and PTT
With rodenticide toxicity causing a vitamin K deficiency how long does it take to see changes in factor 7? Now long before you see clinical bleeding
Share to change factor 7 I 1-2 days to see clinical bleeding
What factors are in the common pathway
2,5, 1,10
What factors are in the common pathway
2,5, 1,10
What factors are in the intrinsic pathway
12,11, 9,8
Which has a smaller diameter - 2-0 or 3-0
3-0 (0 is bigger)
Which has a bigger diameter - 0,1, or 2
2 ( is not the same as 2-0 )
What are the different suture needle types
Taper, cutting or blunt
What is the purpose of taper point suture needle,
Use in tissues easy to penetrate
What is the purpose of taper point suture needle,
Use in tissues easy to penetrate
What is the purpose of taper cut or cutting needles
Use for tough, hard to penetrate tissues
What is the purpose of taper cut or cutting needles
Use for tough, hard to penetrate tissues
What are blunt suture needles used for
Dissecting triable tissue like liver or kidneys without cutting
Differentiate between monofilament and multifilament suture - what are pros and cons of both
Monofilament - single strand, more susceptible to damage, less pliable
Multifilament- braided /twisted strands , greater strength and flexibility, increased tendency for bacterial colonization
Differentiate between monofilament and multifilament suture - what are pros and cons of both
Monofilament - single strand, more susceptible to damage, less pliable
Multifilament- braided /twisted strands , greater strength and flexibility, increased tendency for bacterial colonization
What is catgut made out of? Is it nonabsorbable or absorbable
Absorbable suture - made from small intestinal submucosa of sheep or intestinal serosa of cattle
How long does absorbable catgut suture last? When should you not use it and why
Completely gone in 2-3 weeks (faster if there is an infection) - do not use in organs like the intestines or bladder because proteolytic break down happens very fast
Describe monocryl suture - how long does it last
Absorbable, monofilament - stronger initial strength, loses 70 -80% at 2 weeks, completely absorbed in 90-120 days
Describe vicryl suture - how long does it last
Absorbable, Multifilament - completely absorbed in 60-70 days
Describe PDS suture - how long does it last
Absorbable, monofilament - 50% of tensile strength still present at 5-6 weeks, completely absorbed in 180 day
Describe nylon suture
Non absorbable , monofilament - gradually loses strength over time
Describe polypropylene suture - when is it mostly used
Non absorbable, monofilament - commonly used in tendon, ligament, joint capsule or fascial closings where extended strength is desired
Describe silk suture
Non absorbable, multifilament - degrades in 2 years, has high tissue reactivity
Define tensile strength
Ability to resist deformation and breakage, the Shens breakage ours
Define tensile strength
Ability to resist deformation and breakage, the Shens breakage ours
How long after surgery does it take for intestines to heal
3 - 5 days
What suture patterns are often used to close hollow viscera - differentiate between the two
Connell and Cushing patterns are for closing hollow viscera because they create a water tight seal - Cushing only goes into submucosa (not the lumen), , the Connell goes into the lumen
How long does bone healing in adult patients usually take? Young patients?
8-12 weeks - young patients can take 2 weeks
What is another name for vasopressin
ADH
Which parasite eggs are rectangular in shape? What do they cause
Moniezia eggs - non pathogenic usually but can cause intestinal stasis
Which parasite eggs are rectangular in shape? What do they cause
Moniezia eggs - non pathogenic usually but can cause intestinal stasis
Which parasite eggs are rectangular in shape? What do they cause
Moniezia eggs - non pathogenic usually but can cause intestinal stasis
Who would normally be infected by the monezia tapeworm
Young cattle
What can you do if a patient blood pressure starts to drop during surgery
Bolus of fluids or turn down anesthetic gas (gases are a potent vasodilator)
What drugs can help treat hypotension during surgery
Dobutamine
Which toxic plants cause cyanide / cyanogen toxicity
Sorghum/ Johnson grass ,hydrangeas, chokecherry
How does cyanide cause toxicity
Absorbed from git, makes it so oxyhemoglobin can not release oxygen leading to cellular hypoxia
What clinical signs would you see in a pet with chanide toxicity due to toxic plant ingestion (like sorghum) and when will you see
Can see in 10-15 minutes, acute death offer only sign - excitement, muscle tremors, dyspnea, salivation, urination / defecation
What clinical signs would you see in a pet with chanide toxicity due to toxic plant ingestion (like sorghum) and when will you see
Can see in 10-15 minutes, acute death offer only sign - excitement, muscle tremors, dyspnea, salivation, urination / defecation
What is the key clinical finding that leads you to suspect cyanide toxicity due to sorghum or hydrangea ingestion
Bright charred blood or mucus membranes
How do you treat cyanide toxicity due to toxic plant ingestion
Sodium nitrite ( makes methemoglobin which binds the cyanide) and sodium thiosulfate (helps react with the cyanide to be excreted in urine)
Which plants are nitrate accumulating leading to toxicity mostly in ruminants
Pigweed, nightshades, sorghum (also has cyanide), rye, alfalfa
Why does nitrate toxicity affect mostly ruminants when ingested by toxic plants
Rumen microbes reduce nitrate to nitrite - which cases the methemoglobinemia, leading to diminished oxygen carrying capacity
Why is methemoglobinemia bad
Methemoglobin can’t bind oxygen so can’t carry oxygen to the tissues
What is almost pathopneumonic for nitrate toxicity
Dark brown blood due to diminished oxygen carrying capacity
What clinical signs can be associated with nitrate toxicity due to toxic plant ingestion
Muddy mucous membranes, dysenea, tremorss, convulsions, ataxia, tachycardia
How do you treat nitrate toxicity de to plant ingestion like alfalfa, pigweed or nightshades
1% Methylene blue - reduce methemoglobin to invest oxygen carrying capacity
Give some examples of cardiotoxic plants
Oleander, yew, rhododendron, foxglove
What clinical signs might you see from cardiotoxic pants like oleander
AV block, weakness, hypotension salivation, nausea , vomiting, collapse and acute death
What clinical signs might you see from cardiotoxic pants like oleander
AV block, weakness, hypotension salivation, nausea , vomiting, collapse and acute death
What is an AV block in simple terms
Electrical signal from atria to the ventricles is impaired
Define hematochezia
Frank blood in feces
What treatments can you perform to treat cardio toxic plant ingestion like with yew and rhododendron
Emiesis if recent, activated charcoal, atropine to increase heart rate it severe bradycardia, quinidine for av block
What plant is the causative agent of primary photosensitization
St. John’s wart
What plant is the causative agent of primary photosensitization
St. John’s wart
What plants can cause secondary photosensitization
Any plant cau sing liver failure - blue green algae, groundsel , brassica
What plants can cause secondary photosensitization
Any plant cau sing liver failure - blue green algae, groundsel , brassica
Describe primary photosensitization and its prognosis
Ingested ur absorbed agent is metabolized to become photodynamic which causes free radical damage - usually affects skin mostly and has a better prognosis than secondary
Describe primary photosensitization and its prognosis
Ingested ur absorbed agent is metabolized to become photodynamic which causes free radical damage - usually affects skin mostly and has a better prognosis than secondary
Describe secondary photosensitization
Impaired hepatic function reduces exaction of plant pigment like phylloeythin which causes damage to the liver along with skin lesions
What clinical signs can you see with photo sensitizing plants like blue green algae or St. John’s wort
Erytrena, edema, peeling, prorates, hyperesthesia, can cause exudation and ulceration
Which species is most affected by lupine toxicity (neurotoxic plant ingestion)
Sheep - a teratogen in cattle
Define a teratogen
Factor that causes information of an embryo
Define a teratogen
Factor that causes information of an embryo
What clinical signs might you see with lupine toxicity
Salivation, incoordination, head pressing, wandering, excitement, mode tremors, seizures, dyspnea
How does lupine toxicity affect calves
Causes crooked calf syndrome, scoliosis, carpal flexure - teratogen in cattle
How do you treat lupine neurotoxicity in sheep
No treatment
What clinical signs could you see with poison hemlock ingestion and when would you see them
Very rapid development - salivation, vomiting, diarrhea, muscle tremors, death from respiratory failure
How do you treat poison hemlock ingestion
No specific treatment
How does larkspur cause toxicity
Is a neuromuscular blocker causing neurotoxicity
What clinical signs can you see from larkspur toxicity
Bloat, excitability , muscle tremors, arrhythmias, death from respiratory paralysis
How does nightshade ingestion cause toxicity
Nitrate accumulation but also a GI irritant and a neurotoxin
What clinical signs could you see with nightshade toxicity
Anorexia, apathy, Paresis, prostration, vomiting, abdominal pain
Which species are usually affected by bracken fern toxicity
Cathe, sheep, pigs, horses
How is bracken fern toxic
Leads to a thiamine deficiencies which cause polioencephalo malacia, also leads to carcinogenicity and bore marrow suppression in ruminants by affecting DNA
What clinical signs could you see with Bracken fern toxicity
Incoordination, standing with legs apart, depression muscle tremors, blinders, retinal degeneration
Which species is most susceptible to black walnut toxicity and now do they usually get exposed
Horses - exposure from bedding/shavings
What clinical signs might you see from black walnut toxicity
Acute laminitis from necrosis of dorsal laminae, distal limb edema, fever
What are 2 options to decontaminate the git after toxicity
Mineral oil or activated charcoal
What are 2 options to decontaminate the git after toxicity
Mineral oil or activated charcoal
How is castor bean toxic
Contains ricin that has a highly toxic glycoprotein
What clinical signs might you see from caster bean toxicity
Anorexia, vomiting, weakness, Mosley spasms, sweating, ataxia, extensive organ edema and damage
How does cottonseed cause toxicity? Which species are affected
Contains gossypol which can be cardio toxic to young animals - affects cattle, sheep and pigs
What clinical signs can you see with cottonseed/ gossypol toxicity
Sudden death due to heart failure, anorexia, redurire, pot belly appearance, por performance
What clinical signs can you see with dumbing plant toxicity
Irritated mm, ptyalism, edematous swelling of tongue and lips, difficulty swallowing
What clinical signs could you see with locoweed toxicity
Ataxia, hypermetria, cracker heels, conscious proprioceptive deficits, emaciation, emphysema, abortions
How does waterhemlock cause toxicity
Contains circutoxin highly toxic to the cattle and horses
What clinical signs are caused by water hemlock toxicity
Acute violent titanic seizures I rapid progression from salivation to muscle twitching, seizures, coma, death
How is yellow star thistle toxic
Nigropallidal encephalomalicia - chewing disease, causative agent unknown
How is yellow star thistle toxic
Nigropallidal encephalomalicia - chewing disease, causative agent unknown
What clinical signs do you see with yellow star thistle
Inability to eat and drink due to dystonia of lips and tongue, continuous chewing motions, behavior changes, chewing and dropping food
How does perilla mint cause toxicity
Causes pulmonary edema and pleural effusion
How does perilla mint cause toxicity
Causes pulmonary edema and pleural effusion
What clinical signs can you see with perilla mint toxicity
Respiratory distress due to atypical intestinal edema and emphysema , nasal discharge
What clinical signs can you see with perilla mint toxicity
Respiratory distress due to atypical intestinal edema and emphysema , nasal discharge
What is another name for western false hellebore and what is it known for causing
Veratrum Californium - cyclopia in lambs if ewe eat plant on day 14
Who is affected by white snakeroot toxicity and how is it toxic
Horses and cattle affected - contains trematone (a ketone) passed to young in milk
Who is affected by white snakeroot toxicity and how is it toxic
Horses and cattle affected - contains trematone (a ketone) passed to young in milk
What clinical signs could you see with white snakeroot toxicity
Weakness, myocardial necrosis and CHF, jugular push, muscle tremors , acetone breath
How does red maple cause toxicity in horses
Causes Red blood cell lysis leading to icterus, anemia, hemoglobinemia, hemoglobinuria
How does red maple cause toxicity in horses
Causes Red blood cell lysis leading to icterus, anemia, hemoglobinemia, hemoglobinuria
How does ponderosa pine cause toxicity
Pine needle abortions - weak contractions , small calf, retained fetal membranes
What is a normal PaCO2
Normal - 35 to 45
Hyperventilation less than 30
Hypoventilation over 50
What is a normal PaCO2
Normal - 35 to 45
Hyperventilation less than 30
Hypoventilation over 50
How can you help rule in or out neoplasia in the spine
They don’t usually cross joints
How can you help rule in or out neoplasia in the spine
They don’t usually cross joints
What is usually the causative agent of discospondylitis
Bacterial in origin - staphylococcus usually the origin
What is usually the causative agent of discospondylitis
Bacterial in origin - staphylococcus usually the origin
What could be used to help diagnose discospondylitis
Urine or blood cultures to identify causative bacterial agent
- Is a topical drug that can cause ototoxicity and peripheral vestibular disease
Chlorhexidine
What common drug can cause central vestibular disease
Metronidazole
Could you use enrofloxacin to treat periodontal disease
No - is not effective against anaerobic bacteria which commonly is found in the mouth
Which antibiotic are best to use for oral infections and why
Beta lactams and clindamycin (lincosamide) because of their activity against anaerobes
What would you expect to see on thoracic rads in a dog with a penetrating trump
Pneumothorax
What would you expect to see on thoracic rads in a dog with a penetrating trump
Pneumothorax
Is cryptosporidium bacterial?
No - it is protozoal
Define extramedillary hematopoietis
Red blood cells produced in spleen and liver
How is oxygen transported by erythrocytes
Bound to hemoglobin
How is oxygen transported by erythrocytes
Bound to hemoglobin
What is the biggest difference between reticulocytes and erythrocytes on cytology
Reticulocytes - cytoplasm blue
Erythrocytes - cytoplasm red/pink
What is the biggest difference between reticulocytes and erythrocytes on cytology
Reticulocytes - cytoplasm blue
Erythrocytes - cytoplasm red/pink
Describe differences in the way RBCs look on blood smears
Cats, horses - lack central pallor
Dogs, cattle - small area of central pallor
Describe differences in the way RBCs look on blood smears
Cats, horses - lack central pallor
Dogs, cattle - small area of central pallor
Define polychromasia
Increased reticulocytes meaning RBC regeneration
Define polychromasia
Increased reticulocytes meaning RBC regeneration
What does a high MCHC indicate
Trick question - a cell isn’t have excess hemoglobin
What does a high MCHC indicate
Trick question - a cell isn’t have excess hemoglobin
At how many reticulocytes in horse is the anemia considered regenerative
Trick - horses do not release reticulocytes
What is a normal pcv value for dogs? Cats? Cows ?
Dogs - 45
Cats - 35
Cows- 35
