Canine and Feline Flashcards
What is the diagnosis if a skin lesion fluoresces under woods lamp but has a negative skin scrape
Ringworm - microsporum canis fungus ( only 50% of positive cases will fluoresc)
What is the best treatment for ringworm
Combo topical and oral therapy - antifungal shampoo with miconazole and oral like itraconarole or fluconazole
Will doxycycline treat ringworm
No dummy - doxycycline is an antibiotic and will not treat fungal infections
What are you suspicious of if you see an elevated heart Off the sternal wall on thoracic rads
Pneumothorax
What would a globoid heart be suggestive of on rads
Pericardial effusion
A delicit in what nerve would lead to a loss of motor function in the muscles of mastication
Cranial nerve 5
Deficits in what canid nerves could lead to strabismus
Cranial nerve 3 (oculomotor nerve), 4 (trochlear) or 6 (abducent nerve)
What can cause nystagmus
CNS disease or cranial nerve 8 deficits
What would you expect to see with deficits in cranial nerve 7 (facial nerve)
Exposure keratitis because facial nerve 7 controls lacrimation
Define exposure keratitis
Damage to the. Correa due to dryness
How do cats and dogs became infected with cutebra larvae (as they do not bite or feed)
EnvironmentaL exposure - larvae attach through fur and enter body during grooming or through an open wound
Where do cutebrea larvae usually localize to and when do you see infections mostly
Localize to the skin of the neck, head and trunk (but don’t usually go through the skin), sec mostly in late summer and fall
Hypochloremia in a yang anorexia animal is most suggestive of
Upper GI obstruction
What is the screening test for hyperthyroidism in cats
Total T4
What would help you differentiate between metastatic neoplasia and systemic fungal disease on radiographs
With systemic fungal disease there would be evidence of hilar lymphadenopathy
Which poisonous plant can lead to acute death
Milkweed
Atrial fibrillation sounds like
Shoes in a dryer
Anti pruitic meds are considered -, trey provide relief but don’t
Bandaids - provide relief but don’t cure the underlying cause of the pruitis
What are the 4 main antipruitic drugs used in dermatology
Apoquel (octlacitinib) , cytopoint ( lokivetmab), cyclosporine (atopic a) and prednisone (steroid)
_ Is the key mediator of pruritis
IL 31 - a cytokine that causes release of proinflammatory cytokines by activating the jak/stat pathway
Give a brief brief summary of the jak/stat pathway
IL 31 activates a jak receptor I which activates stat which travels to the cell nucleus to cause release of proinfommatory cytokines and itch
What is the main difference between apoquel and cytopoint in terms of their MOA
Both activate the jak/stat path that cause pruritis but cytopoint acts higher in the path than apoquel; apoquel is a jak inhibitor (blocks itch by not letting jak bind), cytopoint binds IL 3I so it can’t activate the jak/stat path
How does prednisone act as an antiprurituc
Inhibit inflammation and up regulates anti inflammatory mediators
Depending on the dose I prednisone can be - or -
Anti inflammatory or immunosuppressive
How does cyclosporine act as an antiprurituc
Blocks IL 2 which blocks proliferation of T cells to reduce inflammation and the allergic response - it is a calcineurin inhibitor
Of the 4 categories of antipruritic meds, now are each given to the patient
Oral - apoquel , prednisone, cyclosporin
Subcutaneous - cytopoint injection every 4-8 weeks
Of the 4 antiprurituc meds , what is the onset of action
Prednisone, cytopoint and apoquel usually act within 24 hours, cyclosporine takes 4 weeks in dogs, 2-3 weeks in cats
Compare the costs of antiprurituc meds
Cyclosporine most expensive, prednisone cheapest
What are side effects of apoquel
Increase susceptibility to demodex /infections, can exacerbate neoplasia, GI effects like v/d
Who should you not give apoquel to
Dogs less than one year - con increase risk of demodex and severe infections like pneumonia
What are side effects cytopoint
None - maybe GI effects but not proven
What are side effects of cyclosporine
GI upset, increased hair growth, papillomas, gingival hyperplasia - all stop after stopping the meds
What is often a side effect of immunosuppressive drugs butw is not seen with cyclosporine
Myelo suppression
In what patients should you be cautious about using cyclosporine as an antiprovisio
Diabetics - con decrease function of pancreatic B cells and can influence dosing of insulin (but does not cause clinical diabetes in a healthy p
What is cytochrome p450
Family of isoenzymes located in the liver responsible for metabolizing many drugs
What happens if a patient is given both cyclosporine and a medication that inhibits p450 like ketocanazole
It can help lower the dose of cyclosporine (saves money because it is so expensive) because cyclosporine is a substitute of cytochrome P450
What is p glycoprotein
Found at blood brain barrier to pump drugs at of the cell
What can you not give with cyclosporine
Ivermectin due to issue with p glycoproteins and drug accumulation in the brain resulting
What are side effects of prednisone
Many! Pu/pd , polyphagia, behavior changes, GI ulceration, hepatopathy diabetes, hyperlipidemia , delayed wound healing, cutaneous atrophy, comedomes, secondary infections
What is a tarsorrhaphy? When word you use it
Surgery to partially sew the eyelids as together to narrow eye opening - word use to keep the eye in place it ocular muscles are torn and to prevent ulceration due to proptosis
What is your top differential in a cat with a swelling on its nose and dark lesions in the Cornea
CRyptococcus - encapsulated yeast
How can cats became infected with cryptococcus
Associated with exposure to pigeon droppings or eucalyptus trees - spores inhaled from the environment
What is the causative agent of rose grower’s disease in cats and how are they infected
Sporothrix (a fungus) - introduced in body from a thorn Or through an open wound or from contaminated soil
What parasite can be transmitted to cats though ingestion of raw meat
Toxoplasmosis
What is the diagnostic test for boxer cardiomyopathy (arrythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy)
24 hour halter ECG monitor
What is boxer cardiomyopathy
Fibrofatty infiltrate in the right ventricle that causes electrical conduction problems and VPCs (ventricular premature complexes)
Why should you not house chickens and turkeys together
Prevent transmission of histamonous meleagridis to turkey’s - fatal in turkeys but not so much to chickens
What is a top differential if you see mucoid ocular discharge
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
What is the best way to prevent Oak toxicity in calves
Spread hay everywhere so they fill up and don’t eat the Oak leaves
Can you use prednisone and NSAIDs together
No - risk of Gi ulcers and renal failure (no steroids and NSAIDs ever)
Can you use apoquel in cats
Not recommended - not labeled and no established safe or effective doses
Can you use cytopoint in cats
No - the antibody is caninized (a monoclonal antibody made to work specifically in dogs)
Can you use prednisone for pruritis in cats
No - use prednisolone (prednisone has decreased hepatic conversion and decreased GI absorption)
What are possible congenital components seen with canine brachycephalic syndrome
Elongated soft palate , stenotic nares, hypoplastic trachea
What breeds of cat are typically affected by brachy cephalic syndrome causing things like elongated soft palates or stenotic nares
Himalayans and Persians
What is a hypoplastic trachea and in what breed is it commonly seen
Narrowing of the trachea and seen mostly in English bulldogs
What are 4 complications of canine brachycephalic syndrome and why do they occur
Due to increased airway resistance - everted laryngeal saccules, laryngeal edema, laryngeal collapse, edematous/pharyngeal folds
What are clinical signs of canine brachycephalic syndrome
Exercise intolerance , respiratory distress, gagging and dysphagia, open mouth Stertor breathing, collapse I cyanosis, aspiration pneumonia
What is the risk of resection of an elongated soft palate
Over resection can predispose to aspiration pneumonia
How do you treat stenotic nares
Wedge resection of nasal fold
What is the treatment for hypo plastic trachea
No effective treatment
What is important to remember when diagnosing laryngeal collapse
Make sure it is not laryngeal paralysis
How do you treat laryngeal collapse (which occurs with very advanced brachycophalic syndrome)
Permanent tracheostomy
How do you treat everted laryngeal saccules
Grab at base with long pair of thermostats or Alis tissue forceps/ remove with traction
What are 2 causes of feline hyper thyroidism
Adenomatous hyperplasia of thyroid glands or functional thyroid carcinoma
What are key clinical signs / physical exam findings of feline hyperthyroidism
Weight loss,polyphagia, vomiting , hyperactivity - thyroid slip or nodule, tachycardia, heart murmur or gallop
How do you diagnose feline hyperthyroidism
Serum T4 + clinical signs and history
What are the 3 main treatment options for feline hyper thyroidism
Oral methimazole, surgical thyroidectomy or radioactive iodine
What are the 2 thyroid hormones produced by the thyroid glands and what do they do
T3 and T4 - increase metabolic rate , oxygen consumption, heart rate, erythropoiesis and catecholomine response, also have catabolic effects on muscle and adipose tissue (explaining the weight loss)
What is your top differential if you have a cat losing weight but that has an increased appetite
Hyperthyroidism
What are common diagnostic findings of feline hyperthyroidism
Increased liver enzymes (alt, alp, AST) , erythrocytosis (increased RBC ), hypertension
When treating feline hyperthyroidism what should you monitor
Renal function, rend insufficiency is a common comorbidity
What are possible side effects of oral methimazole
Facial excoriations - thrombocytopenia, anemia, hepatopathy
What are possible side effects of oral methimazole for treatment of feline hyperthyroidism
Facial excoriations (ulcerations or erosions), repatopathy, anemia, thrombocytopenia
What are possible surgical complications caused by thyroidectomy to treat hyperthyroidism
Iatrogenic hypoparathyroidism / hypocalcemia , hypothyroidism, Horners syndrome, laryngeal paralysis and voice change
What are signs indicating Horners syndrome in dogs and why do they occur
Due to interruption of sympathetic innovation to the eye - causes facial anhidrosis (decreased sweating) , ptosis (drooping eyelid) , sinking of the eyeball into the face, anisocoria (diff size pupils)
What bloodwork change would you see if the parathyroids were removed
Hypocalcemia - parathyroids produce PTH which increases calcium normally
Describe radioactive iodine as a treatment for hyperthyroidism
Single dose, requires hospitalization for days to weeks
What is dilated cardiomyopathy and who is most prone
Primary myocardial disease causing cardiac enlargement and impaired systolic function - large breed dogs most prone, especially Dobermans
What is meant by impaired systolic function
Inability to contract well during beats
What are clinical signs of DCM and describe their progression
Fainting, lethargy, exercise intolerance - many dogs asymptomatic until they suddenly show signs of heart failure (rapid progression over days)
What are clinical sigma of heart failure
Respiratory Ar Tess if left sided, ascites if right sided
What breed most commonly sees familial arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathyand what is it
Boxers - arrythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy causing VPCs and sometimes sudden cardiac death
How do you diagnose DCM
Echocardiography - shows poor contractility and decreased shortening fraction
Define shortening fraction
Ratio of change in diameter of the right/left ventricle between contracted and relaxed state
What is the most common clinical sign of boxer cardiomyopathy -arvc
Syncope
How do you diagnose boxer cardiomyopathy / arvc
24 hour holter monitor to assess severity and response to treatment to monitor VPCs that could be missed with one ECG
What are the 3 levels to a boxer with ARVC
Asymptomatic dog with VPCs, symptomatic dogs with syncope, and dogs with systolic dysfunction and heart failure
Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison’s) is a deficiency in both - and - and needs supplementation of -
Glucocorticoids and mineral corticoids - so should supplementboth of these when treating primary adrenal corticoid insufficiency; should also supplement sodium chloride
What are the 2 most common types of tapeworm
Tania taeniformus and diplydium caninum
What is the only medication that will treat both types of tapeworm infection (dogs)
Praziquantel (droncit)
Pyrantel treats - and - infections, but not -
Pyrantel treats hookworms and roundworms but not tapeworms
For what infections would you use fenbebdazole /panacur to treat ? What will it not treat
Tania (tapeworms), hookworms, roundworms and whip worms - will not treat diplydium tapeworm infections
What do tapeworms look like
Small, flat, white. Like grains of rice
Drontal plus , approved for cats , contains - and - and is effective in treating
Praziquantal and pyrantel - treats tapeworms, roundworms and hookworms
Profender, approved for use in cats, contains _ and - and is effective in treating
Praziquantel and emodepside - treats tapeworms , roundworms and hookworms (like drontal plus)
What is Revolution used for in cats
Used to treat and prevent hookworm, roundworm , heatworm, fleas and ear mites
What is frontline used for in cats
Treats and prevents fleas and ticks
What should you recommend for a cat found to have a diplydium tapeworm infection
Flea control because diplydium tapeworm, transmitted through fleas
How is Tania tapeworm infections transmitted
Eating infected prey
What is the most common site for thromboembolic disease
Pulmonary thromboembolism
Will cushings disease (hyperadrenocarticism) or Addison’s disease increase the risk of thromboembolism by causing a hypercoagulable state
Cushings - hyperadrenocorticism
What is wobbler syndrome
Disease mostly of large breed dogs - cervical spondylomyelopathy, disease of the cervical spine causing spinal cord or nerve root compression , neck pain and neuro signs
IMHA has been associated with an increased risk of
Thromboembolism
How can IVDD be managed
Surgical decompression or non surgical with strict cage rest for at least 8 weeks - could use steroids, analgesics or muscle relaxants in addition
What parasite cases visceral and for ocular larval migrans in people
Toxocara roundworms
What is the name for hookworms and what do they look like
Ancyclostoma caninum - thin walls !
Describe hookworm infections in dogs
Penetrate skin of young puppies, migrate to the lungs where they are coughed up and swallowed, then mature in the small intestine where they suck blood and cause bleeding ulcers and then anemia
Hookworms ave zoonotic and can cause _ in people
Cutaneous larva migrans
What is amlodipine and what is it used for in cats
Calcium channel blocker that treats hypertension
What would be a benefit of using telmisartan to treat hypertension in cats due to CKD over amlodipire
Telmisartan is an angiotensin 2 blocker that treats both hypertension and benazepril
How can you treat anemia caused by CKD in cats
Erythropoeitin
Air bronchograms indicate -, hbu might they occur
Uniform lung consolidation and an alveolar pattern - can occur due to inflammatory diseases, severe edema, lung lobe torsions, hemorrhage or neoplasms
What is the treatment of choice for Rocky Mountain spotted fever and when do you start it
Doxycycline - start immediately even without definitive diagnosis because dog can decline quickly
What does a single antibody liter for RMSF indicate
Antibodies from exposure - does not indicate active infection
What is considered the diagnostic test of choice for RMSF became there is no in house test
Paired antibody liters with a 4 fold increase and clinical signs
What tick transmits RMSF
Dermacentors
What is the difference in bone tumors between dogs and cats
Cats less likely to metastasize than dogs
How do you treat heartworm infection in cats
Control underling information with corticosteroids like predrisolone and then can use heartgard to show kill the adult worms (to fast will cause a blockage) - can also use bronchodilators and antiemetics to treat signs
What is the most common complication of heart worm in cats
Embolism to the lung and sudden death associated with respiratory failure
What is the drug name for interceptor
Milbemycin
Why would you not use milbemycin/interceptor to treat heartworm infection in cats
It doesn’t kill adults well and kills microfilaria too fast which increases the risk of anaphylaxis
What bacteria is associated with heart worm infection (dirofilaria inmitis)
Wolbacheia - symbiotic with the microfilaria
What drug is often added to help in cases of low serum albumin
Aspirin - helps decrease the risk of thrombi
What causes EPI in cats - exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
Chronic pancreatitis
What causes EPI in dogs
Pancreatic acinar atrophy
Describe a type I hyper sensitivity reaction
Immediate reaction when reexposure of antigen leads to an allergic reaction - B cells make ige
Describe a type I hyper sensitivity reaction
Immediate reaction when reexposure of antigen leads to an allergic reaction - B cells make ige
Describe a type I hyper sensitivity reaction
Immediate reaction when reexposure of antigen leads to an allergic reaction - B cells make ige
Describe a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction
Cytotoxic type- When an antigen binds with an antibody on cell and then body recognizes it as foreign, macrophages present the antigen then Igm and igg antibodies are produced, leads to cell lysis
Describe a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction
Immune complex hype - more antigen than antibodies so they form large immune complexes in circulation (hard to clear)
Describe a type 4 hypersensitivity
Delayed type - takes days to occur, cell mediated (other 3 types are antibody mediated), activates T cells that destroy Antigen containing cells
Glaucoma is usually due to
Increased intraocular pressure and decreased outflow of aqueous
How does increased vitamin D affect calcium and phosphorous
Increases both by increasing absorption from git and bone
How does increased PTA affect Salam and phosphorous
Increases calcium but leaves phosphorus normal or low
What is the method of choice for diagnosing rabies
Direct Flourescent antibody test
What is the most common malignant oral tumor in dogs and which breed is over represented
Malignant melanoma (pigmented masses) - Chow chows often get this
Describe prognosis of amputating an osteosarcoma of a long bone
90% develop pulmonary metastasis within a year even with amputation
Lateral deviation of the rectum along with swelling of perineal region in intact adult dogs often indicates
Perineal hernia
What is cisapride and what can it be used for
Serotonin agonist that enhances acetucholine release to increase GI motility, accelerate stomach emptying and increase peristalsis - can be used in cases of constipation with no identified cause
Could you use metoclapromide instead of cisapride to treat constipation
Technically yes but it is les effect and does not stimulate colonic motility
What is famolidine used for
Minimize acid in the stomach
Where are coagulation factors made
Liver
What is indicated with G CTLI value less man 2,5 and clinical signs like weight loss, diarrhea and increased appetite
EPI - exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
How do you treat EPI in dogs
Pancreatic enzyme replacement for life - because the pancreas is destroyed and will not came back
How do you treat EPI in dogs
Pancreatic enzyme replacement for life - because the pancreas is destroyed and will not came back
What is the treatment of choice for toxoplasmosis in cats
Clindamycin
What should you do fora dog that has ingested bleach
Dilute with milk or water and give GI protectants
What kind of insulin would you use to treat DKA
Regular insulin because it is short acting
What kind of insulin would you use to treat DKA
Regular insulin because it is short acting
Can you treat feline asthma with atropine
Absolutely not - atropine thickens mucus secretions and blocks airways
What can collapsing trachea often be secondary to if not primary
Heart failure Or chronic bronchitis (or other cardiopulmonary disorders)
What are common clinical signs of collapsing trachea
Honking cough incited by palpation, exercise intolerance, dyspnea or cyanosis
When are you most likely to see cases of collapsing trachea
Small bread, usually older (7years) , obese patients
Why does collapsing trachea happen
Result of weak or redundant dorsal tracheal membrane cussing the cartilaginous tracheal rings to become hypoplastic or fibrodystrophic
With collapsing trachea, when will it collapse on inspiration? Expiration?
Inspiration if involving the extrathoracic trachea/ neck, expiration if intratoracic
How do you diagnose collapsing trachea
Palpate to incite coughing spasms thinking cough, rads, endoscopy
What other primary conditions should you look for if diagnosings collapsing trachea
Stenotic hares, elongated soft palate , everted laryngeal saccules, laryngeal paralysis, concurrent cardiac disease
How can you treat tracheal collapse if bronchial collapse is present and a surgery is not a great option
Weight loss , anxiolytics, bronchodilators
What are anxiolytics
Treat anxiety /stress
What are surgical options for treating tracheal collapse
Dorsal tracheal membrane plication, intratracheal steering or external support around trachea
What are complications seen with inhatreheal stenting to treat tracheal collapse
Stent fracture, collapse before or after the stent, can induce serve mucous and granulation tissue
What are clinical signs of idiopathic epilepsy
Generated tonic clonic seizures without interictal usually 1-5 years old
What are clinical signs of idiopathic epilepsy
Generated tonic clonic seizures without interictal usually 1-5 years old
What are key clinical signs that makes rabies a top differential
Behavior change and vocalization - aggressiveness, excitability , hiding or wild animals becoming less fearful of humans
What are key clinical signs that makes rabies a top differential
Behavior change and vocalization - aggressiveness, excitability , hiding or wild animals becoming less fearful of humans
Where do most human cases of rabies come from
Bats - wildlife are primary reservoirs for disease
Where do most human cases of rabies come from
Bats - wildlife are primary reservoirs for disease
What other clinical signs might yo see with rabies (besides behavior changes and localization) and when do you see them
Can be asymptomatic for 1-2 months, then show acute and progressive signs - lameness, dum or various forms when animal is in terminal stages
Describe the furious form of rabies
Animal becomes anxious and aggressive, progresses to seizures or paralysis
Describe the furious form of rabies
Animal becomes anxious and aggressive, progresses to seizures or paralysis
Describe the dumb form of rabies
Hypersalivation and difficulty swallowing
Rabies is a - disease
Reportable
What is the diagnostic test of choice for rabies
Direct fluorescent antibody testing on the brain
How is the direct fluorescent antibody test performed when testing for rabies
Detects viral antigen in 2 locations of brain - brainstem and cerebellum
What is the protocol if an unvaccinated pet-is exposed to rabies
Either euthanize and test or quarantine for 4 months (dog and cat) or 6 months if a ferret, vaccinate for rabies at time of quarantine entry
What is the protocol if a vaccinated pet is exposed to rabies - pet including dog, cat or ferret
Booster rabies vaccine immediately then have pet be observed by owner for 45 days - this also applies to pet who are overdue but have proof the pet previously had a USDA licensed rabies vaccine
What is the protocol if an unvaccinated human is exposed to rabies
Treat with post exposure prophylaxis with rabies immunoglobulin and give rabies vaccine on day of exposure then on days 3,7 and 14
What is the protocol if an unvaccinated human is exposed to rabies
Treat with post exposure prophylaxis with rabies immunoglobulin and give rabies vaccine on day of exposure then on days 3,7 and 14
What is the protocol if a vaccinated human or those with adequate antibody titers is exposed to rabies
Vaccinate at days 0 and day 3
What is the protocol if a healthy animal (regardless of rabies vaccine stats) bites a human
Quarantine for 10 days, do not vaccinate, if symptoms develop that are suggestive of rabies euthanize and test - report to local health department and state vet
What is the protocol if a healthy animal (regardless of rabies vaccine stats) bites a human
Quarantine for 10 days, do not vaccinate, if symptoms develop that are suggestive of rabies euthanize and test - report to local health department and state vet
What is the protocol if a stray or unwanted pet bites a human
Euthanize and submit for testing
What are the 4 major allergic skin conditions affecting dogs and cats
Flea allergy dermatitis (fad), atopic dermatitis /environmental allergies, food allergy or contact allergy
What is hay fever or atopy
Atopic dermatitis - environmental allergies
What is the main sign of allergic skin disease
Pruritis
When are you most likely to see food allergies in dogs
Younger dogs - less than 1year old
When are you most likely to see food allergies in dogs
Younger dogs - less than 1year old
When do clinical signs usua lly develop with atopy
1-3 years old
Compare the seasonality between cases of story and food allergies
Atopy- seasonally, food allergy -year round
What is the only way to diagnose atop
Ruling out other disease
Which breeds are predisposed to atopy atopic dermitis/ environmental allergies)
West Highland white terrier and English Bulldogs
Describe the onset of signs of flea allergy dermatitis - is it seasonal
Rapid inset usually in warm months but doesn’t have to be seasonal
Is atop always seasonal
Can be year round if due to dust mites but can be seasonal if due to grass pollen - usually a gradual onset in the summer
Describe the onset of signs with food allergies
Gradual but can be rapid - non seasonal
What are common lesions of all allergic diseases
Excoriations, alopecia, erythema, hyperpigmentation, lichenification
Define lichenification
Thickening / hardening of the skin
Define erythema
Redness of the skin
Describe the lesions commonly seen with flea allergy dermatitis
Caudal half of body (lumbosacral region), tail base, perineum, thighs, umbilicus, pruritic - does not affect ears usually
Describe the lesions commonly seen with atopy/ atopic dermatitis /hay fever
Face, paws, distal extremities, ears, ventrum, pruritis
What lesions do you commonly see with food allergies
Same as atopy (face, ears, extremities, paws ventrum) - may be purities
What lesions do you usually see with contact allergies
Hairless spots that contact the environment - abdomen , muzzle , ventrum of paws , should see primary lesions like vesicles and erythematous papules
What ave 2 reaction patterns that cats can present with with any of the 4 allergic skin diseases
Military dermatitis and eosinophilic granuloma complex
What ave 2 reaction patterns that cats can present with with any of the 4 allergic skin diseases
Military dermatitis and eosinophilic granuloma complex
Describe miliary dermatitis
Diffuse crusted papules
What is an indolent ulcer
Ulcerative symmetrical lesion on the upper lip
Where are eosinophilia granulomas usually found
Mouth or body
What are eosinophilic plaques
Linear plaques on caudal thighs
How do flea allergy dermatitis lesions present in cats
Caudal dorsal summerical alopecia, face or neck
What lesions can you see with allergic skin disease in cats not often seen in dogs
Indolent ulcers, eusinuphilic grandmas eosinophilic plaques
How do you diagnose fad
Distribution of clinical signs, finding fleas or flea dirt or 2-3 month treatment trial
Why is environmental allergy testing primarily done
To make a vaccine not to diagnose atopy
Why is environmental allergy testing primarily done
To make a vaccine not to diagnose atopy
How do you diagnose food allergies
Diet trial with hydrolyzed protein or novel protein diet
How do you diagnose contact allergies
Patch test / intradermal testing
How do you diagnose contact allergies
Patch test / intradermal testing
What type of hypersensitivity is contact allergies? Atopy?
Contact - type 4
Atop - type I
What infectious diseases should you rule out when trying to diagnose pruritis
Surcoptes, dermatophytosis, demodex
Describe the breathing pattern seen with asthma
Normal inspiration, marked abdominal push on expiration due to collapse of the lover airways
How do you treat demodecosis? How do you diagnose it?
Ivermectin - diagnose with a skin scrape
When can you discontinue treatment of demodicosis
After 2 negative skin scrapes one month apart and no clinical signs present
When can you discontinue treatment of demodicosis
After 2 negative skin scrapes one month apart and no clinical signs present
Dysfunction of what often causes pacing
Forebrain
What are common signs of vestibular disease/ dysfunction
Circling toward the side of the lesion , ataxia, weakness, head tilt
What are common signs of vestibular disease/ dysfunction
Circling toward the side of the lesion , ataxia, weakness, head tilt
Circling indicates a lesion where
Forebrain or vestibular lesions (both peripheral and central)
Circling indicates a lesion where
Forebrain or vestibular lesions (both peripheral and central)
What are common signs of cerebellar lesions
Ataxia, head hilt, hypermetria, intention tremors
How can cats became infected with cytauxzoon Felis
Protozoal organism transmitted through ticks
What are clinical signs of cytauxzoon Felis
Non specific signs like anorexia, lethargy, dyspnea, icterus , pyrexia
What is high on your differential list in a cat with a significant fever (pyrexia)
Cytauxzoon Felix
What is the pathogenesis of cytauxzoon felis
Invades reticuloendothelial cells of the lungs, spleen, liver, lymph nodes (might see cranial organomegaly
What are clinical signs you’d see with idiopathic trigeminal neuritis ? What other cranial nerves are affected
Peracute onset of dropped jaw and inability to close the mouth in dogs , while dog is otherwise bar and can swallow if food placed on back of tongue- no other nerve deficits areseen
What is the treatment of idiopathic trigeminal neuritis and prognosis
Supportive care, fluids, hand feeding of soft food - should regain function in 1-2 weeks (Normal in 4 weeks)
That other differentials should you consider with suspected cases of idiopathic trigeminal neuritis
Mendibular fracture, rabies, neoplasia of mandibular nerve, masticatory muscle myositis
What clinical signs do you expect to see with idiopathic facial nerve paralysis
Inability to blink lack of menaceand papebral, drooping lip and ear , drooling from one side of the mouth, dry eye - normal facial sensation
How to you treat idiopathic facial nerve paralysis
Tear supplementation long term immunosuppressive doses of glucocorticoids
How to you treat idiopathic facial nerve paralysis
Tear supplementation long term immunosuppressive doses of glucocorticoids
What other differentials should you consider if idiopathic facial nerve paralysis is suspected
Otitis media, neoplasia of facial nerve, brainstem disease
What other differentials should you consider if idiopathic facial nerve paralysis is suspected
Otitis media, neoplasia of facial nerve, brainstem disease
What is the pathogenesis of cytauxzoon felis in cats
Invades reticuloendothelial cells of lungs, spleen, liver, lymph modes casing cranial organoregaly _ affects bone marrow causing pancytopenias like thrombocultoperia which can lead to DIC causing spontaneous bleeding
What might you see with a post renal urinary tract obstruction
Inability to urinate, hyperkalemia, severe azotemia, metabolic acidosis
What might you see with a post renal urinary tract obstruction
Inability to urinate, hyperkalemia, severe azotemia, metabolic acidosis
What is often used to treat urinary incontinence and why
Phenyl propranolamine - it is sympathominetic so increases sphincter tone
What type of stones are often seen with Porto systemic shunts
Urate stones
Which urinary stones can you not see on radiographs
Urate and cysteine stones - I can’t C U
What could you use to treat a suspected insulinoma in cats
CRI of glucagon which would cause gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis - increasing glucose to combat the increased insulin
What clinical signs could you see with acetaminophen toxicity in cats
Hepatic necrosis, methemoglobinuria (brown urine), methonoglobinemia, anemia, hypoxemia death
What is N acetal cysteine
Potent antioxdant used to protect liver from toxin like acetaminophen in cats
What clinical signs might you see with portosystemic shunts (common in toy breed dogs)
Poor doers, underweight, wandering, microcytic anemia , intermittent signs of hepatic encephalopathy
What is the gold standard for treating feline hyperthyroidism and why
Radioactive iodine because it is curative (others are not)
Which breeds are commonly affected by color dilution aloepecia
Fawn Doberman pinchers, Yorkies
What is the diagnosis test of choice for KCS (keratoconjunctivitis sicca -dry eye )
Schirmer tear test
What are the 4 components of nephrotic syndrome
Proteinuria, hypoproteinemia, hyperchloresrolemia, ascites/edema
How do you “treat” hyperkalemia
Give calcium gluconate to antagonize myocardiotoxicity from hyperkalemia not an actual treatment just temporary
Ventral alopecia is a cutaneous marker of what
Paraneoplastic syndrome of pancreatic carcinoma
What causes feline mammary hyperplasia (fibroadenomatous hyperplasia)
Functional ovary producing progesterone
What causes feline mammary hyperplasia (fibroadenomatous hyperplasia)
Functional ovary producing progesterone
How do you treat feline mammary hyperplasia
OHE unless ulcerated gland then a mastectomy - so we remove the progesterone cauusing the benign hyperplasia
Can you prevent hemangiosarcomas
Can prevent cutaneous hemangiosarcoma by limiting sun exposure in thin coat pale dogs
Can you prevent hemangiosarcomas
Can prevent cutaneous hemangiosarcoma by limiting sun exposure in thin coat pale dogs but can’t prevent visceral hemangiosáramos
What is the most common type of rodenticide used in north America
Anticoagulant rodenticides - warfarin, brodifacoum, bromdialone, diaphacinone
What is the most common type of rodenticide used in north America
Anticoagulant rodenticides - warfarin, brodifacoum, bromdialone, diaphacinone
Why is anticoagulant rodenticide so toxic / how does it work
Inhibits vitamin KI epoxide reductase and prevents activation of vitamin K dependent coagulation factors (2,7, 9, 10)
What are the vitamin K dependent coagulation factors
2, 7, 9, 10
What clinical signs might you see with anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity
Hemorrhage into body cavities (abdomen, pleural space, lungs, etc) , signs of hemorrhagic shock (pale mm, prolonged CRT, tachycardia, weak pulses), abdominal distention, respiratory distress if pulmonary hemorrhage
When do clinical signs of anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity occur and how long can they last
3-7 days post ingestion but can persist for 4-6 weeks
When do clinical signs of anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity occur and how long can they last
3-7 days post ingestion but can persist for 4-6 weeks
How do you diagnose anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity
Markedly prolonged pt, prolonged PTT
Which will you see prolonged first with anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity - pt or ptt and why
Pt - takes 36 -72 hours to deplete because factor 7 has the shortest halflife of all the K dependent long factors (2,7,9,10)
How long does it take to see a prolonged PTT with anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity
Longer - 3 to 5 days
What treatment do you do if an owner is sure their dog ingested anticoagulant rodenticide in the last couple of hours
Induce genesis with activated charcoal with sorbitol if within the last 8-12 hours, then treat with vitamin k for 4 weeks (after checking pt at 36-72 hours) , then recheck pt 2 days after treating with vitamin k
What do you do if a dog possibly ingested anticoagulant rodenticide
Do a pt test first, then induce emesis with activated charcoal only if pt is normal , treat with vitamin K for y weeks then recheck pt 48-72 hours once finished
What blood product would you use to transfuse a dog showing hemorrhage secondary to coagulopothy like due to anticoagulant rodenticide, how much and why
Plasma then maybe RBC if needed - plasma for immediate hemostasis because vitamin K takes 24 hours to have an effect - usually give 10 - 15 - ml/ kg based on repeated pt valves
How do you treat hemorrhage due to anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity
Plasma transfusion, thoracocentesis if into pleural space, oxygen support if dyspnea, isotonic crystalloids for volume support 1 vitamin K for 4 weeks (oral or subq), recheck pt after finishing
Is vitamin K used as a first response treatment for anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity
No - takes 24 hours to have an effect
Which dogs would you and would you not perform urohydropropulsion on
Thin female good due to short urethra - would not do in males due to long wet and os penis that could get stones stuck
Why is bromethalin rodenticide toxic
Inhibit atp production in neurons leading to inability to maintain osmotic gradient, cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure
What clinical signs will you see with bronethalin toxicity
High dose - Tremors, seizures, hyperexcitability, hyperthermia within 12 hours
Low dose - days or weeks post ingestion hill see ascending paralysis in hindlimbs
How do you treat bromethalin toxicity
GI decontamination if acute (emesis, activated chocoal, gastric lavage), once clinical signs occur then do symptomatic care
How can you treat increased intracranial pressure
Mannitol or furosemide to reduce cerebral edema, incline 30° to promote venas return
Is bromethalin rodenticide an anticoagulant
No - neurotoxic
Is bromethalin rodenticide an anticoagulant
No - neurotoxic
How is cholecalciferol rodenticide toxic
Converts 10 vitamin D which causes increased absorption of calcium and mobilization from bones leading to severe hyper calcenia and hypherphosphatemia and organ injury
What clinical signs would you expect to see with cholecalciferol rodenticide and when will you see then
Pu/pd, GI upset, acute renal failure, cardiac arrhythmias
What findings would help you diagnose cholecalciferol rodenticide toxicity
Hyperphosphatemia, hypercalcemia , azotemia
How do you treat cholecalciferol rodenticide toxicity
Erresis or activated charcoal if acute ingestion, diuretic like furosemide if hypercalcemic (or biphosphanates, corticosteroids) , support acute renal failure if azotemia
Why are biphosphonates used to treat hypercalcemia
The inhibit osteoclasts responsible for bore break down (decreasing calcium)
What is the most common type of urinary stores in dogs and cats
Struvite and calcium oxalate
Can you medically dissolute any stones
Most types yes - except for calcium oxalate stones
What kind of diet would you use to treat cystine and urate stones
Alkalanizing
What type of diet would use to treat struvite stores
Acidifying diet
What type of diet would use to treat struvite stores
Acidifying diet
Which urinary stones are radiolucent and may not be seen on rads
Cystine and urate (also the ones needing an alkaline diet)
Reducing protein in the diet can help manage which urinary stones
Cystine, urate, canine struvite, calcium oxalate
What are some general ways to manage urinary stones
Increase urine volume to dilute urine (high moisture food), reduce crystal forming substrates , increase urine solubility by affecting pH
What are struvite stones made of
Magnesium, ammonium, phosphate
Why do struvite stones in dogs usually occur
Induced by UTIs by urease positive microbes
Why do struvite stones in dogs usually occur
Induced by UTIs by urease positive microbes
How do you treat struvite stones (or manage)
Feed a low magnesium diet, reduced protein diet to reduce urine urea concentration and a low phosphorous diet - also treat with antimicrobials because these are usually caused by UTIs
Which urinary stores are the most unlikely to dissolve and bully require surgery, hydropulsion or lithotripsy
Calcium oxalate
Which urinary stores are the most unlikely to dissolve and bully require surgery, hydropulsion or lithotripsy
Calcium oxalate
Which breeds are predisposed to calcium oxalate urinary stores
Schnauzer, York, mini poodles
Which breeds are predisposed to calcium oxalate urinary stores
Schnauzer, York, mini poodles
How do you manage calcium oxalate crystals
Avoid excess protein, calcium, sodium and provide adequate phosphorous to prevent vitamin D activation
How do you manage calcium oxalate crystals
Avoid excess protein, calcium, sodium and provide adequate phosphorous to prevent vitamin D activation
Calcium oxalate stones are most likely to occur in _ urine
Acidic urine
Which breeds ave predisposed to cystine urinary stores
Bulldogs, basset hounds, chihuahuas, Yorkies
How can you manage cysteine stones
Reduce protein, restrict sodium, wine alkalanizing diet , 2 mpg 2to bind to stones to make more soluble
What urinary stores are Dalmatians predisposed to
Urate stones
What urinary stores are Dalmatians predisposed to
Urate stones
How can you manage urate stones
Reduced protein, wine alkanalizing diet , allopurinol to decrease uric acid
How can you manage urate stones
Reduced protein, wine alkanalizing diet , allopurinol to decrease uric acid
What is important to remember when giving allopurinol to treat urate stones
Have to give with a reduced protein diet or will cause xanthine stones to form
What is something you can you give for known ingestion of ethylene glycol past time for emesis
Ethanol Or 4 -methylpyrazole - prevent alcohol dehydrogenase from converting ethylene glycol to toxic metabolites
Should you give ethanol to a dog who is experiencing oliguric renal failure due to ethylene glycol toxicity
No - once in renal failure it is too late to bind the toxic metabolites
What clinical signs would you expect with cerebellar disease and why
Intention tremors, hypermetria, hypometria ,ataxia - because the cerebellum is responsible for coordination and regulation of range, rate and strength of movement, balance and posture
Which anesthetic should not be used in dogs with a history of seizures
Ketamine
Which anesthetic should not be used in dogs with a history of seizures
Ketamine
What would you use CRyptococcus fungal infections in a cat
Fluconazole or itraconazole - anti fungal
How can you identify CRyptococcus fungus on a FNA
Encapsulated and large
What drug is used to treat toxoplasma
Clindamycin
What is fenbendazole used to treat
Hookworms , Roundworms and Giardia
What is chlorambucil used for
Chemotherapy agent often used to treat lymphoma
Stimulation of which receptor leads to smooth muscle relaxation and bronchodilation in the airways
Beta 2 adrenergic receptors
Stimulation of which receptor leads to smooth muscle relaxation and bronchodilation in the airways
Beta 2 adrenergic receptors
Where are beta 1 receptors important
The heart
Where are beta 1 receptors important
The heart
Why would methocarbomal be used in treatment of pyrethrin toxicity
Methokarbomal is a muscle relaxant so can help stop the muscle tremors
Why would methocarbomal be used in treatment of pyrethrin toxicity
Methokarbomal is a muscle relaxant so can help stop the muscle tremors
Would you expect pruritis or crusting with eosinophilic granulomas
No
What do you most commonly see as a side effect of acepromazine
Hypotension
What do you most commonly see as a side effect of acepromazine
Hypotension
How are tapeworms transmitted to cats
Through flea allergy dermatitis
When are you likely to see peripheral eosinophilia
Allergies or parasite infections
At what pao2 does cyanosis occur
Less than 50
Can progressive retinal atrophy be caused by chronic anterior uveitis - why or why not
No - PRA is heritable and due to photoreceptors in the retina that are abnormal and cause early onset blindness
What is the inner most layer of the cornea
Corneal endothelium
What makes up 90% of corneal thickness
Corneal stroma most collagen
Descemets membrane is the -
Basement membrane of the cornea
Descemets membrane is the -
Basement membrane of the cornea
What is the most superficial layer of the cornea
Corneal epithelium
What is an uncomplicated corneal ulcer and what is the prognosis
Superficial erosion in the corneal epithelium, heals within 7 days everytime
How does a fluorescent stain ship identify a correct ulcer
The shin will only bind to the hydrophilic stroma, not the hydrophobic epithelium - an ulcer would damage the epithelium casing the stain to bind to the stroma underneath
What eyelid abnormalities could cause a corneal ulcer
Ectopic cilia, distichia or entropion
How would you go about treating a corneal ulcer
Broad spectrum antibiotic, identical underlying cause, use atropine to decrease ciliary body movement
What do you do if a superficial ulcer does not heal within 5 -7 days
Change diagnosis, not the treatment
Define complicated corneal ulcers
Involve correct stroma or deeper, persist over a week, are infected or malacic (melting)
If fluorescein stain an help diagnose both complicated and uncomplicated ulcer, how can you differentiate on histopath
A complicated ulcer with perchate into the stoma (uncomplicated will not)
Why does an uncomplicated corneal ulcer become complicated
Failure to treat, secondary infection or malacia, secondary ulcer becomes indolent (chronic and non healing)
What is the general treatment for a complicated ulcer
Topical antibiotic, cycloplegia (atropine), and anti inflammatory orally
Would you treat a melting ulcer with topical anti inflammatories
Absolutely not, not even non steroidals) - can make melting worse Progression complicated
What can happen if a complicated ulcer progresses
A descmetocele or corneal perforation
What is a descemetocelle
Defect occupying 99% of corneal thickness so only descents membrane remains
What is the prognosis of complicated corneal ulcers
Fair - can take several weeks to heal , may affect long term vision
Differentiate between complicated corneal ulcers and indolent corneal ulcers
Indolent ulcers are technically complicated because they last longer than 7 days but indolent ulcers don’t have stromal loss and are not infected
