Other Flashcards

1
Q

The USDA regulates - while the FDA regulates _

A

USDA - meat and poultry products egg products but not eggs themselves
FDA - all other food, eggs themselves, sea food, etc

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2
Q

Tetracycline is a -

A

Broad spectrum antibiotic

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3
Q

How do you determine the value of assets on a balance sheet

A

Assets = liabilities + shareholder equity

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4
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Beta lactams

A

Inhibit cell wall synthesis leading to lysis of bacteria

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5
Q

What is a 2.5 % solution in mg/ml

A

25 mg/ml (multiply by 10)

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6
Q

Ivermectin is effective against what group of parasites

A

Nematodes

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7
Q

Can you use topical insecticides like frontline off label

A

No - it is illegal by the EPA

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8
Q

Who regulates topical insecticides like frontline

A

EPA

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9
Q

Who regulates oral a transdermal insecticides

A

FDA

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10
Q

What drug class is amlodipine in (also called norvasc)

A

Calcium channel blocking agent and vasodilator

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11
Q

How can you give amlodipine and what is it used for

A

Orally - used to treat systemic hypertension (a common cardiac med)

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12
Q

What should you monitor for if patient is on amlodipine

A

Hypotension and bradycardia

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13
Q

What drug class is enalapril in

A

Angiotensin converting enzyme (ace inhibitor)

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14
Q

What is the mechanism of action of enalapril

A

Blocks angiotensin 2 which causes vasodilation of glomerular efferent arterioles leading to decreased GFR

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15
Q

What are common indications for enalapril

A

Vasodilator - used in Chf Or to treat systemic supertension

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16
Q

What should you monitor a patient for when on enalapril

A

Hypotension, renal function , electrolytes

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17
Q

How can you give enalapril

A

Orally

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18
Q

What type of drug is furosemide /lasix and what is its mechanism of action

A

Loop diuretic - acts in the ascending loop of henle to inhibit reabsorption of sodium and chloride (and water follows sodium so it decreases total volume)

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19
Q

How can you give furosemide

A

Orally and IV

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20
Q

What are common indications for furosemide

A

CHF to reduce pulmonary edema and sometimes in oliguria or anuria cases

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21
Q

What should you monitor for when using furosemide

A

Fluid/electrolyte changes, azotemia , monitor hydration stats and bloodwork values too

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22
Q

What should you advise owners of when their pet is on furosemide

A

They will urinate more often so make sure they have access to sesh water at all times

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23
Q

What type of drug class is lidocaine

A

Antiarrhythmic - non cardiac related use as local anesthetic

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24
Q

What is the mechanism of action of lidocaine

A

Binds to and inhibits voltage gated sodium channels

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25
Q

How can you give lidocaine

A

IV or regional infusion

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26
Q

What are indications for lidocaine

A

Ventricular tachyarrhythmias or to help with analgesia

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27
Q

What should you monitor for when using lidocaine

A

Be cautious in hepatic disease and has decreased efficacy if patient is hypokalemic

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28
Q

What drug class is pimobendan in

A

Inotropic drug that causes vasodilation

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29
Q

How can you give pimobendan

A

Orally

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30
Q

What are common indications for using pinobendan

A

Adjunct therapy for CHF, chf secondary to DCM or Chf due to mitral valve disease

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31
Q

What is important to note when using pinobendan

A

Not FDA approved for use in cats contraindicated in HCM cases and use cautiously with arrythmias

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32
Q

What drug class is spironolactone

A

Aldosterone competitive antagonist

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33
Q

What is the MOA of spironolactore

A

Competitively inhibits aldosterone at the level of the distal renal tubules

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34
Q

What are common indications of spironolactone

A

Diuretic agent used in CHF, some renal conditions like neuphrotic syndrome

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35
Q

What is important to note when using spironolactone

A

Weak diuretic so often used with more potent diuretics - potassium sparing so monitor or hyper kalemiq

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36
Q

What could happen if patient is hyperkalemic

A

An cause life threatening heart arrhythmias, muscle weakness or paralysis

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37
Q

What is the function of aldosterone

A

Contributes to sodium and water reabsorption, and potassium secretion

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38
Q

What is the function of aldosterone

A

Contributes to sodium and water reabsorption, and potassium secretion

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39
Q

What is the MOA of pinobendan

A

Calcium sensitizer, inotropic (affecting force of heart contractions) increase heart contractility

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40
Q

Define ptosis

A

Drooping of the upper eyelid

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41
Q

Define mydriasis

A

Dilated pupils

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42
Q

Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell? How do you test it

A

Cranial nerve 1 - olfactory nerve , watch patient sniff room or a noxious substance

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43
Q

What’s the function of the optic nerve and which CN is it

A

Carries visual signals from retina to occipital lobe of brain - cranial nerve 2

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44
Q

How can you test the function of CN 2 - the optic nerve

A

Drop a cotton ball and watch patient follow it, check for menace response (visual cue portion), or check pupillary light response (plr) for visual cue also

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45
Q

Testing PLR tests the function of which cranial nerves

A

2 - for visual cue
3 - for pupil constriction

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46
Q

What is CN 3 and what is its function

A

Oculomotor nerve - Provides motor to most of the extra ocular muscles and causes pupil constriction

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47
Q

how can you test the function of the oculomotor nerve (cn 3)

A

Observe for physiologic nystagmus when turning the head or observe for pupillary constriction with a pale

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48
Q

What is physiologic nystagmus

A

Normal dog where nystagmus is induced by turning head side to side - involuntary rhythmic oscillation of the eyes

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49
Q

Describe the fast phase of nystagmus vs the slow phase

A

Fast phase - always away from the lesion
Slow phase - always towards the lesion

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50
Q

What cranial nerves are involved when inducing physiologic nystagmus

A

3,4, 6, 8

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51
Q

What is cranial nerve 4 and what is its function

A

Trochlear nerve - provides motor function to dorsal oblique extracts muscles and rolls globe medially

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52
Q

How can you test the function of cranial nerve 4 - the trochlear nerve

A

Watch for dorso lateral rotation of the pupil

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53
Q

What is cranial nerve 5 and its branches

A

Trigeminal nerve - maxillary , mandibular and opthalmic branches

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54
Q

What is the function of the trigeminal nerve - cranial nerve 5

A

Motor - muscles of mastication (masseter and temporal)
Sensory - eyelids , Cornea, tongue, nasal mucosa and mouth

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55
Q

How can you test the function of trigeminal nerve or CN 5

A

Palpate masseter muscles for atrophy, check jaw tone, touch globe and look for retraction, palpebral response (blinking when touching the medial canthus) / pinch lip and observe snarl response

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56
Q

The touching of the globe tests which cranial nerves

A

5 for sensory, 6 for retraction

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57
Q

Which cranial nerve provides motor function to the lateral rectus extraocular muscle and retractor bulbi muscle

A

Cranal nerve 6 - abducens muscle

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58
Q

How do you test the function of cranial nerve 6 - the abducens muscle

A

Touch globe and observe for retraction, observe for medial strabismus, observe for physiologic nystagmus when turning head

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59
Q

What is strabismus

A

MIsdirection of the eye -either inward towards nose Or away from nose

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60
Q

What is the function of CN 7 - the facial nerve

A

Motor - muscles of facial expression (eyelids, ears, lips)
Sensory- medial pinna
Taste - rostral tongue and parasympathetic innervation to lacrimal glands and salivary glands

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61
Q

How do you test function of the facial nerve (CN5)

A

Menace response for blink response, palpebral response , observe for facial paralysis, deviation of nose to one side ,droopy lips, schirmer tear test , ear flick in response to stimulation of medial pinna

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62
Q

What cranial nerves does the menace response test for

A

2 - visual cue
7 -blink response

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63
Q

What cranial nerves does the palpebral response test for

A

5-sensory
7 - facial nerve

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64
Q

What is CN 8 and what is its function

A

Vestibulocochlear nerve - provides sensory input for hearing and head position

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65
Q

How do you test for function of CN 8- vestibulocochlear nerve

A

Hearing assessment , observe for head tilt, abnormal nystagmus, presence of normal physiologic nystagmus

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66
Q

What is cranial nerve 9

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve

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67
Q

What is the function of CN 9 - glossopharyngeal nerve

A

Motor and sensory innovation to pharynx for swallowing (along with CN 10), innervates some salivary glands, provides taste innervation from caudal tongue

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68
Q

How do you test the function of CN 10

A

Elicit a gag reflex ,observe for dysphagia

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69
Q

Describe the function of CN 10 - the vagus nerve

A

Innervates the larynx , esophagus and pharynx - provides parasympathetic innervation to the heart and viscera

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70
Q

How can you test the function of cn 10 - vagus nerve

A

Elicit gag reflex, observe for laryngeal paralysis and assess for megaesophagus and regurgitation

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71
Q

What is cranial nerve 11 and what is its function

A

Spinal accessory nerve - innovates cranial cervical muscles

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72
Q

What is cranial nerve 12 and what is its function

A

Hypoglossal nerve - provides motor to tongue

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73
Q

How do you test the function of CN 12 - the hypoglossal nerve

A

Observe tongue movement and symmetry for problems drinking and prehending food

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74
Q

What is chrondro dysplasia

A

Genetic, short legs - faulty development of cartilage and bone growth in the ossification centers of bones

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75
Q

What will you see histologically with pyrrolizidine alkaloid toxicity

A

Negalocutosis, fibrosis and bile duct hyperplasia

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76
Q

What causes pyrrolizidine alkalosis and what does it ultimately lead to

A

Plant species - ragwort, rathe weed, yellow tar weed
Ultimately leads to hepatic failure

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77
Q

What is megalocytosis

A

Enlargement of liver cells often due to toxins

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78
Q

Describe clinical signs you might see in a llama infected with P. Tenuis (meningeal worm) and their progression

A

Near signs - hypermedia, ataxia, stiffness, muscle weakness, posterior paresis, arching neck and circling I dully starts in hind limbs and progresses to front limbs

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79
Q

Eosinophilia in CSF fluid indicates what

A

Parasitic infection

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80
Q

How is propylene glycol given

A

Orally - not IV

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81
Q

What is monensin

A

Commonly used coccidiostat used in feedstuff of cattle - an ionophone that is very toxic to horses

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82
Q

Define a rhabdomyosarcoma

A

Tumor derived from striated muscle (skeletal muscle)

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83
Q

Describe pds or polydioxionne suture simply

A

Monofilament, absorbable - good for things like the bladder

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84
Q

What is one benefit of pds suture over catgut

A

PDS lasts longer

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85
Q

What do pt and PTT stand for

A

Pt - prothrombin time
PTT - partial thromboplastin time

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86
Q

Define urohydro propulsion

A

Expulsion of cystic calculi when animal under anesthesia sing manual pressure on the bladder to expel store through the urethra

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87
Q

Define oliguric renal failure

A

Reduced urine output due to renal failure

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88
Q

What makes up the tetralogy of fallot

A

Overriding aorta, ventricular septal defect , pulmonic stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy

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89
Q

What is the human health concern tor HPAI

A

If it were to acquire the gene needed to attach to human respiratory mucosa

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90
Q

What is the acid fast stain mostly used for

A

To identify acid fast organisms like mycobacteria or nocardia

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91
Q

What type of toxicity turns blood a bright red

A

Cyanide toxicity

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92
Q

What is the difference between an open and closed reduction

A

Open - fracture fragments surgically repaired and repositioned
Closed - fragments repositioned externally without surgically exposing the bone

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93
Q

Define arthroplasty

A

Surgery to restore unction of a joint - either by replacing, realigning or remodeling

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94
Q

Define ectopic cilia

A

Abnormal hair growing out of the conjunctiva

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95
Q

Define distichia

A

Extra eyelashes grow from an abnormal part of the eyelid

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96
Q

Define entropion

A

When the eyelid turns inward toward eye cursing eyelashes to tub against the eye

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97
Q

What could cause decreased corneal protection, leading to corneal ulcers

A

Decreased tear production (kcs/ dry eye), decreased tear quality (exposure keratitis), decreased blink reflex (CN 5 or 7 deficit)

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98
Q

Define lagopthalomus

A

Inability to fully close eyelids

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99
Q

What cranial nerve delicious could cause a decreased blink reflex

A

Cranial nerve 5 or 7

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100
Q

What are general causes of superficial corneal ulceration in dogs

A

Traumatic or decreased corneal protection

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101
Q

What 3 structures make up the uvea

A

Iris, ciliary body, choroid

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102
Q

Which part of the eye is extremely vascular

A

Uvea - iris, ciliary body and choroid

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103
Q

What is inflammed in anterior uveitis

A

Iris and ciliary body

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104
Q

What is inflamed in posterior uveitis

A

Choroid - also called choritis

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105
Q

What are common clinical signs of uveitis

A

Photophobia, red eye due to conjunctival hyperemia, epiphora, seromucoid discharge , blephospasm , 3rd eyelid elevation

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106
Q

Define epiphora

A

Excess watering of the eye

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107
Q

What sign on your ophthalmic exam is pathopneumonic for anterior uveitis

A

Aqueous flare

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108
Q

What signs might you find on your diagnostic ophthalmic exam that indicate aqueous flare

A

Biotic pupil, corneal edema, keratin precipitates, hypopyon, fibrin, ocular hypotension, synechia, cataract, superfigmentation or iridil thickening

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109
Q

What signs might you find on your diagnostic ophthalmic exam that indicate aqueous flare

A

Biotic pupil, corneal edema, keratin precipitates, hypopyon, fibrin, ocular hypotension, synechia, cataract, superfigmentation or iridil thickening

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110
Q

What is hypopyon

A

Milky white appearance at bottom of eye with episcleral injection

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111
Q

Define synechiae

A

Abnormal adhesions between iris and Cornea

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112
Q

How can you differentiate between uveal cyst and a uveal melanoma

A

Uveal cysts are free floating, uveal melanomas are attached

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113
Q

What enzyme is produced by the pancreas, found in saliva and hydrolyzes starches

A

Amylase

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114
Q

What should you treat yourself with it you stab yourself accidentally with the RB51 strain

A

Doxycline and tmp - vitamin is no longer used because RB51 is resistant

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115
Q

What on a microscopic slide would be highly suggestive of IMHA

A

Hemagglutination - due to antibodies on the surface of the erythrocytes, leading to cross linking then clump formation

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116
Q

What are the cholestatic hepatic enzymes

A

Alp and GGT

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117
Q

What are the cholestatic hepatic enzymes

A

Alp and GGT

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118
Q

What are the hepatic leakage enzymes

A

AST and alt

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119
Q

How is thelezia transmitted

A

Face flies - adults live in tear ducts and conjunctival sac

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120
Q

What lesions might you see with thelezia and why

A

Photophobia, conjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, keratitis, eyelid abscesses

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121
Q

What is the major copper storage organ

A

Liver

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122
Q

How can you differentiate between vomiting and diarrhea caused by vincristine versus l-asparaginase

A

Vincristine side effects takes a few days, l-asparaginase is acute (30 minutes)

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123
Q

How does cat scratch fever car and what is the causative agent

A

Feline bartorella transmitted to cat through fleas, and if flea dirt gets under the nail of the cut and then they scratch the owner it can transmit the bartonelka

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124
Q

What test can you use to check for lungworms and why

A

Baermann fecal exam - first stage larvae in the lungs are coughed up, then reswallowed and passed in the feces

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125
Q

What is the intermediate host of lungworms like M. Capillaris

A

Snails who ingest larvae from feces on the pasture

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126
Q

What is the intermediate host of lungworms like M. Capillaris

A

Snails who ingest larvae from feces on the pasture

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127
Q

Define anhidrosis

A

Absence or lack of sweating

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128
Q

Define anhidrosis

A

Absence or lack of sweating

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129
Q

What type of drug is theophylline

A

Bronchodilator mostly used in dogs and cats

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130
Q

What type of drug is theophylline

A

Bronchodilator mostly used in dogs and cats

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131
Q

Why would chemotherapy cause a neutropenia

A

Chemo targets cells that replicate quickly und neutrophils have a lifespan of 5-9 hours

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132
Q

What would be more helpful in diagnosing an active infection - igm or IgG

A

IGM -peak at 3-6 weeks and drop 12 weeks post exposure
IGG - con remain elevated for months to years

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133
Q

How can IGG tigers tell you an active infection

A

If there is a 4 fold increase in IgG in serial tests 2-3 weeks apart

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134
Q

Which species exhibit a true lactational anestrus

A

Pigs and cats

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135
Q

What are 3 primary causes of mitral regurgitation

A

Degenerative thickening, bacterial endocarditis and ruptured chordinae tendinae

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136
Q

Amoxicillin is effective against gram - like -

A

Positive bacteria - staph

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137
Q

What do air bronchiograms indicate

A

Ventral lung consolidation - will percuss dull

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138
Q

Define hydrenencephaly

A

Absence of cerebral hemispheres with replacement of normal location with fluid

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139
Q

What can you use to treat muscle tremors secondary to permethrin toxicosis

A

IV methocarbomal

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140
Q

What is the causative agent of proliferative ileitis

A

Lawsonia intracellularis

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141
Q

What is used to decrease unit acid formation

A

Allopurinol

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142
Q

What indicates a stress leukogram

A

Mature neutrophilia , lymphopenia, eosinopenia

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143
Q

Define polycythemia

A

Abnormally high number of red blood cells - usually associated with lung or heart disease (or high altitudes)

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144
Q

Define polycythemia

A

Abnormally high number of red blood cells - usually associated with lung or heart disease (or high altitudes)

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145
Q

Describe the uses for metoclopromide

A

Nausea relief in dogs and improvement of stomach contraction (increase mobility) in cats - prevents esophageal reflex

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146
Q

Give examples of Macrolide’S

A

Erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin

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147
Q

What kind of drug is rifampinand what is effective against

A

Rifamycin - effective against gram positive, mycobacteria, gram negative cocci, anaerobes , chlamydiae and most MRSAs

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148
Q

Why is rifampin used (in combo with a macrolide) to treat R. Equi in foals

A

Penetrates some tissues and cells, effective against intracellular organisms (and R. Equi is a gram positive bacteria)

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149
Q

Define mastocytosis

A

Abnormal accumulation of most cells in body tissues - more mast cells means more histamine release leading to an over reaction to allergens and long lasting reactions

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150
Q

What is a mast cell

A

Type of white blood cell specific to allergies, playing a role in the allergic response 1 also release histamine when exposed to allergens

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151
Q

What could happen if there was mass degranulation of mast cells like with a mast cell tumor

A

Anaphylaxis, life threatening allergic reactions, decked wound healing, bleeding disorder and GI ulceration

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152
Q

What clinical signs might you see with a mast cell tumor

A

Raised, swollen, ulcerated bump that can fluctuate in size - an case writing, lethargy , appetite loss , Melina associated with bleeding anaphylaxis I Ln enlargement, swollen abdomen due to peritoneal effusion

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153
Q

Define ablation

A

Surgical removal of body tissue

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154
Q

Define erythema

A

Superficial reddening of skin due to dilation of blood capillaries

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155
Q

Define adenocarcinoma

A

Malignant tumor of glandular and epithelial tissue lining internal organs (GIT, mammary tissue, prostate, anal glands)

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156
Q

What is loperamide used for

A

Treat acute diarrhea or chronic diarrhea due to IBD

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157
Q

What is another name for loperamide

A

Imodium

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158
Q

What is amprolium used for

A

Treat and prevent coccidiosis due to E. Bovis - thiamine analogue (blocks thiamine uptake)

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159
Q

What is the purpose of amlodipine

A

Calcium channel blocker - treats high blood pressure mostly in cats (Off label in dogs and cats)

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160
Q

What can cause both right sided heart failure and a nutmeg liver

A

Pericardial effusion causing swollen hepatocytes

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161
Q

What is hemochromatosis and how is it diagnosed in bird,

A

Too much iron accumulation in liver and other organs - diagnose with a liver biopsy

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162
Q

A lack of a papebal reflex indicates a deficit in which CN

A

CN 5 - trigeminal (sensory deficit)

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163
Q

An intact menace and dazzle reflex means which cranial nerves are intact

A

CN 2 and the visual cortex are intact - no visual deficits

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164
Q

What occurs with nitrate toxicity and how do you treat

A

Causes a methemoglobinemia making the blood chocolate brown leading to greatly reduced oxygen carrying capacity - that with methylene blue

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165
Q

What occurs with nitrate toxicity and how do you treat

A

Causes a methemoglobinemia making the blood chocolate brown leading to greatly reduced oxygen carrying capacity - that with methylene blue

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166
Q

What are glial cells

A

Most abundant cell in CNS , support neurons and form myelin

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167
Q

What are glial cells

A

Most abundant cell in CNS , support neurons and form myelin

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168
Q

What is the function of myelin

A

Insults the neurons to allow electrical impulses to conduct faster

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169
Q

What is the function of myelin

A

Insults the neurons to allow electrical impulses to conduct faster

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170
Q

What are 3 tses that are important to note and which species do they affect

A

BSE (cows), scrapie in sheep, chronic washing disease in deer and elk

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171
Q

Define hydronephrosis

A

Dilation of the renal pelvis due to obstruction of urine outflow

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172
Q

Define uremia

A

Urine in the blood usually due to end stage renal failure

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173
Q

Define alloantibody

A

Immune antibodies produced following exposure to foreign RBC antigens

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174
Q

Differentiate between axial and sagital planes

A

Axial - transverse, upper and lower
Sagitall - longitudinal right and left

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175
Q

Which bacteria is associated with hemolytic uremic syndrome

A

E. coli H57 producing shiga toxins

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176
Q

What occurs due to aminoglycoside toxicity

A

Renal tubular nephrosis

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177
Q

What occurs due to aminoglycoside toxicity

A

Renal tubular nephrosis

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178
Q

What type of diets should be avoided in animals with hepatic encephalopathies

A

High protein diets

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179
Q
  • Is prohibited for use in all food animals in the Ulsan
A

Chloramphenicol

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180
Q

Where do infected animals carry lepto

A

Renal carriers

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181
Q

Where do infected animals carry lepto

A

Renal carriers

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182
Q

Where do infected animals carry lepto

A

Renal carriers

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183
Q

Assets = - +-

A

Liabilities + equity

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184
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction occurs with diseases like atopy, flea allergy dematitis (fad), urticaria and anaphylaxis from penicillin and bee stings

A

Type 1 - immediate

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185
Q

Describe type I hypersensitivity - when does the reaction occur

A

Immediate reaction in 15-30 minutes - antigen binds with IGE leading to degranulation and release of histamine

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186
Q

What body systems is type I hypersensitivity associated with

A

Skin, intestines and lung

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187
Q

What cells is IGE associated with

A

Mast cells

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188
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is related to diseases like immune mediated hemolytic anemia, transfusion reactions and neonatal isoerythrolysis in foals

A

Type 2 - cytotoxic

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189
Q

Describe type 2 autotoxic hypersensitivity reactions - which antibodies are involved

A

Cell destruction mediated by IGM and IGG antibodies, and complement

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190
Q

What immune hypersensitivity reaction is associated with diseases like glomerulonephritis, systemic lupus erythematosus

A

Type 3 - immune complex

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191
Q

Describe type 3 hypersensitivity reactions

A

Immune complex - soluble immune complexes , IGG and exogenous antigens, complement activated immune emplexes are damaged, deposit in tissues leading to migration of neutrophils leading to tissue destruction

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192
Q

What is systemic lupus erythematosus

A

Chronic immune mediated disease where dogs own immune system attacks its healthy tissues

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193
Q

What is systemic lupus erythematosus

A

Chronic immune mediated disease where dogs own immune system attacks its healthy tissues

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194
Q

What hypersensitivity reaction type is associated with diseases like allergic contact dermatitis (poison ivy) Or tuberculin reactions

A

Type 4 - delayed

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195
Q

When will a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction occur

A

48-72 hours after reaction occurred - think of the tuberculin skin test in cattle( come back and check in 72 hours)

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196
Q

What are Beta lactams - give examples

A

Penicillins and cephalosporins - ampicillin, amoxicillin, ceftiofur, etc

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197
Q

What are Beta lactams - give examples

A

Penicillins and cephalosporins - ampicillin, amoxicillin, ceftiofur, etc

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198
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of Beta lactams

A

Gram positives, anaerobes - penicillin has limited gram negative activity, cephalosporins better for gram negative (out of the Beta lactams)

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199
Q

Beta lactams are bacteri-

A

Cidal - kill bacteria

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200
Q

Beta lactams are - dependent

A

Time

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201
Q

Why is clavulonic acid often used with amoxicillin (a beta lactam)

A

Clavulonic acid is a beta lactamase inhibitor - use with a Beta lactam to extend antibacterial spectrum

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202
Q

What could potentially occur as a side effect when using penicillin

A

Type I hypersensitivity reaction immediate

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203
Q

As generation of cephalosporin increases - spectrum increases

A

Gram negative spectrum increases (3rd gen highest activity against gram negatives)

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204
Q

Give examples of aminoglycosides - what is their spectrum of activity

A

Gentamicin, amikacin - gram negatives

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205
Q

Aminoglycosides like gentamicin are bacteri- and - dependent

A

Bactericidal and concentration dependent

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206
Q

What are possible side effects of aminoglycoside use

A

Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, neuromusaks blockades

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207
Q

Give examples of fluroquinolones - what is their spectrum of activity

A

Enrofoxacin, ciprofloxacin, marbofloxacin, orbifloxacin - gram negatives

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208
Q

Floroquinolones are bacteri - and - dependent

A

Bactericidal and concentration dependent

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209
Q

What is a side effect of fluoroquinolone use

A

Can damage cartilage in young animals

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210
Q

Give examples of tetracyclines - what are their mechanism of actions

A

Tetracycline and doxycycline - gram positive, gram negative, anaerobes, tick borne diseases (erlichia, anaplasma, rickettsial organisms)

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211
Q

What is borrelia burgdefori

A

Lymes disease

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212
Q

Tetracyclines are bacteri- and - dependent

A

Bacteristatic and time dependent

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213
Q

Tetracyclines are bacteri- and - dependent

A

Bacteristatic and time dependent

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214
Q

Differentiate between bacteristatic and bactericidal

A

Bacteristatic - prevents growth of bacteria
Bactericidal - prevents growth of bacteria

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215
Q

What are possible side effect of tetracycline use like doxycycline

A

Nephrotoxic, discoloration of teeth, GI upset (why you give doxycycline with a meal)

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216
Q

Why are trimethoprim and sulfonamides combined

A

When combined they become bactericidal

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217
Q

Why are trimethoprim and sulfonamides combined

A

When combined they become bactericidal

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218
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of trimethroprim sulfonamides

A

Gram positive, gram negative, anaerobes

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219
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of trimethroprim sulfonamides

A

Gram positive, gram negative, anaerobes

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220
Q

Trimethoprim sulfonamides are - dependent

A

Time

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221
Q

With what drug should you tell owners to wear gloves before handling and why

A

Chloramphenicol - causes bore marrow suppression if humans come into direct contact

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222
Q

With what drug should you tell owners to wear gloves before handling and why

A

Chloramphenicol - causes bore marrow suppression if humans come into direct contact

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223
Q

Chloramphenicol is bacteri- and - dependent

A

Bacteristatic and time dependent

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224
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for chloramphenicol

A

Gram prince, gram negative, anaerobes

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225
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for chloramphenicol

A

Gram prince, gram negative, anaerobes

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226
Q

In what animals can you not use lincosmides like clindamycin or lincomysin and why

A

Horses, rabbits or ruminants - cases GI upset/ colic that can be fatal

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227
Q

What are examples of lincosmides, are they bacteristatic or cidal

A

Clindamycin and lincomysin - bacteriostatic

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228
Q

What are examples of Macrolides and what is their spectrum of activity

A

Erythromycin, azithromyan , clarithromycun - gram positive and anaerobes

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229
Q

Macrolides like erythromycin are bacteri- and - dependent

A

Bacteristicic and time dependent

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230
Q

What is the spectrum of action of vancomycin and when should it be used

A

Gram positive - limit use to organisms resident to other antimicrobials

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231
Q

Vancomycin is bacteri- and - dependent

A

Bactericidal and time dependent

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232
Q

What is the spectrum of action of rifampin and when is it mostly used

A

Gram positive - mostly used to that R. Equi pneumonia in foals

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233
Q

What is the spectrum of action of rifampin and when is it mostly used

A

Gram positive - mostly used to that R. Equi pneumonia in foals

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234
Q

Rifampin is bacteri- and - dependent

A

Bactericidal and time dependent

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235
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of metronidazole

A

Anaerobes, Protozoa

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236
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of metronidazole

A

Anaerobes, Protozoa

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237
Q

What are possible side effects of metronidazole

A

Neuralgic signs like weakness, ataxia, vestibular signs, anorexia

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238
Q

Metronidazole is bacteri- and - dependent

A

Bactericidal and concentration dependent

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239
Q

What is the general lifecycle of platelets

A

5-10 days

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240
Q

How long does it take for a platelet plug to form

A

5 minutes

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241
Q

What occurs when vascular endothelium is disrupted (in the coagulation cascade)

A

Collages becomes exposed , attracting platelets which then undergo 3 reactions - adhesion and shape change, secretion, aggregation

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242
Q

What does platelet adhesion during coagulation cascade depend on

A

Von willebrand factor

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243
Q

Describe the coagulation cascade as simply as possible

A

Series of reactions causing fibrin, red cells, plasma and platelets to be trapped in the platelet plug forming a fibrin clot / thrombin absorbs to abrin while the rest of the thrombin is inclipted to prevent excessive clotting

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244
Q

What can bind to anti thrombin to make it more potent in preventing coagulation

A

Heparin

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245
Q

What are the key tests used to assess primary hemostasis

A

Platelet count and bleeding time

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246
Q

At what platelet count would you be concerned for spontaneous bleeding

A

Less than 30,000

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247
Q

At what platelet count would you be concerned for spontaneous bleeding

A

Less than 30,000

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248
Q

What is the buccal mucosal bleeding time test and what is normal

A

Incision is made into skin or mm and time until bleeding completely stops is measured - normal in less than 4 minutes

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249
Q

What does the act test measure - activated clotting time test

A

Measures time required for fibrin clot formation in fresh whole blood

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250
Q

What is normal for the act test

A

60 - 90 second

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251
Q

What is normal for the act test

A

60 - 90 second

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252
Q

What intrinsic pathway test is more sensitive than the act test

A

PTT- activated partial thromboplastin time

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253
Q

What intrinsic pathway test is more sensitive than the act test

A

PTT- activated partial thromboplastin time

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254
Q

What does the pt (prothrombin time) test for

A

Auction of factors 2,5 , 10 and 7

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255
Q

What is Von willebrands disease and which breeds are most affected

A

Low concentration of Von willebrand factor - needed for platelet adhesion, most common in Dobermans (hereditary )

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256
Q

How do yw treat Von willebrands disease

A

Treat with desmopressin/ ddavp 30 minutes before induction of surgery - or fresh frozen plasma

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257
Q

Why is a lack of Von willeband factor a problem

A

Can coagulate when bleeding - continues bleeding!

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258
Q

Why is a lack of Von willeband factor a problem

A

Can coagulate when bleeding - continues bleeding!

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259
Q

What is hemophilia A and what does it cause

A

A factor 8 deficiency - leads to elected PTT and act time

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260
Q

What is hemophilia B and what does it cause

A

Facto a deficiency -leads to elevated act and PTT

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261
Q

With rodenticide toxicity causing a vitamin K deficiency how long does it take to see changes in factor 7? Now long before you see clinical bleeding

A

Share to change factor 7 I 1-2 days to see clinical bleeding

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262
Q

What factors are in the common pathway

A

2,5, 1,10

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263
Q

What factors are in the common pathway

A

2,5, 1,10

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264
Q

What factors are in the intrinsic pathway

A

12,11, 9,8

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265
Q

Which has a smaller diameter - 2-0 or 3-0

A

3-0 (0 is bigger)

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266
Q

Which has a bigger diameter - 0,1, or 2

A

2 ( is not the same as 2-0 )

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267
Q

What are the different suture needle types

A

Taper, cutting or blunt

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268
Q

What is the purpose of taper point suture needle,

A

Use in tissues easy to penetrate

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269
Q

What is the purpose of taper point suture needle,

A

Use in tissues easy to penetrate

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270
Q

What is the purpose of taper cut or cutting needles

A

Use for tough, hard to penetrate tissues

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271
Q

What is the purpose of taper cut or cutting needles

A

Use for tough, hard to penetrate tissues

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272
Q

What are blunt suture needles used for

A

Dissecting triable tissue like liver or kidneys without cutting

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273
Q

Differentiate between monofilament and multifilament suture - what are pros and cons of both

A

Monofilament - single strand, more susceptible to damage, less pliable
Multifilament- braided /twisted strands , greater strength and flexibility, increased tendency for bacterial colonization

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274
Q

Differentiate between monofilament and multifilament suture - what are pros and cons of both

A

Monofilament - single strand, more susceptible to damage, less pliable
Multifilament- braided /twisted strands , greater strength and flexibility, increased tendency for bacterial colonization

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275
Q

What is catgut made out of? Is it nonabsorbable or absorbable

A

Absorbable suture - made from small intestinal submucosa of sheep or intestinal serosa of cattle

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276
Q

How long does absorbable catgut suture last? When should you not use it and why

A

Completely gone in 2-3 weeks (faster if there is an infection) - do not use in organs like the intestines or bladder because proteolytic break down happens very fast

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277
Q

Describe monocryl suture - how long does it last

A

Absorbable, monofilament - stronger initial strength, loses 70 -80% at 2 weeks, completely absorbed in 90-120 days

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278
Q

Describe vicryl suture - how long does it last

A

Absorbable, Multifilament - completely absorbed in 60-70 days

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279
Q

Describe PDS suture - how long does it last

A

Absorbable, monofilament - 50% of tensile strength still present at 5-6 weeks, completely absorbed in 180 day

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280
Q

Describe nylon suture

A

Non absorbable , monofilament - gradually loses strength over time

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281
Q

Describe polypropylene suture - when is it mostly used

A

Non absorbable, monofilament - commonly used in tendon, ligament, joint capsule or fascial closings where extended strength is desired

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282
Q

Describe silk suture

A

Non absorbable, multifilament - degrades in 2 years, has high tissue reactivity

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283
Q

Define tensile strength

A

Ability to resist deformation and breakage, the Shens breakage ours

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284
Q

Define tensile strength

A

Ability to resist deformation and breakage, the Shens breakage ours

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285
Q

How long after surgery does it take for intestines to heal

A

3 - 5 days

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286
Q

What suture patterns are often used to close hollow viscera - differentiate between the two

A

Connell and Cushing patterns are for closing hollow viscera because they create a water tight seal - Cushing only goes into submucosa (not the lumen), , the Connell goes into the lumen

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287
Q

How long does bone healing in adult patients usually take? Young patients?

A

8-12 weeks - young patients can take 2 weeks

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288
Q

What is another name for vasopressin

A

ADH

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289
Q

Which parasite eggs are rectangular in shape? What do they cause

A

Moniezia eggs - non pathogenic usually but can cause intestinal stasis

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290
Q

Which parasite eggs are rectangular in shape? What do they cause

A

Moniezia eggs - non pathogenic usually but can cause intestinal stasis

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291
Q

Which parasite eggs are rectangular in shape? What do they cause

A

Moniezia eggs - non pathogenic usually but can cause intestinal stasis

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292
Q

Who would normally be infected by the monezia tapeworm

A

Young cattle

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293
Q

What can you do if a patient blood pressure starts to drop during surgery

A

Bolus of fluids or turn down anesthetic gas (gases are a potent vasodilator)

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294
Q

What drugs can help treat hypotension during surgery

A

Dobutamine

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295
Q

Which toxic plants cause cyanide / cyanogen toxicity

A

Sorghum/ Johnson grass ,hydrangeas, chokecherry

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296
Q

How does cyanide cause toxicity

A

Absorbed from git, makes it so oxyhemoglobin can not release oxygen leading to cellular hypoxia

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297
Q

What clinical signs would you see in a pet with chanide toxicity due to toxic plant ingestion (like sorghum) and when will you see

A

Can see in 10-15 minutes, acute death offer only sign - excitement, muscle tremors, dyspnea, salivation, urination / defecation

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298
Q

What clinical signs would you see in a pet with chanide toxicity due to toxic plant ingestion (like sorghum) and when will you see

A

Can see in 10-15 minutes, acute death offer only sign - excitement, muscle tremors, dyspnea, salivation, urination / defecation

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299
Q

What is the key clinical finding that leads you to suspect cyanide toxicity due to sorghum or hydrangea ingestion

A

Bright charred blood or mucus membranes

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300
Q

How do you treat cyanide toxicity due to toxic plant ingestion

A

Sodium nitrite ( makes methemoglobin which binds the cyanide) and sodium thiosulfate (helps react with the cyanide to be excreted in urine)

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301
Q

Which plants are nitrate accumulating leading to toxicity mostly in ruminants

A

Pigweed, nightshades, sorghum (also has cyanide), rye, alfalfa

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302
Q

Why does nitrate toxicity affect mostly ruminants when ingested by toxic plants

A

Rumen microbes reduce nitrate to nitrite - which cases the methemoglobinemia, leading to diminished oxygen carrying capacity

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303
Q

Why is methemoglobinemia bad

A

Methemoglobin can’t bind oxygen so can’t carry oxygen to the tissues

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304
Q

What is almost pathopneumonic for nitrate toxicity

A

Dark brown blood due to diminished oxygen carrying capacity

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305
Q

What clinical signs can be associated with nitrate toxicity due to toxic plant ingestion

A

Muddy mucous membranes, dysenea, tremorss, convulsions, ataxia, tachycardia

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306
Q

How do you treat nitrate toxicity de to plant ingestion like alfalfa, pigweed or nightshades

A

1% Methylene blue - reduce methemoglobin to invest oxygen carrying capacity

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307
Q

Give some examples of cardiotoxic plants

A

Oleander, yew, rhododendron, foxglove

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308
Q

What clinical signs might you see from cardiotoxic pants like oleander

A

AV block, weakness, hypotension salivation, nausea , vomiting, collapse and acute death

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309
Q

What clinical signs might you see from cardiotoxic pants like oleander

A

AV block, weakness, hypotension salivation, nausea , vomiting, collapse and acute death

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310
Q

What is an AV block in simple terms

A

Electrical signal from atria to the ventricles is impaired

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311
Q

Define hematochezia

A

Frank blood in feces

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312
Q

What treatments can you perform to treat cardio toxic plant ingestion like with yew and rhododendron

A

Emiesis if recent, activated charcoal, atropine to increase heart rate it severe bradycardia, quinidine for av block

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313
Q

What plant is the causative agent of primary photosensitization

A

St. John’s wart

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314
Q

What plant is the causative agent of primary photosensitization

A

St. John’s wart

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315
Q

What plants can cause secondary photosensitization

A

Any plant cau sing liver failure - blue green algae, groundsel , brassica

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316
Q

What plants can cause secondary photosensitization

A

Any plant cau sing liver failure - blue green algae, groundsel , brassica

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317
Q

Describe primary photosensitization and its prognosis

A

Ingested ur absorbed agent is metabolized to become photodynamic which causes free radical damage - usually affects skin mostly and has a better prognosis than secondary

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318
Q

Describe primary photosensitization and its prognosis

A

Ingested ur absorbed agent is metabolized to become photodynamic which causes free radical damage - usually affects skin mostly and has a better prognosis than secondary

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319
Q

Describe secondary photosensitization

A

Impaired hepatic function reduces exaction of plant pigment like phylloeythin which causes damage to the liver along with skin lesions

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320
Q

What clinical signs can you see with photo sensitizing plants like blue green algae or St. John’s wort

A

Erytrena, edema, peeling, prorates, hyperesthesia, can cause exudation and ulceration

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321
Q

Which species is most affected by lupine toxicity (neurotoxic plant ingestion)

A

Sheep - a teratogen in cattle

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322
Q

Define a teratogen

A

Factor that causes information of an embryo

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323
Q

Define a teratogen

A

Factor that causes information of an embryo

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324
Q

What clinical signs might you see with lupine toxicity

A

Salivation, incoordination, head pressing, wandering, excitement, mode tremors, seizures, dyspnea

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325
Q

How does lupine toxicity affect calves

A

Causes crooked calf syndrome, scoliosis, carpal flexure - teratogen in cattle

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326
Q

How do you treat lupine neurotoxicity in sheep

A

No treatment

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327
Q

What clinical signs could you see with poison hemlock ingestion and when would you see them

A

Very rapid development - salivation, vomiting, diarrhea, muscle tremors, death from respiratory failure

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328
Q

How do you treat poison hemlock ingestion

A

No specific treatment

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329
Q

How does larkspur cause toxicity

A

Is a neuromuscular blocker causing neurotoxicity

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330
Q

What clinical signs can you see from larkspur toxicity

A

Bloat, excitability , muscle tremors, arrhythmias, death from respiratory paralysis

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331
Q

How does nightshade ingestion cause toxicity

A

Nitrate accumulation but also a GI irritant and a neurotoxin

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332
Q

What clinical signs could you see with nightshade toxicity

A

Anorexia, apathy, Paresis, prostration, vomiting, abdominal pain

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333
Q

Which species are usually affected by bracken fern toxicity

A

Cathe, sheep, pigs, horses

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334
Q

How is bracken fern toxic

A

Leads to a thiamine deficiencies which cause polioencephalo malacia, also leads to carcinogenicity and bore marrow suppression in ruminants by affecting DNA

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335
Q

What clinical signs could you see with Bracken fern toxicity

A

Incoordination, standing with legs apart, depression muscle tremors, blinders, retinal degeneration

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336
Q

Which species is most susceptible to black walnut toxicity and now do they usually get exposed

A

Horses - exposure from bedding/shavings

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337
Q

What clinical signs might you see from black walnut toxicity

A

Acute laminitis from necrosis of dorsal laminae, distal limb edema, fever

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338
Q

What are 2 options to decontaminate the git after toxicity

A

Mineral oil or activated charcoal

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339
Q

What are 2 options to decontaminate the git after toxicity

A

Mineral oil or activated charcoal

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340
Q

How is castor bean toxic

A

Contains ricin that has a highly toxic glycoprotein

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341
Q

What clinical signs might you see from caster bean toxicity

A

Anorexia, vomiting, weakness, Mosley spasms, sweating, ataxia, extensive organ edema and damage

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342
Q

How does cottonseed cause toxicity? Which species are affected

A

Contains gossypol which can be cardio toxic to young animals - affects cattle, sheep and pigs

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343
Q

What clinical signs can you see with cottonseed/ gossypol toxicity

A

Sudden death due to heart failure, anorexia, redurire, pot belly appearance, por performance

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344
Q

What clinical signs can you see with dumbing plant toxicity

A

Irritated mm, ptyalism, edematous swelling of tongue and lips, difficulty swallowing

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345
Q

What clinical signs could you see with locoweed toxicity

A

Ataxia, hypermetria, cracker heels, conscious proprioceptive deficits, emaciation, emphysema, abortions

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346
Q

How does waterhemlock cause toxicity

A

Contains circutoxin highly toxic to the cattle and horses

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347
Q

What clinical signs are caused by water hemlock toxicity

A

Acute violent titanic seizures I rapid progression from salivation to muscle twitching, seizures, coma, death

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348
Q

How is yellow star thistle toxic

A

Nigropallidal encephalomalicia - chewing disease, causative agent unknown

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349
Q

How is yellow star thistle toxic

A

Nigropallidal encephalomalicia - chewing disease, causative agent unknown

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350
Q

What clinical signs do you see with yellow star thistle

A

Inability to eat and drink due to dystonia of lips and tongue, continuous chewing motions, behavior changes, chewing and dropping food

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351
Q

How does perilla mint cause toxicity

A

Causes pulmonary edema and pleural effusion

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352
Q

How does perilla mint cause toxicity

A

Causes pulmonary edema and pleural effusion

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353
Q

What clinical signs can you see with perilla mint toxicity

A

Respiratory distress due to atypical intestinal edema and emphysema , nasal discharge

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354
Q

What clinical signs can you see with perilla mint toxicity

A

Respiratory distress due to atypical intestinal edema and emphysema , nasal discharge

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355
Q

What is another name for western false hellebore and what is it known for causing

A

Veratrum Californium - cyclopia in lambs if ewe eat plant on day 14

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356
Q

Who is affected by white snakeroot toxicity and how is it toxic

A

Horses and cattle affected - contains trematone (a ketone) passed to young in milk

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357
Q

Who is affected by white snakeroot toxicity and how is it toxic

A

Horses and cattle affected - contains trematone (a ketone) passed to young in milk

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358
Q

What clinical signs could you see with white snakeroot toxicity

A

Weakness, myocardial necrosis and CHF, jugular push, muscle tremors , acetone breath

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359
Q

How does red maple cause toxicity in horses

A

Causes Red blood cell lysis leading to icterus, anemia, hemoglobinemia, hemoglobinuria

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360
Q

How does red maple cause toxicity in horses

A

Causes Red blood cell lysis leading to icterus, anemia, hemoglobinemia, hemoglobinuria

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361
Q

How does ponderosa pine cause toxicity

A

Pine needle abortions - weak contractions , small calf, retained fetal membranes

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362
Q

What is a normal PaCO2

A

Normal - 35 to 45
Hyperventilation less than 30
Hypoventilation over 50

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363
Q

What is a normal PaCO2

A

Normal - 35 to 45
Hyperventilation less than 30
Hypoventilation over 50

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364
Q

How can you help rule in or out neoplasia in the spine

A

They don’t usually cross joints

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365
Q

How can you help rule in or out neoplasia in the spine

A

They don’t usually cross joints

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366
Q

What is usually the causative agent of discospondylitis

A

Bacterial in origin - staphylococcus usually the origin

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367
Q

What is usually the causative agent of discospondylitis

A

Bacterial in origin - staphylococcus usually the origin

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368
Q

What could be used to help diagnose discospondylitis

A

Urine or blood cultures to identify causative bacterial agent

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369
Q
  • Is a topical drug that can cause ototoxicity and peripheral vestibular disease
A

Chlorhexidine

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370
Q

What common drug can cause central vestibular disease

A

Metronidazole

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371
Q

Could you use enrofloxacin to treat periodontal disease

A

No - is not effective against anaerobic bacteria which commonly is found in the mouth

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372
Q

Which antibiotic are best to use for oral infections and why

A

Beta lactams and clindamycin (lincosamide) because of their activity against anaerobes

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373
Q

What would you expect to see on thoracic rads in a dog with a penetrating trump

A

Pneumothorax

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374
Q

What would you expect to see on thoracic rads in a dog with a penetrating trump

A

Pneumothorax

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375
Q

Is cryptosporidium bacterial?

A

No - it is protozoal

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376
Q

Define extramedillary hematopoietis

A

Red blood cells produced in spleen and liver

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377
Q

How is oxygen transported by erythrocytes

A

Bound to hemoglobin

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378
Q

How is oxygen transported by erythrocytes

A

Bound to hemoglobin

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379
Q

What is the biggest difference between reticulocytes and erythrocytes on cytology

A

Reticulocytes - cytoplasm blue
Erythrocytes - cytoplasm red/pink

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380
Q

What is the biggest difference between reticulocytes and erythrocytes on cytology

A

Reticulocytes - cytoplasm blue
Erythrocytes - cytoplasm red/pink

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381
Q

Describe differences in the way RBCs look on blood smears

A

Cats, horses - lack central pallor
Dogs, cattle - small area of central pallor

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382
Q

Describe differences in the way RBCs look on blood smears

A

Cats, horses - lack central pallor
Dogs, cattle - small area of central pallor

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383
Q

Define polychromasia

A

Increased reticulocytes meaning RBC regeneration

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384
Q

Define polychromasia

A

Increased reticulocytes meaning RBC regeneration

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385
Q

What does a high MCHC indicate

A

Trick question - a cell isn’t have excess hemoglobin

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386
Q

What does a high MCHC indicate

A

Trick question - a cell isn’t have excess hemoglobin

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387
Q

At how many reticulocytes in horse is the anemia considered regenerative

A

Trick - horses do not release reticulocytes

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388
Q

What is a normal pcv value for dogs? Cats? Cows ?

A

Dogs - 45
Cats - 35
Cows- 35

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389
Q

What is a normal pcv value for dogs? Cats? Cows ?

A

Dogs - 45
Cats - 35
Cows- 35

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390
Q

What are possible causes of a microcytic anemia

A

Iron deficiency, portosystemic shunt, foals less man 6 months just naturally have a low MCV, Japanese breed dogs

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391
Q

What are possible causes of a microcytic anemia

A

Iron deficiency, portosystemic shunt, foals less man 6 months just naturally have a low MCV, Japanese breed dogs

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392
Q

What are differentials for a normacytic anemia

A

Anemia of chronic disease

393
Q

What are differentials for a normacytic anemia

A

Anemia of chronic disease

394
Q

Hemoglobin synthesis requires -

A

Iron

395
Q

What are differentials for microcytic anemia

A

Erythrocyte regeneration, RBC agglutination causing an artificially high MCV, poodles have a poodle macrocutosis , felv infection will increase MCV, cobalamin deficiency

396
Q

What are differentials for a low MCHC

A

Iron deficiency, erythroid regeneration

397
Q

What are differentials for a normal MCHC with in anemia

A

Anemia of chronic disease

398
Q

What is a metarubicytosis

A

Increased nucleated red blood cells

399
Q

What could cause an inappropriate metarubicytosis ( increased nucleated red blood cells without regeneration or anemia at all)

A

Recent fracture or bone surgery casing release from bone morrow or splenic injury

400
Q

What clinical signs can you see with anemia

A

Pale mm, syncope, trchuprea, tachycardia, weakness

401
Q

What is the body’s normal response to anemia

A

The hypoxemia stimulates venal cortical cells to release EPO which stimulates erythropoiesis in bone marrow, liver and spleen to release reticulocytes except in horses)

402
Q

How long does it take to see a reticulocytes response in anemia cases

A

2-3 days but max response is 7-10 days

403
Q

How long does it take to see a reticulocytes response in anemia cases

A

2-3 days but max response is 7-10 days

404
Q

What are 2 regenerative causes of anemia

A

Blood loss/ hemorrhage and hemolysis/ destruction

405
Q

What is one non regenerative cause of anemia

A

Lack of production

406
Q

What are differentials for hemolysis causing a regenerative anemia

A

RBC parasitism or infection by mycoplasma, babesia, etc , oxidative injury leading to Heinz bodies like with onions, garlic, red maple, copper, etc, immune mediated causes

407
Q

What are differentials for a non regenerative anemia causing lack of RBC production

A

Chronic renal failure leading to no EPO from renal cortical cells , bone marrow disorder, anemia of chronic disease, liver disease, hypothyroidism

408
Q

What pct value indicates severe anemia in cats and dogs

A

Less than 23% in both

409
Q

Low albumin and globulin with an anemia suggests _

A

Blood loss

410
Q

Low albumin and globulin with an anemia suggests _

A

Blood loss

411
Q

A do g comes in with history of blood loss in the last hour - why could his reticulocutes be normal

A

Can be pre regenerative anemia - takes 2-3 days to see a response

412
Q

A microcytic hypo chronic anemia suggests what cause

A

Iron deficiency anemia - iron needed for hemoglobin

413
Q

What can hyper bilirubinemia indicate in a horse

A

Anorexia - or possibly hemolytic anemia

414
Q

A nonregenerative anemia , azotemia and isosthenuria support what diagnosis

A

Venal failure with a lack of EPO ( why it is non regenerative)

415
Q

How can platelets be affected with acute blood loss

A

Can be high due to splenic contraction trying to keep up with blood loss, or can be low due to consumption of platelets thing to control bleeding or normal if too acute

416
Q

How can platelets be affected with acute blood loss

A

Can be high due to splenic contraction trying to keep up with blood loss, or can be low due to consumption of platelets thing to control bleeding or normal if too acute

417
Q

Chronic external blood loss can lead to - and why

A

Iron deficiency because iron can’t be recycled

418
Q

Is chronic blood loss a regenerative or non regenerative anemia

A

Usually starts as regenerative then became non regenerative are to decreased availability of iron and hemoglobin

419
Q

What will iron deficiency look like on blood smear

A

Small pale RBCs, evidence of RBC damage (keratocytes, schistocytes)

420
Q

What retroviral infections can cause hemolysis

A

FeLV in cats, equine infectious anemia

421
Q

Which rickettsial organisms can cause hemolysis

A

Anaplasma and erlichia

422
Q

What infectious causes can lead to RBC hemolysis

A

Mycoplasma, babesia, anaplasma, theileria, cytazoun felis

423
Q

What do Heinz bodies look like

A

Small red dot at the edge of the red blood cell

424
Q

What do ghost cells indicate

A

Intravascular hemolysis

425
Q

What do spherocytes, look like

A

Dark red blood cells except in the horse and the cat they lack central pallor

426
Q

What is the difference between iron deficiency and iron sequestration

A

Iron deficiency - lack of iron due to issues with heme in hemoglobin
Iron sequestration - iron is tucked away in macrophagesso cat be used for RBC production

427
Q

What is the difference between iron deficiency and iron sequestration

A

Iron deficiency - lack of iron due to issues with heme in hemoglobin
Iron sequestration - iron is tucked away in macrophagesso cat be used for RBC production

428
Q

What will the proteins look like in cases of anemia of chronic disease /inflammation

A

Low albumin, high globulin due to inflammation

429
Q

Describe CBC findings in generalized bone marrow disease and why they occur like that

A

Will see neutropenia first became neutrophil life span is 12 hours, then will see a thrombocytopenia became platelet lifespan is 5-7 days, then will see anemia became RBC lifespan is 3-4 months

430
Q

Describe CBC findings in generalized bone marrow disease and why they occur like that

A

Will see neutropenia first became neutrophil life span is 12 hours, then will see a thrombocytopenia became platelet lifespan is 5-7 days, then will see anemia became RBC lifespan is 3-4 months

431
Q

What is polycythemia

A

Erythrocytes / increased PCV and RBC

432
Q

What is polycythemia

A

Erythrocytes / increased PCV and RBC

433
Q

Who is usually affected by vesicular stomatitis

A

Pigs, horses, cattle

434
Q

Who is usually affected by vesicular stomatitis

A

Pigs, horses, cattle

435
Q

What are dohle bodies and what do they look like

A

Blueish gray dots inside neutrophils that indicate toxic changes

436
Q

Define synovitis

A

Information of the synovial membrane lining joints

437
Q

What is bog spavin

A

Affects horses - tarsal hydrarthrosis of both limbs leading to increased synovial fluid , intermittent tarsal distantion

438
Q

What is bog spavin

A

Affects horses - tarsal hydrarthrosis of both limbs leading to increased synovial fluid , intermittent tarsal distantion

439
Q

What is bone spavin

A

Osteoarthritis of the hock

440
Q

What is bone spavin

A

Osteoarthritis of the hock

441
Q

Which species is not affected by pseudorabies

A

All farm animals are affected except horses

442
Q

What clinical signs will you see with pseudorabies in other species

A

Severe local pruritis leading to self mutilation, neuro signs causing convulsions, paralysis, respiratory distress, sudden death

443
Q

Why does Dexamethasone work to decrease cerebral edema

A

A corticosteroid so it helps reduce inflammation

444
Q

White muscle disease is a - disease due to - affecting -

A

Myodegenerative disease associated with deficiency of vitamin E or selenium - affects horses, ruminants, pigs and poultry

445
Q

Which muscles are mostly affected by white muscle disease and why muscles specifically

A

Cardiac and skeletal muscles mostly - muscles are pone to damage due to their high metabolic activity

446
Q

Which muscles are mostly affected by white muscle disease and why muscles specifically

A

Cardiac and skeletal muscles mostly - muscles are pone to damage due to their high metabolic activity

447
Q

Which form of white muscle disease carries a worse prognosis

A

Cardiac form can cause acute death - the skeletal form is more responsive to treatment

448
Q

What is the pathogenesis of white muscle disease (brief)

A

Deficiency in selenium or vitamin E means body cant control naturally made oxygen free radicals that cause damage to muscle cells

449
Q

Why would an animal be vitamin E deficient or selenium deficient

A

Poor quality hay can cause a vitamin E deficiency, certain areas can lack selenium in the soil

450
Q

Why would an animal be vitamin E deficient or selenium deficient

A

Poor quality hay can cause a vitamin E deficiency, certain areas can lack selenium in the soil

451
Q

What clinical signs can you see with the cardiac form of white muscle disease/ nutritional myodegeneration

A

Sudden onset, severely debilitated, miss dischorse, respiratory distress, rapid heart beat possibly irregular lesions found on heart, diaphragm and intercostal muscles

452
Q

What clinical signs can you see with the cardiac form of white muscle disease/ nutritional myodegeneration

A

Sudden onset, severely debilitated, miss dischorse, respiratory distress, rapid heart beat possibly irregular lesions found on heart, diaphragm and intercostal muscles

453
Q

What clinical signs can you see with the skeletal form of white male disease

A

Mille weakness or stiffness, recumbency, trembling, hard and painful muscles, respiratory distress, dysphagia

454
Q

How can you diagnose white muscle disease

A

Elevations in AST, CK, myoglobinuria decreased serum vitamin E or selenium - affected muscles of limbs, diaphragm, heart and tongue can look grey to white

455
Q

Why would you use hypertonic saline to treat shock

A

Increases intrasvascular volume (therefore increasing blood pressure) by making a hyperosmoric state and pulling water from the intracellular space

456
Q

Why would you use hypertonic saline to treat shock

A

Increases intrasvascular volume (therefore increasing blood pressure) by making a hyperosmoric state and pulling water from the intracellular space

457
Q

If a horse presents with colic signs and signs of shock (increased heart rate, weak pulses, discolored mm) - what do you do first

A

Place an IV catheter the start on 7% hypertonic saline then add isotonic fluids

458
Q

What are examples of isotonic grids

A

LRS, 0.9% nacl (normal saline)

459
Q

What are examples of isotonic grids

A

LRS, 0.9% nacl (normal saline)

460
Q

Increased MHz on ultrasound means

A

Decreased depth but increased detail

461
Q

Increased MHz on ultrasound means

A

Decreased depth but increased detail

462
Q

Where is the vestibular apparatus located - what is it composed of

A

Inner ear - includes cochlea, semicircular canals, and vestibule

463
Q

Where do vestibular neurons travel through and enter the skull

A

Travel through vestibulocochlear nerve (cranial nerve 8) - enter skull through internal acoustic meatus

464
Q

What 3 cranial nerves (through the vestibular system) control eye position

A

3 (oculomotor), 4 (trochlear), and 6 (abducens)

465
Q

What clinical signs would you expect to see with peripheral vestibular disease

A

Head tilt, circling, falling toward the side of the lesion, pathologic nystagmus, concurrent facial paralysis, Horner’s syndrome

466
Q

What clinical signs would you expect to see with peripheral vestibular disease

A

Head tilt, circling, falling toward the side of the lesion, pathologic nystagmus, concurrent facial paralysis, Horner’s syndrome

467
Q

Describe bilateral peripheral vestibular disease

A

Rare - don’t see a head tilt r nystagmus like with unilateral - main sign will be a wide crouching stance with hide swaying of the head

468
Q

If you find Horners syndrome on your neuro exam - what disease is indicated

A

Peripheral vestibular disease

469
Q

Simplify Horners disease to 3 clinical signs

A

Miosis, ptosis, enophthalomas

470
Q

What disease is indicated by conscious proprioceptive deficits

A

Brainstem disease

471
Q

What do cranial nerve deficits indicate

A

Multiple deficits indicates central disease - facial nerve paralysis can mean peripheral disease

472
Q

What do cranial nerve deficits indicate

A

Multiple deficits indicates central disease - facial nerve paralysis can mean peripheral disease

473
Q

What does the presence of a head tremor indicate

A

Cerebella disease

474
Q

What does altered mention on neuro exam indicate

A

Central disease

475
Q

How on you diagnose peripheral vestibular disease

A

Otoscopic exam, rads, thyroid testing

476
Q

How on you diagnose peripheral vestibular disease

A

Otoscopic exam, rads, thyroid testing

477
Q

How can you diagnose central vestibular disease

A

CT / MRI or CSF analysis

478
Q

How can you diagnose central vestibular disease

A

CT / MRI or CSF analysis

479
Q

Describe idiopathic vestibular syndrome

A

Peracute 1 will improve spontaneously in a few dans but the red hilt may not go away completely

480
Q

What would you not use to treat otitis media casing vestibular disease and why

A

Aminoglycosides due to otoxicity

481
Q

What would you not use to treat otitis media casing vestibular disease and why

A

Aminoglycosides due to otoxicity

482
Q

What is commonly used to treat Otis media causing vestibular disease

A

Enrofloxacin

483
Q

What is commonly used to treat Otis media causing vestibular disease

A

Enrofloxacin

484
Q

What is commonly implicated in causing ototoxicity

A

Clorohexidine and aminoglycosides

485
Q

What endocrine disorder can cause peripheral vestibular disease and why

A

Hypothyroidism casing poly neuropathy leading to vestibular signs

486
Q

What are differentials for peripheral vestibular disease

A

Idiopathic, otitis media , ototoxicity, neoplasia, nasopharyngeal polyps, hypothyroidism

487
Q

What are differentials for central vestibular disease

A

Neoplasia, drug toxicity (metronidazole ), inflammatory brain disease, cerebrovasculsr disease, thiamine deficiency

488
Q

What drug can cause central vestibular disease and at what dose

A

Metronidazole at more than 30 mg/kg/day

489
Q

Amlodipine is a- used to treat -

A

Calcium channel blocker used to treat systemic hypertension

490
Q

What is a rule of thumb when thing to determine secondary copper deficiency

A

Copper levels in feed should be five times the molybdenum

491
Q

What is a rule of thumb when thing to determine secondary copper deficiency

A

Copper levels in feed should be five times the molybdenum

492
Q

What ave general causes of uveitis

A

Infection (viral, bacterial, fungal, rickettsial), immune mediated (lens induced uveitis), neoplasia, hypertension, trauma

493
Q

Oleander and gossypol are both - and can cause -

A

Cardiotoxic and can cause acute death

494
Q

Fast phase nystagmus is - to the lesion

A

Away from the lesion

495
Q

Fast phase nystagmus is - to the lesion

A

Away from the lesion

496
Q

What is the causative agent of anthrax - describe it

A

Bacillus anthracis - a gram positive aerobic rod, spore forming

497
Q

Anthrax is - and -

A

Zoonotic and reportable

498
Q

What should not be used to treat suspected fungal infections and why

A

Glucocorticoids because it can cause immune suppression

499
Q

Describe hypertrophic osteopathy lesions

A

Dows in association with a thoracic mass, usually startsat distal limbs the moves proximally1 chacteria by periosteol proliferation near joints

500
Q

Describe hypertrophic osteopathy lesions

A

Dows in association with a thoracic mass, usually startsat distal limbs the moves proximally1 chacteria by periosteol proliferation near joints

501
Q

What is tensilon /edrophonium and what is it used for

A

Rapid acting anticholinesterase - reverses signs of mystery gravis in minutes in dogs, used as a tensilon response test

502
Q

What an occur secondary to a thymoma

A

Secondary myasthenia gravis

503
Q

What type of lice can cause anemia

A

Anoplura - sucking lice

504
Q

What are side effects of using sulfa drugs like trimethoprim sulfa

A

Hypersensitivity reactions causing urticaria and anaphylaxis - can also cause immune reactions leading to thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia, etc

505
Q

What are side effects of using sulfa drugs like trimethoprim sulfa

A

Hypersensitivity reactions causing urticaria and anaphylaxis - can also cause immune reactions leading to thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia, etc

506
Q

How can you differentiate between a septic peritonitis and a non on septic peritonitis

A

Compare the blood glucose - it the blood glucose is 20 mg/dL higher than the abdominal it is septic

507
Q

How can you differentiate between a septic peritonitis and a non on septic peritonitis

A

Compare the blood glucose - it the blood glucose is 20 mg/dL higher than the abdominal it is septic

508
Q

Radiographs sharing vertebral end plate lysis is diagnostic for -

A

Discospondylitis

509
Q

Radiographs sharing vertebral end plate lysis is diagnostic for -

A

Discospondylitis

510
Q

Radiographs sharing vertebral end plate lysis is diagnostic for -

A

Discospondylitis

511
Q

What normally causes discospondylitis

A

Hematogenous spread of bacteria from a distantly infected site

512
Q

What normally causes discospondylitis

A

Hematogenous spread of bacteria from a distantly infected site

513
Q

What normally causes discospondylitis

A

Hematogenous spread of bacteria from a distantly infected site

514
Q

What is the reversal for xylazine

A

Yohimbine

515
Q

What is the reversal for xylazine

A

Yohimbine

516
Q

What is the reversal for diazepam

A

Flumazenil

517
Q

What is the reversal for diazepam

A

Flumazenil

518
Q

What is the reversal for medetonidine

A

Atipemazole

519
Q

What is the reversal for medetonidine

A

Atipemazole

520
Q

Milkweed ingestion can cause

A

Acute death - is a cardiac glycoside

521
Q

Milkweed ingestion can cause

A

Acute death - is a cardiac glycoside

522
Q

What can moldy sweet clover cause

A

Coagulopathy due to vitamin K antagonism - after consuming for awhile

523
Q

What can moldy sweet clover cause

A

Coagulopathy due to vitamin K antagonism - after consuming for awhile

524
Q

Bracken fern toxicity causes

A

Bone marrow depression in ruminants - chronic response

525
Q

Bracken fern toxicity causes

A

Bone marrow depression in ruminants - chronic response

526
Q

Ragwort is a- causing -

A

PA causing chronic liver disease

527
Q

What is brown blood called / due to

A

Methemoglobinemia - can be due to oxidative injury

528
Q

What is brown blood called / due to

A

Methemoglobinemia - can be due to oxidative injury

529
Q

What on a urinalysis would make you not believe a negative bacteria in the urine

A

Isosthenuria (low usg) became it is too dilute

530
Q

What on a urinalysis would make you not believe a negative bacteria in the urine

A

Isosthenuria (low usg) became it is too dilute

531
Q

What is ponazuril approved for use for

A

Antiprotozal - EPM and some coccidiosis like isospura suis in pigs

532
Q

You find lymphocytic vasculitis on tissue histopath from a cow - what is your diagnosis

A

Malignant catarrhal fever

533
Q

You find lymphocytic vasculitis on tissue histopath from a cow - what is your diagnosis

A

Malignant catarrhal fever

534
Q

Left atrial enlargement predisposes to what

A

Atrial thrombosis leading to a saddle thrombus at the aortic bifurcation

535
Q

Left atrial enlargement predisposes to what

A

Atrial thrombosis leading to a saddle thrombus at the aortic bifurcation

536
Q

Maine coon cats are predisposed to - at a young age

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

537
Q

Maine coon cats are predisposed to - at a young age

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

538
Q

What is the bunnel suture pattern used for

A

Oppose severed tendons

539
Q

What is the bunnel suture pattern used for

A

Oppose severed tendons

540
Q

What is the nadir

A

Low point of the blood glucose curve, usually 5 -7 hours after insulin administration

541
Q

What is the nadir

A

Low point of the blood glucose curve, usually 5 -7 hours after insulin administration

542
Q

Why can’t doxycycline be used to treat lymphoma

A

Antibiotic

543
Q

Why can’t doxycycline be used to treat lymphoma

A

Antibiotic

544
Q

Cranial nerve 6 is involved in - so a lesion would cause

A

Eye movement - leaden lads to medial strabismus

545
Q

Cranial nerve 6 is involved in - so a lesion would cause

A

Eye movement - leaden lads to medial strabismus

546
Q

Describe what 3rd degree av block looks like on an ECG

A

No regular PR interval , ventricular escape beats

547
Q

Describe what 3rd degree av block looks like on an ECG

A

No regular PR interval , ventricular escape beats

548
Q

What is the difference in using itrconazole versus amphotericin B to treat blastomycosis

A

Amphotericin B has greater side effect risk like nephrotoxicity and is too short of a duration to be as effective as itraconazole

549
Q

What is the difference in using itrconazole versus amphotericin B to treat blastomycosis

A

Amphotericin B has greater side effect risk like nephrotoxicity and is too short of a duration to be as effective as itraconazole

550
Q

You diagnose blastomycosis in a dog with a wound on forelimb - what do you need to do

A

Check for metastasis at lymph nodes, ocular, or on chest rads

551
Q

Why is SIBO (small intestine bacterial overgrowth) a sequel to EPI

A

Pancreatic find has antimicrobial role , altered intestinal motility and decreased immunity due to inappetence causing maknutrition

552
Q

What is anisocytisis

A

Variation in red blood cell size on blood smear

553
Q

What is anisocytisis

A

Variation in red blood cell size on blood smear

554
Q

You find rouleax on blood smear of a horse - what does this indicate

A

Nothing - normal in healthy horses

555
Q

Visceral larval migrans is caused by

A

Toxocara canis

556
Q

Visceral larval migrans is caused by

A

ToxoCara canis

557
Q

Cutaneous larval migrans in humans is caused by

A

Ancyclostoma

558
Q

Cutaneous larval migrans in humans is caused by

A

Ancyclostoma

559
Q

What indicates an upper GI obstruction

A

Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis

560
Q

What indicates an upper GI obstruction

A

Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis

561
Q

What is a top expected finding in a dog with Addisons disease

A

Hyperkalemia

562
Q

What does GGT tell you

A

Marker of hepatabiliary disorders and cholestasis in large animals

563
Q

What does GGT tell you

A

Marker of hepatabiliary disorders and cholestasis in large animals

564
Q

What clinical signs can you see with gossypol toxicity - where does it come from

A

Dysprea, weakness, sudden death - cottonseed

565
Q

What clinical signs can you see with gossypol toxicity - where does it come from

A

Dysprea, weakness, sudden death - cottonseed

566
Q

What are options to treat blastomycosis in dogs

A

azole drugs (itraconazole, fluconazole, ketoconazole, voriconazole) or Amphotericin B ( can also do a combination)

567
Q

What are options to treat blastomycosis in dogs

A

azole drugs (itraconazole, fluconazole, ketoconazole, voriconazole) or Amphotericin B ( can also do a combination)

568
Q

What are some options for treatment with a suspected insulinoma

A

CRI of glucagon, glucocorticoids to antagonize insulin affects

569
Q

Can you give a CRI of dextrose if an insulinoma is suspected

A

You could but you risk the tumor responding with a mass release of insulin

569
Q

Can you give a CRI of dextrose if an insulinoma is suspected

A

You could but you risk the tumor responding with a mass release of insulin

570
Q

What plant can cause CNS abnormalities and abortion in grazing animals? When are you likely to see cases

A

Locoweed- often see when food supply is limited/scarce, usually out west

571
Q

What plant can cause CNS abnormalities and abortion in grazing animals? When are you likely to see cases

A

Locoweed- often see when food supply is limited/scarce, usually out west

572
Q

What are possible side effects of contrast used in myelograms

A

Seizures

573
Q

What are possible side effects of contrast used in myelograms

A

Seizures

574
Q

What is the difference between the DAPP and DHPP vaccine

A

Nothing - same vaccine; stands for distemper, adenovirus , parvovirus and parainfluenza virus and sometimes it is called dhpp because adenovins causes hepatitis (so distemper, hepatitis, parvo and parainfluenza )

575
Q

How early on you give a dhpp vaccine in puppies

A

Minimum 6 weeks old

576
Q

How early on you give a dhpp vaccine in puppies

A

Minimum 6 weeks old

577
Q

When can you heartworm test puppies for the first time

A

6-7 months old (that’s the prepatent period - period from infection to clinical signs) at the earliest heartworms will develop

578
Q

What is the treatment of choice for coccidiomycosis

A

Fluconazole - can also use ketoconazole and itraconazole

579
Q

Finding spherules on cytology indicates -

A

Pathopneumonic for coccidiomycosis

580
Q

Finding spherules on cytology indicates -

A

Pathopneumonic for coccidiomycosis

581
Q

What is the cushings reflex

A

Increased intracranial pressure leads to hypertension and bradycardia

582
Q

What is the cushings reflex

A

Increased intracranial pressure leads to hypertension and bradycardia

583
Q

What at home modifications can be made for a dog with megaesophagus

A

High calorie diet (so less volume) and fed right at 45 to 90 degree angle so food goes straight to stomach / sit for 10-15 minutes to prevent regurg

584
Q

Omeprazole is a_ used to -

A

Proton pump inhibitor used to prevent gastric ulcers

585
Q

Omeprazole is a_ used to -

A

Proton pump inhibitor used to prevent gastric ulcers

586
Q

How an anthrax affect humans

A

Cutaneous anthrax causing vesicles then ulcerations with edema, black eschar (tissue that dies and falls off) or GI anthrax hon eating contaminated meat causing vomiting, abdominal pain, hemorrhagic diarrhea

587
Q

Describe the respiratory form of anthrax in humans

A

Inhalation, causing severe disease with almost 100% mortality , causes severe bacteremia, shock - death in 2 to 3 days from bacillus endotoxins

588
Q

Describe the respiratory form of anthrax in humans

A

Inhalation, causing severe disease with almost 100% mortality , causes severe bacteremia, shock - death in 2 to 3 days from bacillus endotoxins

589
Q

How do you treat anthrax

A

Ciprofloxacin (main), doxycycline, penicillins for 60 days - prophylctically that the herd with affected animal

590
Q

What signs can you see with fiddleneck

A

A pyrrazalidine alkaloid plant so hepatotoxic with 3 classic signs - megalocytosis, biliary duct hyperplasia and fibrosis, then inter secondary photosensitization

591
Q

What signs can you see with fiddleneck

A

A pyrrazalidine alkaloid plant so hepatotoxic with 3 classic signs - megalocytosis, biliary duct hyperplasia and fibrosis, then inter secondary photosensitization

592
Q

How do you give diazepam and why

A

IV - painful if given IM and has poor absorption that way

593
Q

How do you give diazepam and why

A

IV - painful if given IM and has poor absorption that way

594
Q

What side effects can you see when using ketamine

A

Increased muscle tore, increase heart rate, increase arterial pressure - can also cause apneic breathing and induce seizures (also ataxia when waking up)

595
Q

What side effects can you see when using ketamine

A

Increased muscle tore, increase heart rate, increase arterial pressure - can also cause apneic breathing and induce seizures (also ataxia when waking up)

596
Q

What is phacoemulsification

A

The procedure to remove cataracts

597
Q

What is the treatment of choice for proptosis (sudden propulsion of eye)

A

Tarrsoharphy

598
Q

What is the treatment of choice for proptosis (sudden propulsion of eye)

A

Tarrsoharphy

599
Q

What side effects can you see with perilla mint ingestion

A

Causes intentional pneumonia which can be fatal by causing permanent fibrosis

600
Q

What side effects can you see with perilla mint ingestion

A

Causes intentional pneumonia which can be fatal by causing permanent fibrosis

601
Q

How can you diagnose feline acromegaly - what is usually the cause

A

Pituitary tumor - measure IGF1 in serum

602
Q

What is important to remember when prescribing a drug like prednisone

A

Whether you need an anti inflammatory dose or immunosuppressive dose

603
Q

What is important to remember when prescribing a drug like prednisone

A

Whether you need an anti inflammatory dose or immunosuppressive dose

604
Q

What congenital conditions are involved in the general term of elbow displasia

A

Ununited anconeal process , OCD of humoral condyle, elbow incongruency and fragmented medial coronoid process

605
Q

What is mitotane used for

A

Treat cushings disease

606
Q

What is mitotane used for

A

Treat cushings disease

607
Q

What on rads on cause bony lysis and politician lesions that cross a joint

A

Synovial cell sarcoma

608
Q

What are side effects of lidocaine toxicity

A

CNS affects (before cardiac or respiratory depression)

609
Q

What are side effects of lidocaine toxicity

A

CNS affects (before cardiac or respiratory depression)

610
Q

Corticosteroids have been associated with the onset of - in cats

A

Congestive heart failure

611
Q

Corticosteroids have been associated with the onset of - in cats

A

Congestive heart failure

612
Q

What is cranial nerve 8

A

Vestibulocochlear nerve

613
Q

What is cranial nerve 8

A

Vestibulocochlear nerve

614
Q

What are some general differentials for hypercalcemia

A

Hypoadrenocorticism (addisons), renal insufficiency, and lymphoma

615
Q

What are some general differentials for hypercalcemia

A

Hypoadrenocorticism (addisons), renal insufficiency, and lymphoma

616
Q

Define hypercalcemia (numbers!)

A

Seam - total calcium over 12 Or ionized calcium over 1.4

617
Q

How does PTH (parathyroid hormone) regulate calcium

A

PTH causes increased calcium and phosphorous mobilization from the bone and promotes phosphate excretion, calcium retention by the kidneys - so increases calcium and decreases phosphorous

618
Q

How does calcitriol affect calcium

A

Increases calcium absorption from the intestines and increases phosphorus also

619
Q

How does calcitriol affect calcium

A

Increases calcium absorption from the intestines and increases phosphorus also

620
Q

Where does calcitriol come from

A

Kidney

621
Q

Where does calcitriol come from

A

Kidney

622
Q

How does calcitonin affect calcium - where does it come from

A

Thyroid gland - reduces calcium levels by inhibiting osteoclastic bone resorption

623
Q

How does calcitonin affect calcium - where does it come from

A

Thyroid gland - reduces calcium levels by inhibiting osteoclastic bone resorption

624
Q

What 3 things regulate calcium in the body

A

PTH, calcitriol, calcitonin

625
Q

What 3 things regulate calcium in the body

A

PTH, calcitriol, calcitonin

626
Q

What are common clinical signs of hypercalcemia

A

Pu/pd, anorexia, weakness , seizures, muscle temors, arrhythmias, constipation

627
Q

What is one way to remember the many differentials hypercalcemia

A

Gosh darn it - granulomatous disease ,osteolytic disease (neoplasia, osteomyelitis), spurious (hemolysis, lipemic, laberror), hyperparthyroïdism, drugs (thiazides), Addison diseasevenal failure , nutritional (hupervitaminosis D), idiopathic, Tumors (bone osteolysis, humoral hypercalcemia )

628
Q

What ratio of sodium to potassium is suggestive of Addison’s disease

A

Less than 27 sodium to 1 potassium

629
Q

What is the fluid of choice for treating huperakemia

A

0.9% Na Cl - regular saline

630
Q

What is the fluid of choice for treating huperakemia

A

0.9% Na Cl - regular saline

631
Q

What can you give for emergency treatment of hypercalcemia

A

Sodium bicarbonate to decrease ionized calcium that is generally causing clinical signs

632
Q

Describe pulses paradoxus

A

Pulse weaker on inspiration and stronger on expiration - exaggeration in normal pulse variations

633
Q

What could pulses paradoxes in a cow indicate

A

Constrictive pericarditis or pericardial effusion

634
Q

What is the only cause of nuclear sclerosis

A

Age

635
Q

What is the only cause of nuclear sclerosis

A

Age

636
Q

Dinhetic cathats are more common in - and not seen in

A

Seen in dogs, not cats

637
Q

Dinhetic cathats are more common in - and not seen in

A

Seen in dogs, not cats

638
Q

Alfatoxins are potent - found primarily in -

A

Hepatotoxins found mostly in moldy grains

639
Q

Where dues CSF accumulate

A

Subarachnoid space

640
Q

In an animal with notable diarrhea, what would you expect their acid base bloodies results to be and why

A

At least a metabolic academic because of all the bicarbonate (abase) lost in feces

641
Q

In acid base analysis, what two things an you evaluate to determine if there is respiratory compensation for a metabolic acidenia

A

Elevated respiratory rate and a low PCO2 indicates compensation

642
Q

In acid base analysis, what two things an you evaluate to determine if there is respiratory compensation for a metabolic acidenia

A

Elevated respiratory rate and a low PCO2 indicates compensation

643
Q

What is tylosin

A

Broad spectrum macrolide antibiotic and feed additive

644
Q

What is tylosin

A

Broad spectrum macrolide antibiotic and feed additive

645
Q

What does oliguric renal failure mean

A

Lower than normal urine output

646
Q

What does oliguric renal failure mean

A

Lower than normal urine output

647
Q

What does oliguric renal failure mean

A

Lower than normal urine output

648
Q

Praziquantel is used for treatment of

A

Tapeworm infections

649
Q

Praziquantel is used for treatment of

A

Tapeworm infections

650
Q

What is commonly used to treat stronghold infections

A

Ivermectin or fenbendazole

651
Q

What is commonly used to treat stronghold infections

A

Ivermectin or fenbendazole

652
Q

What is commonly used to treat stronghold infections

A

Ivermectin or fenbendazole

653
Q

What are side effects of medetomidine

A

Peripheral vasoconstriction and bradycardia

654
Q

What are side effects of medetomidine

A

Peripheral vasoconstriction and bradycardia

655
Q

Describe what hyperkalemia would look like on an ECG

A

Increased PR interval, widened QRS complex I lack of p waves and tall T waves

656
Q

Describe what hyperkalemia would look like on an ECG

A

Increased PR interval, widened QRS complex I lack of p waves and tall T waves

657
Q

Describe the general HPA axis

A

Hypothalamus produces CRH (corticotropin releasing hormone), which causes the pituitary gland to produce ACTH, then causing the adrenal gland on the kidney to produce cortisol

658
Q

Describe the general HPA axis

A

Hypothalamus produces CRH (corticotropin releasing hormone), which causes the pituitary gland to produce ACTH, then causing the adrenal gland on the kidney to produce cortisol

659
Q

What would you see on routine labwork in a dog with cushings

A

Stress leukogram , elevated alp, hyposthenuria (less than 1.01)

660
Q

What would you see on routine labwork in a dog with cushings

A

Stress leukogram , elevated alp, hyposthenuria (less than 1.01)

661
Q

What diagnostic test for cushings is used as a screening test but can also be used to differentiate between PDH and ADH

A

Low dose Dex suppression test

662
Q

Describe the low dose dex suppression test in a dog with cushings

A

Measure plasma cortisol at 4 and 8 hours after IV Dexamethasone - if cushings, the 8 hour cortisol will be over 1,4

663
Q

How can you use the low dose dex suppression test to differentiate between PDH and ADH

A

At 4 hours in a dog with psh, the cortisol level will be less than 50% of starting cortisol - if it is ADH it won’t be

664
Q

Describe the ACTH stim test and its purpose in diagnosing cushings

A

Measure control before and after giving ACTH - an exaggerated response indicates cushings, used more to monitor treatment of cushings now (will not diagnose PTH)

665
Q

How can an abdominal ultrasound help diagnose cushings

A

Look for an adrenal mass (making too much cortisol) or bilaterally enlarged adrenal glands expected with PDH

666
Q

What is the purpose of the urine cortisol creatinine ratio

A

If Cushings, the ratio of cortisol to creatinine is higher in spite of the urine dilution

667
Q

What are treatment options for cushings

A

Mitotane causes adrenocorticolysis or trilostane that inhibits cortisol and aldosterone

668
Q

What are treatment options for cushings

A

Mitotane causes adrenocorticolysis or trilostane that inhibits cortisol and aldosterone

669
Q

What structures keep the femoral head in place within the acetabulum, preventing coxofemoral luxation

A

Ligament of the head of the femur, dorsal acetabular rim, joint capsule

670
Q

What structures keep the femoral head in place within the acetabulum, preventing coxofemoral luxation

A

Ligament of the head of the femur, dorsal acetabular rim, joint capsule

671
Q

Which species is susceptible to corticosteroid induced partuition

A

Cows

672
Q

Which species is susceptible to corticosteroid induced partuition

A

Cows

673
Q

What is the risk of using a too long endotracheal tube during anesthesia

A

Risk of rebreathing

674
Q

What is the risk of using a too long endotracheal tube during anesthesia

A

Risk of rebreathing

675
Q

Describe hydrocodone and its purpose

A

Antitussive cough suppressant, semisynthetic opioid for analgesia

676
Q

What is the treatment for hypertensive retinopathy (retinal detachment) due to systemic hypertension - what is the prognosis

A

Amlodipine - if you stabilize the blood pressure the retina can reattach over time

677
Q

What is the treatment for hypertensive retinopathy (retinal detachment) due to systemic hypertension - what is the prognosis

A

Amlodipine - if you stabilize the blood pressure the retina can reattach over time

678
Q

Describe the function of amlodipine

A

Calcium channel blocker - Treats hypertension by preventing calcium influx into smooth muscle cells, causes vasodilation

679
Q

What kind of parasite is toxocara canis

A

Roundworm (nematode)

680
Q

What would you see on abdominocentesis that would confirm septic peritonitis.

A

Informatory process and finding of intracellular bacteria

681
Q

What are clinical signs in cria that might indicate choanal atresia

A

Labored breathing, prolonged and difficult expiration, open mouth breathing, choking or gagging while nursing, cyanosis and other congenital abnormalities

682
Q

What are clinical signs in cria that might indicate choanal atresia

A

Labored breathing, prolonged and difficult expiration, open mouth breathing, choking or gagging while nursing, cyanosis and other congenital abnormalities

683
Q

What is choanal atresia

A

When the opening between the nasal and pharyngeal aver is blocked by membranous tissue and or bone

684
Q

What is a normal schirmer tear test value

A

Over 15 mm/min

685
Q

What is a normal schirmer tear test value

A

Over 15 mm/min

686
Q

What is a normal schirmer tear test value

A

Over 15 mm/min

687
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congenitalis (cause of rain rot) on cytology

A

Railroad tack appears with long branching chains of gram positive cocci

688
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congenitalis (cause of rain rot) on cytology

A

Railroad tack appears with long branching chains of gram positive cocci

689
Q

What is the treatment for Giardia

A

Fenbendazole first, metronidazole second

690
Q

What is the treatment for Giardia

A

Fenbendazole first, metronidazole second

691
Q

Will tetanus antitoxin reverse clinical signs of tetanus

A

No - will prevent further binding of the tetanus toxin but want reverse signs

692
Q

Will tetanus antitoxin reverse clinical signs of tetanus

A

No - will prevent further binding of the tetanus toxin but want reverse signs

693
Q

How should you go about treating an animal with Tetanus if tetanus antitoxin doesn’t reverse clinical signs

A

Sedation, wound debridement, antibiotics, minimize external stimuli - still give the antitoxin because it will reduce progression of disease

694
Q

How should you go about treating an animal with Tetanus if tetanus antitoxin doesn’t reverse clinical signs

A

Sedation, wound debridement, antibiotics, minimize external stimuli - still give the antitoxin because it will reduce progression of disease

695
Q

Describe atenolol - what is it used for

A

Beta blocker - used to treat HCM in cats because it decreases contractility and hart rate allowing better filling of heart chambers before contraction

696
Q

What clinical signs will you see initially with lidocaine toxicity - what about later on

A

Muscle tremors, seizures, neuro signs initially - later will see cardiovascular and respiratory depression

697
Q

What clinical signs will you see initially with lidocaine toxicity - what about later on

A

Muscle tremors, seizures, neuro signs initially - later will see cardiovascular and respiratory depression

698
Q

Lymphocytic plasma cystic enteritis is consistent with -

A

Inflammatory bowel disease

699
Q

What is trichodectes

A

Chewing louse

700
Q

What is trichodectes

A

Chewing louse

701
Q

What is known as talking dandruff and what does it cause

A

Chyletiella mites casing intense pruritis and skin flaking

702
Q

What are common side effects of azothioprine that have to be discussed with the owner

A

GI upset, bone marrow suppression , hepatotoxicity, acute pancreatitis

703
Q

What are common side effects of azothioprine that have to be discussed with the owner

A

GI upset, bone marrow suppression , hepatotoxicity, acute pancreatitis

704
Q

Creatinine is produced by _ and cleared by -

A

Produced by muscle , cleared by kidney

705
Q

Creatinine is produced by _ and cleared by -

A

Produced by muscle , cleared by kidney

706
Q

What bloodwork value indicates muscle damage

A

Creatinine kinase - enzyme found in skeletal muscle

707
Q

What bloodwork value indicates muscle damage

A

Creatinine kinase - enzyme found in skeletal muscle

708
Q

What do liver enzymes like alp and AST tell yw about liver function

A

Not a damn thing - they indicate injury to liver cells or cholestasis (decreased bile flow)

709
Q

What do liver enzymes like alp and AST tell yw about liver function

A

Not a damn thing - they indicate injury to liver cells or cholestasis (decreased bile flow)

710
Q

What would be the purpose of adding a fentynal infusion with inhalant gas anesthetic

A

Fentanyl is a great analgesic and decrease concentration of gas inhalant needed, reducing side effects

711
Q

What would be the purpose of adding a fentynal infusion with inhalant gas anesthetic

A

Fentanyl is a great analgesic and decrease concentration of gas inhalant needed, reducing side effects

712
Q

What would you be if you want a patient to be completely still during anesthesia

A

Neuromuscular blocking agent like succinylcholine or pancuronium

713
Q

What would you be if you want a patient to be completely still during anesthesia

A

Neuromuscular blocking agent like succinylcholine or pancuronium

714
Q

What is the reversal for neuromuscular blockers like succinylcholine

A

Edrophonium

715
Q

What is the reversal for neuromuscular blockers like succinylcholine

A

Edrophonium

716
Q

Mannitol acts as a diuretic by - while furosemide acts by

A

Osmotically pulling water into tubules, while furosemide is a loop diuretic acting at the loop of henle

717
Q

What is spiranolactone

A

Aldosterone antagonist - works against aldosterone to prevent excess water resorption (promoting water exaction as a diuretic)

718
Q

What is spiranolactone

A

Aldosterone antagonist - works against aldosterone to prevent excess water resorption (promoting water exaction as a diuretic)

719
Q

What will iron deficiency look like on blood smear

A

Hypochromic and microcytic

720
Q

What will iron deficiency look like on blood smear

A

Hypochromic and microcytic

721
Q

What do spherocytes look like on blood smear - what do they indicate

A

Smaller, Dark red, no central pallor - indicate IMHA

722
Q

What do spherocytes look like on blood smear - what do they indicate

A

Smaller, Dark red, no central pallor - indicate IMHA

723
Q

What is n actetlcystine used to treat

A

Acetaminophen and hepatotoxicity

724
Q

What is n actetlcystine used to treat

A

Acetaminophen and hepatotoxicity

725
Q

What chelator is commonly used for lead poisoning

A

Calcium EDTA

726
Q

What chelator is commonly used for lead poisoning

A

Calcium EDTA

727
Q

What is D penacillamine used for

A

To chelate copper toxicity usually

728
Q

What is D penacillamine used for

A

To chelate copper toxicity usually

729
Q

U TLI test is used to test for

A

Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency

730
Q

U TLI test is used to test for

A

Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency

731
Q

What is pentoxyfylline used for

A

Reduces the viscosity of blood, improve circulation and leading to skin healing and a decrease in information

732
Q

What is pentoxyfylline used for

A

Reduces the viscosity of blood, improve circulation and leading to skin healing and a decrease in information

733
Q

What is panniculitis

A

Inflammation of the subQ

734
Q

What is panniculitis

A

Inflammation of the subQ

735
Q

What do neomycin, polymyxin B and bacitracin have in common

A

All antibiotics

736
Q

What do neomycin, polymyxin B and bacitracin have in common

A

All antibiotics

737
Q

What’s the complication with too much histamine release from mast cell humors

A

Increased gastric acid secretion leading to gastric ulceration and GI bleeding

738
Q

What are famotidine, ranitidine snd cemetidine all described as

A

H2 blockers (histamine)

739
Q

What are famotidine, ranitidine snd cemetidine all described as

A

H2 blockers (histamine)

740
Q

What H1 blocker can be used to treat mast cells in dogs

A

Diphenhydramine

741
Q

What H1 blocker can be used to treat mast cells in dogs

A

Diphenhydramine

742
Q

What H1 blocker can be used to treat mast cells in dogs

A

Diphenhydramine

743
Q

What organisms usually cause endocarditis

A

Staph, strep, bartonella, Corneybacterium, pseudomonas, erysipelothrix, E. Coli

744
Q

What organisms usually cause endocarditis

A

Staph, strep, bartonella, Corneybacterium, pseudomonas, erysipelothrix, E. Coli

745
Q

What acid base disturbance occurs with gastric outflow obstruction and why

A

Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis - vomiting up the acidic hydrochloroc acid

746
Q

What acid base disturbance occurs with gastric outflow obstruction and why

A

Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis - vomiting up the acidic hydrochloride acid

747
Q

What acid base disturbance occurs with gastric outflow obstruction and why

A

Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis - vomiting up the acidic hydrochloride acid

748
Q

What is the incubation period for tetanus and why

A

2 weeks - takes time for closhidal spores to grow and release toxin

749
Q

What is the incubation period for tetanus and why

A

2 weeks - takes time for closhidal spores to grow and release toxin

750
Q

What should you do if a patient presents with a hyperkalemia and bradycardia

A

Check an electrocardiogram for arrhythmias

751
Q

What should you do if a patient presents with a hyperkalemia and bradycardia

A

Check an electrocardiogram for arrhythmias

752
Q

Pulmonary hypertension results in

A

Right sided heart failure

753
Q

Pulmonary hypertension results in

A

Right sided heart failure

754
Q

What part of the brain is responsible for regulation of coordination, balance and posture

A

Cerebellum

755
Q

What part of the brain is responsible for regulation of coordination, balance and posture

A

Cerebellum

756
Q

Where are you likely to find a hemangiosarcoma in the heart

A

Right auricle

757
Q

Where are you likely to find a hemangiosarcoma in the heart

A

Right auricle

758
Q

A lack of menace reflex indicates a lesion where

A

Cranial nerve 7

759
Q

A lack of menace reflex indicates a lesion where

A

Cranial nerve 7

760
Q

A lack of palpebral reflex indicates a lesion where

A

Cranial nerve 5 - trigeminal

761
Q

A lack of palpebral reflex indicates a lesion where

A

Cranial nerve 5 - trigeminal

762
Q

What are common causes of a neutropenia

A

Bacterial septicemia, endotoxemia due to gi disease, coliform mastitis, metritis

763
Q

What are common causes of a neutropenia

A

Bacterial septicemia, endotoxemia due to gi disease, coliform mastitis, metritis

764
Q

What are common causes of a neutropenia

A

Bacterial septicemia, endotoxemia due to gi disease, coliform mastitis, metritis

765
Q

What are sebaceous glands

A

Glands in skin that produce sebum that keratins skin moisture

766
Q

What are sebaceous glands

A

Glands in skin that produce sebum that keratins skin moisture

767
Q

Which species have nucleated red blood cells

A

Birds and reptiles

768
Q

What is the function of the cox 2 pathway

A

Branch that produces inflammatory prostaglandins that also mediate pain

769
Q

Which cox pathway is safer for NSAIDs to inhibit and why

A

Cox 2 because it is mediating pain and inflammation, more side effects are seen when they inhibit COX 1 pathway because those are the protective prostaglandins

770
Q

Which cox pathway is safer for NSAIDs to inhibit and why

A

Cox 2 because it is mediating pain and inflammation, more side effects are seen when they inhibit COX 1 pathway because those are the protective prostaglandins

771
Q

What is milk thistle used for

A

Supplement for dogs with liver disease

772
Q

What is a fibrosarcoma

A

Highly malignant tumor from uncontrolled growth of fibroblasts

773
Q

What is a fibrosarcoma

A

Highly malignant tumor from uncontrolled growth of fibroblasts

774
Q

Differentiate between an incisional and excision biopsy

A

Excisional - removing the whole tumor
Incisional - removing only part of the tumor

775
Q

Differentiate between an incisional and excision biopsy

A

Excisional - removing the whole tumor
Incisional - removing only part of the tumor

776
Q

When would you choose wide surgical excision versus marginal excision

A

Marginal excision is for benign tumors usually because it just gets through the reactive tissue, so satellite tumors are often left - wide excision gets through some normal tissue also

777
Q

When would you choose wide surgical excision versus marginal excision

A

Marginal excision is for benign tumors usually because it just gets through the reactive tissue, so satellite tumors are often left - wide excision gets through some normal tissue also

778
Q

What do mast cell tumors look like on cytology

A

Deep purple granules, some eosinophils which are attracted to the histamine release

779
Q

Phenobarbital is metabolized by

A

Liver

780
Q

Phenobarbital is metabolized by

A

Liver

781
Q

If phenobarb is metabolized by the liver, why do you need to monitor kidney valves

A

Barbiturates can cause hypotension which at high doses can cause renal impairment

782
Q

Which drugs can cause splenic enlargement and sequestration of the spleen

A

Acepromazine and thiobarbituates like thiopental

783
Q

Halothane is metabolized by

A

The liver

784
Q

Halothane is metabolized by

A

The liver

785
Q

What does ergot alkaloid toxicity cause in animals

A

Agalactia and failure of mammary development, vasoconstriction reducing blood flow evenly leading to necrosis of limbs and hypothermia

786
Q

What does ergot alkaloid toxicity cause in animals

A

Agalactia and failure of mammary development, vasoconstriction reducing blood flow evenly leading to necrosis of limbs and hypothermia

787
Q

What do you see with aflatoxins

A

Aflatoxin is a mycotoxin that causes hepatocellular damage

788
Q

What is macconkeys agar used to grow

A

Gram negative bacteria - E. Coli, klebsiella, salmonella, pseudomonas, bordetella

789
Q

What is macconkeys agar used to grow

A

Gram negative bacteria - E. Coli, klebsiella, salmonella, pseudomonas, bordetella

790
Q

When can you perform total hip replacements

A

When the phases in that area have fully closed

791
Q

When can you perform total hip replacements

A

When the phases in that area have fully closed

792
Q

When can you perform total hip replacements

A

When the phases in that area have fully closed

793
Q

What is quinidine used to treat

A

Atrial fibrillation in horses

794
Q

What is quinidine used to treat

A

Atrial fibrillation in horses

795
Q

Differentiate between pyothorax and chylothorax

A

Pyothorax - pus accumulation in the thorax
Chylothorox - accumulation of lymphatic find in the thorax

796
Q

Differentiate between pyothorax and chylothorax

A

Pyothorax - pus accumulation in the thorax
Chylothorox - accumulation of lymphatic find in the thorax

797
Q

Fluid from a thoracocentesis reveals a yellow to white tinged find with a foul odor - what is this

A

Pyothorax

798
Q

Fluid from a thoracocentesis reveals a yellow to white tinged find with a foul odor - what is this

A

Pyothorax

799
Q

Fluid from a thoracocentesis reveals a yellow to white tinged find with a foul odor - what is this

A

Pyothorax

800
Q

What are common causes of Pyothorax

A

Migrating foreign body , trauma or wound that allows bacteria to enter, extension of a pneumonia

801
Q

What are common causes of Pyothorax

A

Migrating foreign body , trauma or wound that allows bacteria to enter, extension of a pneumonia

802
Q

What are common causes of Pyothorax

A

Migrating foreign body , trauma or wound that allows bacteria to enter, extension of a pneumonia

803
Q

What is happening that causes the holosystolic murmur heard with ventricular septal detects

A

Blood is being shunted from the left side of the heart to the right side during systole (heart contraction)

804
Q

What is happening that causes the holosystolic murmur heard with ventricular septal detects

A

Blood is being shunted from the left side of the heart to the right side during systole (heart contraction)

805
Q

What is happening that causes the holosystolic murmur heard with ventricular septal detects

A

Blood is being shunted from the left side of the heart to the right side during systole (heart contraction)

806
Q

What is one thing a rebreathing system has that a nonrebreathing (Bain) system does not

A

Rebreathing has a soda line canister - Bain does not

807
Q

What is one thing a rebreathing system has that a nonrebreathing (Bain) system does not

A

Rebreathing has a soda line canister - Bain does not

808
Q

Which muscles and nerves are responsible for urination and holding the bladder

A

The pelvic nerve stimulates the detrusor muscle to contract the bladder and release urine, the hypogastic nerve stimulates the detrusor muscle to relax and the internal sphincter to connect und lastly the pudendal serve stimulates the external sphincter to contact (holding urine in)

809
Q

Which muscles and nerves are responsible for urination and holding the bladder

A

The pelvic nerve stimulates the detrusor muscle to contract the bladder and release urine, the hypogastic nerve stimulates the detrusor muscle to relax and the internal sphincter to connect und lastly the pudendal serve stimulates the external sphincter to contact (holding urine in)

810
Q

Holding urine involves the - system while voiding urine involves the - system

A

Holding - sympathetic system (hypogastric and pudendal nerves)
Voiding - parasympathetic (pelvic nerve)

811
Q

Holding urine involves the - system while voiding urine involves the - system

A

Holding - sympathetic system (hypogastric and pudendal nerves)
Voiding - parasympathetic (pelvic nerve)

812
Q

What kind of suture do you want to use when suturing skin

A

Non absorbable (so no pds) and monofilament - multifilament has too much risk of contamination

813
Q

What kind of suture do you want to use when suturing skin

A

Non absorbable (so no pds) and monofilament - multifilament has too much risk of contamination

814
Q

Give 2 examples of synthetic monofilament absorbable sutures

A

PDS and monocryl

815
Q

Give 2 examples of synthetic monofilament absorbable sutures

A

PDS and monocryl

816
Q

Describe vicryl suture - how is it different from PDS

A

Synthetic absorbable multifilament - PDS is a monofilament

817
Q

Describe vicryl suture - how is it different from PDS

A

Synthetic absorbable multifilament - PDS is a monofilament

818
Q

What type of suture is polypopylene

A

Synthetic non absorbable monofilament

819
Q

What type of suture is polypopylene

A

Synthetic non absorbable monofilament

820
Q

What tick transmits babesia

A

Rhipicephalus annulatus

821
Q

What tick transmits babesia

A

Rhipicephalus annulatus

822
Q

What are common side effects of dexmedetomidine

A

Bradycardia, hypertension due to peripheral vasoconstriction , muscle tremors, decreased tear production, occasional AV blocks, hypothermia

823
Q

A nerve avulsion means what

A

Complete seperation of nerves from the spinal cord

824
Q

A nerve avulsion means what

A

Complete seperation of nerves from the spinal cord

825
Q

What is the treatment for anaplasma

A

Oxytetacycline

826
Q

What clinical signs can you see with anaplasma phagocutophilum

A

Fever, tachycardia, limb edema, petechia, icterus, ataxia

827
Q

What clinical signs can you see with anaplasma phagocutophilum

A

Fever, tachycardia, limb edema, petechia, icterus, ataxia

828
Q

Allopurinol is used for what

A

To decrease uric acid production

829
Q

What occurs when you shine a light in one eye and why (describe signal pathway)

A

Signal goes from the retina to the optic nerve, past the chasm and down the optic tract, per to both oculomotor nerves causing bilateral contraction

830
Q

What occurs when you shine a light in one eye and why (describe signal pathway)

A

Signal goes from the retina to the optic nerve, past the chasm and down the optic tract, per to both oculomotor nerves causing bilateral contraction

831
Q

What occurs when you shine a light in one eye and why (describe signal pathway)

A

Signal goes from the retina to the optic nerve, past the chasm and down the optic tract, per to both oculomotor nerves causing bilateral contraction

832
Q

Hyphema and keratic precipitates are specific signs of

A

Anterior uveitis

833
Q

Hyphema and keratic precipitates are specific signs of

A

Anterior uveitis

834
Q

What is achromotrichia and what does it indicate

A

Loss of hair color/dilution of coat color - indicates copper deficiency

835
Q
  • Is responsible for lacrimation
A

Cranial nerve 7

836
Q

Chemotherapy usually targets cells like - because _

A

Neutrophils became they replicate quickly - neutropenia a common sequela of chemo

837
Q

Echinocutes on blood smear confirm what

A

Crotalid snake bite

838
Q

What are common organophosphate toxin

A

Pesticides/ insecticides, some flea and tick collars

839
Q

That are clinical signs of organophosphate toxicity

A

Muscarinic signs (increased incrimination, hypersalivation, respiratory secretions leading to respiratory distress), weakness, seizures, increased urination and defecation

840
Q

That are clinical signs of organophosphate toxicity

A

Muscarinic signs (increased incrimination, hypersalivation, respiratory secretions leading to respiratory distress), weakness, seizures, increased urination and defecation

841
Q

What ringworm species typically affects little and horses

A

Trichophyton verrucosum

842
Q

What ringworm species typically affects little and horses

A

Trichophyton verrucosum

843
Q

Coughing is associated with which side of heart failure and why

A

Left sided due to pulmonary edema or bronchial compression due to left atrium enlargement

844
Q

Coughing is associated with which side of heart failure and why

A

Left sided due to pulmonary edema or bronchial compression due to left atrium enlargement

845
Q

What is amantidine often and for

A

To treat chronic pain like with osteoarthritis - often used in combo with another pain killer

846
Q

What is galliprant

A

NSAID for OA pain and inflammation

847
Q

What is galliprant

A

NSAID for OA pain and inflammation

848
Q

Is gabapentin an NSAID

A

No - an anticonvulsant and analgesic but does not treat inflammation

849
Q

What type of virus is bvd, hog cholera and border disease virus

A

flavivirus

850
Q

What type of virus is bvd, hog cholera and border disease virus

A

flavivirus

851
Q

What type of virus is bvd, hog cholera and border disease virus

A

flavivirus

852
Q

Mucoid ocular discharge is a sign of

A

KCS

853
Q

What is glycopyrrolate often used for

A

To trest bradycardia and in turn hypotension under anesthesia

854
Q

What is glycopyrrolate often used for

A

To trest bradycardia and in turn hypotension under anesthesia

855
Q

When would you reach for a dopamine CRI for a patient under anesthesia

A

If they don’t respond to an anticholinergic like glycopyrrolate and atropine

856
Q

When would you reach for a dopamine CRI for a patient under anesthesia

A

If they don’t respond to an anticholinergic like glycopyrrolate and atropine

857
Q

What does low grade mean when talking about tumors

A

Low likelihood of metastasis

858
Q

What does low grade mean when talking about tumors

A

Low likelihood of metastasis

859
Q

What would be diagnostic for fip

A

Pyogranulomatous inflammation on biopsy and histopath

860
Q

What would be diagnostic for fip

A

Pyogranulomatous inflammation on biopsy and histopath

861
Q

What connects the pharynx and the inner ear

A

Eustuchian tube

862
Q

What connects the pharynx and the inner ear

A

Eustuchian tube

863
Q

What closes the eye

A

Orbicularis oculi muscle innovated by the facial nerve

864
Q

What closes the eye

A

Orbicularis oculi muscle innovated by the facial nerve

865
Q

What opens the eye

A

Levatator palpebrae superior is innovated by the oculomotor nerve

866
Q

What does the femoral nerve supply and injury in calves can lead to what

A

Quadriceps muscle - injury leads to muscle atrophy , an inability to extend stifle joint and bear weight on the leg

867
Q

What does the femoral nerve supply and injury in calves can lead to what

A

Quadriceps muscle - injury leads to muscle atrophy , an inability to extend stifle joint and bear weight on the leg

868
Q

What does the femoral nerve supply and injury in calves can lead to what

A

Quadriceps muscle - injury leads to muscle atrophy , an inability to extend stifle joint and bear weight on the leg

869
Q

What’s another name for flukes

A

Trematodes

870
Q

What’s another name for flukes

A

Trematodes

871
Q

Fiddleneck, groundsel and ragwort all contain which type of toxin

A

Pyrralazidine alkaloids

872
Q

Fiddleneck, groundsel and ragwort all contain which type of toxin

A

Pyrralazidine alkaloids

873
Q

Name 3 parapox viruses and which species they affect

A

Bovine papular stomatitis (cattle), pseudocowpox (cattle), contagious ecythema ( sheep and goats)

874
Q

Name 3 parapox viruses and which species they affect

A

Bovine papular stomatitis (cattle), pseudocowpox (cattle), contagious ecythema ( sheep and goats)

875
Q

What does dentigerous mean - what is a dentigerous cyst

A

Bearing teeth or resembling teeth - cyst results from tooth germ tissue in the ear presenting as a swelling under the base of the ear with sera mucous discharge

876
Q

What does dentigerous mean - what is a dentigerous cyst

A

Bearing teeth or resembling teeth - cyst results from tooth germ tissue in the ear presenting as a swelling under the base of the ear with sera mucous discharge

877
Q

What is adenitis

A

Inflammation of a gland

878
Q

What is adenitis

A

Inflammation of a gland

879
Q

How do you treat mycoplasma Bovis

A

Tulathromycin (macrolides), tetracyclines, tilomycosin

880
Q

What is griseofulvin used for

A

To treat ringworm / dermatophytosis - organisms like microsporum, trichophyton

881
Q

What cautions are there when using griseofulvin

A

Hepatotoxic potentially so caution in animals with impaired liver function, can be teratogenic and carcinogenic so caution in food producing animals

882
Q

What cautions are there when using griseofulvin

A

Hepatotoxic potentially so caution in animals with impaired liver function, can be teratogenic and carcinogenic so caution in food producing animals

883
Q

What type of parasite is Taenia and how do you treat it

A

Tape worm - treat with praziquantel

884
Q

What type of parasite is Taenia and how do you treat it

A

Tape worm - treat with praziquantel

885
Q

Metastatic bone tumors usually occur in the - part of the bone while primary bone tumors like osteosarcomas occur - , why?

A

Metastatic bone tumors - diaphysis of bone because that is there the blood supply is
Primary tumors - metaphysics because that is where cell division mostly occurs

886
Q

Metastatic bone tumors usually occur in the - part of the bone while primary bone tumors like osteosarcomas occur - , why?

A

Metastatic bone tumors - diaphysis of bone because that is there the blood supply is
Primary tumors - metaphysics because that is where cell division mostly occurs

887
Q

When would a hyponatremia cause neurologic deficits

A

At 100 - 105 meq/ L

888
Q

When would a hyponatremia cause neurologic deficits

A

At 100 - 105 meq/ L

889
Q

Describe a type I salter Harris fracture

A

Fracture through the physis (growth plate - cartilaginous part where longitudinal bone growth occurs)

890
Q

Describe a type 2 salter Harris fracture

A

Fracture partially through the physis, extending into the metaphysis

891
Q

Describe a type 3 salter Harris fracture

A

Fracture extending from the physis through the epiphysis

892
Q

Describe a type 4 salter Harris fracture

A

Fracture through the metaphysis, epiphysis and physis

893
Q

Describe a type 5 salter Harris fracture

A

Crush injury to the physis

894
Q

What drug class is erythromycin

A

A macrolide

895
Q

What drug is ronidazole closest to

A

Metronidazole - both antibacterial and antiprotozoal

896
Q

Blood products are only necessary when -

A

Active bleeding is already occurring

897
Q

The palpebral reflex test the function of

A

Cranial nerve 5 - sensory

898
Q

The palpebral reflex test the function of

A

Cranial nerve 5 - sensory

899
Q

The menace defect tests the function of

A

Cranial nerve 7 - motor to the eyelids

900
Q

The menace defect tests the function of

A

Cranial nerve 7 - motor to the eyelids

901
Q

When classifying burns, what are Adnexal structures

A

Hair follicles, sweat glands, sebaceous glands, nerve endings

902
Q

What does Staph pseudointermedius look like on cytology

A

Intracytoplasmic cocci

903
Q

What does Staph pseudointermedius look like on cytology

A

Intracytoplasmic cocci

904
Q

Compare ck and AST use in evaluating myopathy

A

CIC has a shorter half life (quicker elevations) and is muscle specific, AST is not muscle specific and shows more gradual changes

905
Q

Compare ck and AST use in evaluating myopathy

A

CIC has a shorter half life (quicker elevations) and is muscle specific, AST is not muscle specific and shows more gradual changes

906
Q

Cuter bra is the larval form of the

A

Botfly

907
Q

Staph aureus is host adapted to

A

Human - most dogs who have it (rare to find) are thought to have gotten it from the humans

908
Q

If you had a protein losing nephropathy case, why would using enalapril help

A

Enakpril prevent conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2 which reduces aldosterone concentrations and causes diuresis , dilating the efferent arterioles of the glomerules

909
Q

If you had a protein losing nephropathy case, why would using enalapril help

A

Enakpril prevent conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2 which reduces aldosterone concentrations and causes diuresis , dilating the efferent arterioles of the glomerules

910
Q

What are 3 uses of enalapril

A

Vasodilator, antihypertensive agent, heart failure treatment

911
Q

What is affected if you shine a light in each eye and one eye never constricts

A

Occlomotor nerve-parasympathetic nerve fibers are affected

912
Q

how can you identify a lesion in the occipital context

A

If dog is not visual there is a lesion

913
Q

How does lactated ringers solution affect potassium

A

Has bicarbonate in it which alkanizes the body and lowers serum potassium

914
Q

How does lactated ringers solution affect potassium

A

Has bicarbonate in it which alkanizes the body and lowers serum potassium

915
Q

How can lactated ringers affect sodium levels

A

Lr has less sodium compared to plasma 150 can cause hyponatremia

916
Q

What fluid type can you use for a patent with hyperkalemia

A

Lactated ringers - can help lower serum concentration

917
Q

Differentiate between spondylosis and diskospondylitis

A

Spondylosis - inflammation of vertebral body due to age related changes like OA
Diskospondulitis - inflammation of vertebal body and disc space due to bacterial or fugal infection

918
Q

What clinical signs would you see from cholecalciferol rodenticide toxicity and why

A

Cholecalciferol disrupts calcium homeostasis converting to metabolites in the liver and kidney leading to weakness, anorexia vomiting and metastatic mineralization in kidens leading to renal failure

919
Q

Why does cushings lead to hyperglycemia

A

Increased production of glucocorticoids which on lead to hyperinsulinemia and insulin resistance , which increases glucose in the blood

920
Q

What is pyridostigmine - how does it work

A

An anticholinesteras used to treat myasthenia gravis long term - helps keep acth on muscle receptor for longer (helps with the muscle weakness from mg(

921
Q

Overdose of metronidazole in dogs can lead to -

A

Neurologic adverse effects

922
Q

What type of parasite is echinococcus granulosus - what is the primary host reservoir

A

Tapeworm - rodents primary reservoir

923
Q

Why is echinococcus multilocularis a concern in dogs

A

It isn’t in dogs - dogs are usually asymptomatic, more concerning because of zoonotic transmission to humans leading to lungs and liver cysts

924
Q

What is the causative agent of hyatid cyst disease

A

Echinococcus

925
Q

What is the causative agent of hyatid cyst disease

A

Echinococcus

926
Q

How do dogs normally become infected with echinococcus

A

Dog eats the rodent infected with the tapeworm

927
Q

How do dogs normally become infected with echinococcus

A

Dog eats the rodent infected with the tapeworm

928
Q

What clinical signs can you see with organophosphate toxicity and why

A

Toxicity leads to an accumulation of ach which over stimulates muscarinic and nictinic receptors leading to hypersecretions, muscle fasciculations and convulsions

929
Q

What is used to treat gastrointestinal parasites

A

Iremechin - macrolytic lactones

930
Q

What does the vagus nerve do in cattle

A

Travels from the brain down through the abdomen, innervates the stomach , affects heart rate, digestion, immune system

931
Q

What does the vagus nerve do in cattle

A

Travels from the brain down through the abdomen, innervates the stomach , affects heart rate, digestion, immune system

932
Q

What is a paraneoplastic condition

A

Symptoms that occurs as a reaction to cancer cells

933
Q

What is a paraneoplastic condition

A

Symptoms that occurs as a reaction to cancer cells

934
Q

What is mastocytosis

A

Proliferation of neoplastic mast cells

935
Q

What causes emphysematous cystitis

A

Gas producing bacteria - underlying causes include cushings , diabetes, chronic UTI or bladder stones

936
Q

What clinical signs might you see in a dog with a fever

A

Inappetence, reluctant to move, lethargy, stiffness, dehydration

937
Q

What does a shiff Sherrington posture look like - what is the cause

A

Rigid extension or stiffness of thoracic limbs, paralysis or paresis of pelvic limbs - due to injury of the thoracolumbar (t2-l4)

938
Q

What is pthysis bulbi

A

Shrunken, non functional eye due to severe eye injury or disease

939
Q

What is pthysis bulbi

A

Shrunken, non functional eye due to severe eye injury or disease

940
Q

What type of drug is mexiletine - what can you use it for

A

Anti arrhythmic - use for vpcs

941
Q

What type of drug is mexiletine - what can you use it for

A

Anti arrhythmic - use for vpcs

942
Q

What type of drug is mexiletine - what can you use it for

A

Anti arrhythmic - use for vpcs

943
Q

What does achalasia mean

A

Failure of muscles to relax

944
Q

What does achalasia mean

A

Failure of muscles to relax

945
Q

What drugs can cause drug induced pemphigus foliaceus in cats

A

Itraconazole and maybe ampicillin

946
Q

What do you use to treat malessia dermatitis

A

Fluconazole (or itraconazole or ketoconazole)

947
Q

What is hydrochlorothiazide and what is it used to treat

A

Diuretic, treats nephrogenic diabetes insidipidus

948
Q

How do you treat central diabetes insipidus and why

A

Desmopressin (ddavp) - synthetic form of vasopressin which regulates water balance in body

949
Q

How do you treat central diabetes insipidus and why

A

Desmopressin (ddavp) - synthetic form of vasopressin which regulates water balance in body

950
Q

Give an example of a phenothiazine drug

A

Acepromazine

951
Q

Terbinafire is used to treat

A

Dermatophytosis (ringworm)

952
Q

GFR is assessed through

A

Serum creatinine

953
Q

How do you treat babesiosis

A

Imidocarb - an anti protozoal

954
Q

What ave tremotodes also known as

A

Flukes

955
Q

What ave tremotodes also known as

A

Flukes

956
Q

Will ivermectin treat trematodes (flukes)

A

No

957
Q

Will ivermectin treat trematodes (flukes)

A

No

958
Q

After birth, the uterus returns to normal in - days

A

40 - 50

959
Q

How does MAC relate to potency

A

A lower MAC means it is more potent

960
Q

What should you be cautious with giving in an endotoxic animal

A

IV calcium became trey have very sensitive myocardium and could cause arrest

961
Q

Ketamine should be used with caution in patients with a history of

A

Seizures

962
Q

The round ligament of the bladder is the remnant of

A

Umbilical arteries

963
Q

The round ligament of the bladder is the remnant of

A

Umbilical arteries

964
Q

The urachus becomes the _ while the umbilici vein becomes the -

A

Urachus - middle ligament of bladder
Umbilical vein - falciforn ligament

965
Q

How do you treat mange - either sarcoptic or chorioptes in horses

A

Ivermectin

966
Q

Compare treatment of demodex mange in dogs versus horses

A

No treatment in horses (rare) - use amitraz in dogs but it you use it in horses it can cause colic and death

967
Q

Compare treatment of demodex mange in dogs versus horses

A

No treatment in horses (rare) - use amitraz in dogs but it you use it in horses it can cause colic and death

968
Q

Compare treatment of demodex mange in dogs versus horses

A

No treatment in horses (rare) - use amitraz in dogs but it you use it in horses it can cause colic and death

969
Q

What is the only form of mange that is not reportable

A

Demodex canis mange

970
Q

TMS is metabolized through

A

Liver

971
Q

TMS is metabolized through

A

Liver

972
Q

What is the function of bet blockers - give an example

A

Atenolol - decrease heat rate and contractility to allow better diastolic filling

973
Q

What is the function of ace inhibitors - give examples

A

Cause vasodilation to decrease blood pressure _enalapril

974
Q

What is the purpose of cyproheptadine

A

Appetite stimulant in small animals

975
Q

Cobalamin is absorbed in the - and folate is absorbed

A

Cobalamin (vitamin BI2) absorbed in the ileum and folate in the jejunum

976
Q

When would you see elevations in CK (creatinine phosphokinase)

A

With muscle damage or rhabdomyalosis

977
Q

What will the plasma look like with a myoglobinuria and why

A

Normal - it causes brown urine but it is excreted too quickly so it doesn’t discover the plasma like a hemoglobinaria would