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PBR 2 and 3 > Page 8 > Flashcards

Page 8 Flashcards

1
Q

SPIDER WEB pattern of collateral VEINS and LYMPHATICS

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome

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2
Q

alternating web-like stenoses and aneurysms

A

(medial) fibromuscular dysplasia

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3
Q

Presents with very large aneurysmal aortic root with sinotubular ectasia

A

Aortitis - Marfan syndrome

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4
Q

Infectious process with the following pattern of LN involvement where 1 = right paratracheal, 2 = right hilar, and 3 = left hilar LN enlargement

A

sarcoidosis

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5
Q

solid round mass within an upper lobe cavity with an air crescent separating the mycetoma from the cavitary wall

A

aspergilloma

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6
Q

Parasitic pulmonary infection wherein if the cyst develops a communication with the bronchial tree and the pericyst ruptures, a thin crescent of air will be seen around the periphery of the cyst

A

pulmonary echinococcal cyst

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7
Q

collapsed/crumpled cyst wall floating on top of the fluid within an uncollapsed pericyst

A

ruptured pulmonary echinococcal cyst

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8
Q

dense opacities occupy the central / perihilar regions of lung and extend laterally to abruptly marginate before reaching the peripheral portions of the lung

A

airspace disease (almost exclusively,

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9
Q

individually opacified lobules / interspersion of normal and diseased lobules

A

airspace processes, most clasically

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10
Q

confluent bilateral dense micronodular opacities that, because of their high intrinsic density, produce the black pleura sign at their interface with the chest wall

A

alveolar microlithiasis

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11
Q

volume of involved lobe may be increased by exuberant inflammatory exudate

A

Kleb. pneumoniae

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12
Q

narrowing or waist of the diaphrgm on the herniated viscus

A

traumatic diaphragmatic hernia

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13
Q

contact between the posterior ribs and the liver (right-sided injury) or stomach (left-sided)

A

traumatic diaphragmatic hernia

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14
Q

curvilinear bronchovascular bundle entering the anterior inferior margin / hilar aspect of the mass

A

rounded atelectasis / folded lung

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15
Q

air dissects between the pericardium and central diaphragm below to allo visualization of the central portion of the diaphragm in continguity with the right and left hemidiaphragms

A

pneumomediastinum (may be seen in pneumopericardium)

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16
Q

spiculated margins; linear densities radiating from the edge of the nodule into the adjacent lung

A

highly suspicious for malignant nodule

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17
Q
A

suggestive of malignant nodule

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18
Q

geographic ground glass opacities superimposed upon thickened interlobular and intralobular septa / reticulation

A

pulmonary alveolar proteinosis, pulmonary edema (mc) particularly permeability edema, atypical pneumonia, pulmonary hemorrhage, rarely bronchoalveolar cell ca

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19
Q

filling of the airspaces with mucoid material produced by the malignant cells creates low-density airspace opacification surrounding the enhanced pulmonary arteries that traverses the consolidated regions

A

diffuse form of bronchioloalveolar ca (also seen in other airspace-filling diseases, bacterial pneumonia,
lymphoma, and lipoid pneumonia)

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20
Q

zone of relative decreased attenuation surrounding a dense, mass-like opacity

A

invasive aspergillosis

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21
Q

lateral costophrenic sulcus appears abnormally deep and hyperlucent

A

pneumothorax

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22
Q

visualization of the anterior costophrenic sulcus owing to air anteriorly and inferiorly as the dome and anterior portions of the diaphragm are outlined by lung and air, respectively

A

pneumothorax

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23
Q

peripheral lung markings are accentuated

A

chronic bronchitis

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24
Q

tumor extension from the paravertebral space into the spinal canal via an enlarged intervertebral foramen

A

neurofibroma

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25
Q

rare causes: sarcoidosis, Hodkin’s lymphoma (after irradiation), histoplasmosis, amyloidosis, and TB; also, scleroderma (mediastinal)

A

mc: silicosis and coal dust exposure

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26
Q

subtended lung remains collapsed against the lateral chest wall

A

tracheobronchial injury

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27
Q

buckling of posterior tracheal membrane

A

tracheobronchomalacia

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28
Q

density through which the normal hilar vessels can be seen

A

mass superimposed on the hilum

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29
Q

vascular structures that converge only as far as the lateral margin of the increased hilar density

A

enlargement of intrahilar vessels

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30
Q

when viewed en face, appear as geographic areas of opacity

A

pleural plaques

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31
Q

cystic spaces 0.3-1 cm in diameter whose walls consist of fibrous tissue

A

mc: IPF, connective tissue disease, and sarcoidosis

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32
Q
A

tracheal stenosis

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33
Q

incomplete septation of the cartilage rings producing a long segment tracheal narrowing

A

congenital tracheal stenosis

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34
Q

small intraluminal but large extraluminal soft tissue component

A

carcinoid tumor of the central bronchi

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35
Q

small, sharply defined triangular opacity that projects upward from the medial half of the hemidiaphragm at or near the highest point of the dome, usually related to cephalic displacement of an inferior accessory fissure

A

RUL or LUL atelectasis (less common: RML)

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36
Q

overinflated superior segment of the lower lobe occupies the space vacated by the apical segment; apex of the hemithorax contains aerated lung. Sometimes, this lower lobe segment inserts itself medially between the apex of the atelectatic upper lobe and the mediastinum, allowing visualization of the aortic arc. The overinflated superior segment is seen as crescent of hyperlucency.

A

LUL atelectasis (also RUL but less common)

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37
Q
A

small airways disease (indirect sign), pulmonary arterial occlusive disease, PCP, DIP

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38
Q

involvement of the peripheral portion of the cartilage and has the appearance of two fingers

A

male costal cartilage

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39
Q
A

hamartoma

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40
Q

patchy ground-glass opacities surrounded by crescentic regions of more dense consolidation

A

COP but not specific

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41
Q
A

osteogenesis imperfecta and NF1

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42
Q

if overcirculation, TA; if undercirculation, TOF

A

associated with truncus arteriosus and TOF

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43
Q

central convex mass partially preventing the usual fissure concavity seen in RUL atelectasis; downward bulge is in the medial portion of the minor fissure

A

mass causing RUL atelectasis (any lobe

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44
Q

dilated thick-walled circular lucency with an adjoining smaller pulmonary artery (*if mid-lung, tram tracks)

A

cylindric bronchiectasis (upper and lower

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45
Q
A

empyema

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46
Q

thickened intralobular lines

A

IPF, UIP, alveolar proteinosis

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47
Q
A

varicose bronchiectasis

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48
Q

cystic bronchial dilatatation interrupted by focal areas of narrowing

A

varicose bronchiectasis

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49
Q

clusters of rounded lucencies, often containing air-fluid levels

A

cystic/saccular bronchiectasis

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50
Q

if the thoracic inlet mass is posterior or paravertebral in location, it is sharply outlined by the apical lung (in contrast to the anteriorly located thoracic inlet mass whose lateral border above the clavicle is indistinct)

A

posteriorly located thoracic inlet mass

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51
Q

rare; localized PERIPHERAL OLIGEMIA w/ or w/o distended proximal vessels

A

pulmonary embolism (pulmonary thromboembolism w/o hemorrhage or
infarction)

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52
Q

enlargement of a major pulmonary artery

A

pulmonary thromboembolism w/o hemorrhage or infarction

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53
Q

abrupt tapering of vesse

A

pulmonary thromboembolism w/o hemorrhage or infarction

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54
Q

wedge-shaped consolidation

A

pulmonary thromboembolism w/
infarction

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55
Q

stripes of intraluminal contrast media trapped b/w nodular areas of wall thickening

A

Pseudomembranous colitis

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56
Q

constricting lesion, markedly narrowing the lumen

A

colon ca

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57
Q

decreased or absent folds in fundus and body

A

atrophic gastritis

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58
Q
A

Primary Sclerosing cholangitis

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59
Q

alternating areas of dilatation and constriction of the main pancreatic duct

A

Chronic pancreatitis

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60
Q
A

Achalasia

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61
Q

tightly twisted mesentery

A

Small bowel volvulus

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62
Q
A

Small bowel volvulus

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63
Q

barium coating of a polyp when viewed obliquely

A

colonic polyp

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64
Q

produced by acute angle of attachment of polyp to the mucosa

A

gastric polyp

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65
Q
A

polyp, diverticula

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66
Q

two concentric rings produced by visualizing a pedunculated polyp end-on

A

pedunculated polyp

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67
Q

large flat-based ulcer with heaped up edges that fold inward to trap a lens-shaped barium convex toward the lumen

A

Malignant gastric ulcer

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68
Q

air bubbles rise to the highest point of contrast column (while fecal materila remains dependent)

A

colonic air bubbles

69
Q

enhancing fibrovascular bundles centered within many of the dilated ducts; patulous bile ducts surrounding the portal veins

A

Caroli disease / Caroli intrahepatic ductal ectasia

70
Q
A

Eosinophilic gastroenteritis

71
Q

deep ulcerations forming fissures between nodules of elevated edematous mucosa; transverse and longitudinal fissuring of the mucosal surface with extension of knifelike clefts into the submucosa and muscularis propria; carpet of nodules in the luminal surface

A

Crohn disease

72
Q

fibrofatty infiltration around inflamed bowel segments with engorged mesenteric vessels forming the comb

A

Crohn disease

73
Q

luminal narrowing particularly in the terminal ileum due to fibrosis and progressive wall thickening

A

Crohn disease

74
Q
A

Crohn colitis

75
Q
A

cecal volvulus

76
Q

barium trapped between intussusceptum and receiving bowel

A

Intussusception

77
Q

most often in the RUQ

A

Intussusception

78
Q

deeper ulcerations of thickened edematous mucosa w/ crypt abscesses extending into submucosa

A

ulcerative colitis

79
Q
A

Adenomyomatosis

80
Q

bright fluid within the Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses

A

Adenomyomatosis

80
Q

intrahepatic venous collaterals

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome

81
Q

bright inner, dark middle, bright outer rings

A

benign small bowel disease

81
Q

fissures within gallstones containing nitrogen gas appearing as branching linear lucencies

A

Gallstones

81
Q

stone layer dependently within, allowing a crescent of bile to outline the anterior portion of the stone

A

stone within the bile duct

81
Q

posterior wall of the aorta cannot be identified and is closely applied to the spine

A

impending rupture of aortic aneurysm

81
Q

dilatation of both CBD and pancreatic duct in the head of pancreas usually caused by a tumor at the ampulla

A

tumor at the ampulla

81
Q

numerous ineffective tertiary contractions throughout the esopahgus

A

Diffuse esophageal spasm

82
Q

tiny bubbles at the top of the barium column

A

fulminant Candida esophagitis

82
Q

barium forms tracks paralleling the colon lumen and often connecting multiple perforated sacs

A

colonic diverticulitis

82
Q

dark inner, bright outer rings

A

benign small bowel disease

82
Q

hemorrhage in mural thrombus or in the wall of the aneurysm

A

impending rupture of aortic aneurysm

82
Q

band-like peripheral enhancement

A

Liver metastases

82
Q

multiple regular, thin, transverse folds in the esophagus

A

suggestive esophagitis

83
Q

fatty liver dark on CT and bright on US

A

Fatty liver

83
Q

arterial = central liver enhance prominently, weak peripheral enhancement; delayed = periphery of liver enhanced while washed out central liver

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome

83
Q

thinned folds tethered together

A

scleroderma

83
Q

oblique lines created by orientation of the transition zones

A

Sigmoid volvulus

83
Q

medial displacement of the lateral edge of the liver

A

ascites (usually massive, more commmonly malignant)

83
Q

soft tissue infiltration of the mesentery

A

Sclerosing mesenteritis

83
Q

high signal focus within a low intensity nodule (high signal focus avidly enhances on arterial phase)

A

HCC developing from dysplastic nodule

83
Q

apex of distended sigmoid colon may extend cephalad to transverse colon

A

Sigmoid volvulus

84
Q

tumor nodules in on peritoneal surfaces

A

Peritoneal mesothelioma/ metastases

85
Q

inflammation surrounding central fat

A

epiploic appendagitis

86
Q

confluent enlarged lymph nodes engulfing mesenteric vessels but sparing the rind of fat surrounding the vessels

A

mesenteric lymphoma

86
Q

series of ring-like strictures

A

eosinophilic esophagitis

87
Q

barium trapped in the clefts between fronds

A

villous tumors of the stomach

87
Q

masses of retroperitoneal nodes may sillhouette segments of the normally echogenic wall of the aorta

A

masses of retroperitoneal nodes

88
Q

regular pattern of thickened folds

A

Intramural hemorrhage of duodenum

88
Q

row of small gas bubbles oriented horizontally or obliquely across the abdomen

A

Small bowel obstruction

88
Q

radiating soft-tissue density in the mesenteric fat due to mesenteric fibrosis

A

carcinoid tumor (SI)

89
Q

stiff narrowed stomach

A

Scirrhous carcinoma/linitis plastica

89
Q

multiple nodular defects along the colon

A

ischemic colitis (also seen in pseudomembranous colitis)

90
Q

barium-filled sock within lumen of descending duodenum

A

Intraluminal duodenal diverticula

90
Q

eroded femoral neck due to pressure erosion of multiple non-ossiified loose bodies in the joint

A

non-ossified synovial

90
Q

flexion at the PIP and hyperextension at the DIP

A

RA

91
Q

hyperextension at the PIP and flexion at the DIP

A

RA

91
Q

flexion at the MCP and hyperextension at the IP

A

RA

92
Q

radial deviation of the wrist and ulnar deviation at the MCP

A

RA

92
Q
A

normal body of the meniscus

93
Q

vertical longitudinal tear that can result in the inner free edge of the meniscus becoming displaced into the intercondylar notch

A
93
Q
A

Arachnoiditis (type III)

93
Q

divison of the tendon into 2 parts

A

ongitudinal split tear of the peroneus

94
Q
A

Arachnoiditis (type II)

94
Q

slight overlap of the humeral head with the glenoid

A

normal AP shoulder

94
Q

fragmentation and compaction of subchondral bony fracture debris leading to the development of a subchondral lucent area along the fracture line

A

eg)osteonecrosis of the femoral head

95
Q

line of low signal intensity reflecting bone sclerosis and an inner zone of high signal intensity indicating granulation tissue. Chemical shift misregistration artifact contributes to the double line sign.

A

osteonecrosis

95
Q

focal radiodense areas in the cranial vault

A

Paget’s disease (inactive osteosclerotic)

95
Q

condensation of bone which are prominent along the contours of the vertebral body

A

Paget’s disease (inactive osteosclerotic)

96
Q

uniform increase in osseous density which can also be seen in mets or lymphoma

A

Paget’s disease (inactive osteosclerotic

97
Q

biconcave/step-off deformities

A

Paget’s disease, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, and hyperparathyroidism

98
Q

funnel-like defect through a vertebra dividing it into right and left halves

A
99
Q

hyperextension of the MTP joint and flexion of the PIP and DIP joints

A

OA (of the IP joints of the toes)

99
Q

hyperextension of the MTP, flexion of the PIP, and hyperextension of the DIP

A

OA (of the IP joints of the toes)

99
Q

MTP is in a neutral position and there is flexion of the PIP and DIP

A

OA (of the IP joints of the toes)

99
Q

concaviity on the inferior surface of the lower lumbar vertebrae

A

normal

99
Q

flexion of the DIP

A

OA (of the IP joints of the toes)

99
Q

steplike central depression of the endplates

A

sickle cell anemia, Gaucher’s disease

100
Q

single centrl radiodense line related to ossification of the supraspinous and interspinous ligaments

A

ankylosing spondylitis

100
Q

3 vertical radiodense lines related to ossification of the supraspinous and interspinous ligaments and apophyseal joint capsules

A

ankylosing spondylitis

100
Q

pathognomonic

A

sickle cell anemia

100
Q

sclerotic bands at the vertebral body endplates

A

hyperparathyroidism / renal osteodystrophy

100
Q
A

renal osteosclerosi

100
Q

endplates are densely sclerotic (to differentiate from rugger jersey spine, sandwhich vertebrae appearance is much denser and more sharply defined)

A

osteopetrosis

101
Q

vertebrae have a small replica of the vertebral body inside the normal one

A

osteopetrosis

101
Q
A

Intrauterine rubella

102
Q

area of increased uptake corresponding to the reactive sclerosis + second area of increased uptake corresponding to the nidus

A

osteoid osteoma

102
Q

piece of cortex breaks off after a fracture and sinks to the gravity-dependent portion of the lesion

A

solitary bone cyst

102
Q

thinning and small areas of discontinuity or gaps

A

regional osteoporosis in RA

103
Q

sharp leading edge of the lytic lesion

A

lytic phase of Paget disease

103
Q

thickened cortical new bone that accumulates near the ends of long bones, usually on one side

A

melerheostosis

103
Q
A

unilateral closure of sagittal suture

104
Q

premature synostosis of multiple sutures, frequently accompanied by hypoplasia of the midportion of the face, hydrocephalus, and mental retardation

A
104
Q
A

bilateral sacral stress fracture

105
Q
A

Leprosy (Hansen’s disease)

106
Q
A

spinal subdural hematoma

107
Q

Plasmacytoma involving a vertebral body; tendency to spare some of the bone, leaving struts of cortical bone and giving the appearance of a cut brain specimen

A

plasmacytoma/multiple myeloma

108
Q
A

lunate or perilunate dislocation

109
Q

costochondral junctions of the middle ribs

A

rickets

110
Q

anterior bowing of the lower part of the leg due to the strong posterior pull of the Achilles tendon on the calcaneus

A

rickets (infancy and early childhood),

111
Q

continued accumulation of osteoid in the frontal and parietal regions resulting in a squared configuration

A

rickets (first months of life)

112
Q

intrusion of the hip and spine into the soft pelvis

A

rickets (increasing age

113
Q
A

superior and outward displacement of the anterior fat pad

114
Q

hypertrophied terminal tufts of the distal phalanges

A

acromegaly

115
Q

(+) space between navicular and lunate

A

rotatory subluxation of the navicular

116
Q

short tubular bones of the extremities with marked metaphyseal widening

A

metatropic dysplasia

117
Q

large trochanters, typically the lesser trochanter, especially in infancy

A

metatropic dysplasia

118
Q
A

metatropic dysplasia

119
Q

particularly characteristic site of erosion in the medial surface of the proximal tibial shaft

A

Congenital syphilis

PBR 2 and 3 (41 decks)

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