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PBR 2 and 3 > Page 20 > Flashcards

Page 20 Flashcards

1
Q

Fetal position where the thighs are flexed at the hips with the legs and knees extended

A

frank Breech

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2
Q

Thighs are flexed at the hips and there is flexion of the knees as well

A

complete breech (least common)

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3
Q

With what type of breech is the risk of cord prolapse greatest?

A

footling

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3
Q

-One or both hips and knees are extended

A

footling

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3
Q

With what type of breech is the risk of cord prolapse least?

A

frank

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4
Q

What variation of umbilical cord anatomy occurs when fetal vessels cross the internal cervical os in an attempt to reach the main substance of the placenta?

A

vasa previa

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5
Q

Name the aneuploidy: growth restriction, prominent occiput, small mandible, short sternum, clenched hands, rocker-bottom feet, choroid plexus cysts (25%)

A

trisomy 18

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5
Q

Name the aneuploidy: short stature, brachycephaly, flat occiput, short neck with redundant skin on the nape, short broad hands, and hypotonia

A

trisomy 21

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5
Q

Most efficient multiple-marker screening test in the 2nd tri

A

quad screen

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5
Q

Name the aneuploidy: severe CNS malformations such as holoprosencephaly, growth restriction, cleft lip and palate, microphthalmia, polydactly, clenched hands with overlapping digits, and renal abnormalities as polycystic kidneys

A

trisomy 13

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5
Q

Name the aneuploidy: short stature, ovarian dysgenesis, infertility, webbed neck, peripheral
lymphedema at birth, renal abnormalities. Prenatally, increased nuchal translucency or cystic hygroma, lymphangiectasia, CHDs particularly left-sided obstructive lesions such as COA

A

Turner (45, X)

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6
Q

Low levels of AFP and uE3 and elevated levels of hCG and inhibin A

A

Down

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6
Q

Embryonic development

A
  1. pre-organogenetic phase - conception untile somite formation - all or none period
  2. embryonic period - weeks 3 to 8 - organogenesis period, max sensitivity to teratogenicity 3. fetal phase
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6
Q

AFP, uE3, and hCG are all low

A

trisomy 18

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6
Q

Single most powerful marker for differentiating Down syndrome from euploid pregnancies

A

(1st tri sonographic measurement of the) fetal nuchal translucency space

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6
Q

Most powerful marker for general population screening for Down syndrome

A

nuchal translucency sonography

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6
Q

Ideal time to screen for fetal aneuploidy

A

1st tri

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6
Q

Aneuploidies associated with septated cystic hygroma

A

Down (mc), Turner, and trisomy 18

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6
Q

Most sensitive and specific single marker for the midtrimester detection of Down syndrome

A

thickened nuchal fold

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6
Q

Some of the MC sonographic markers seen in the 2nd tri

A

nuchal fold thickening, echogenic intracardiac focus, shortened long bones, hyperechoic bowel, renal pyelectasis, choroid plexus cysts, clinodactyly, hypoplastic or absent nasal bone

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6
Q

What term refers to the combination of generalized hydrops and cystic hygroma?

A

ymphangiectasia

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6
Q

What is associated with absence of the fetal nasal bones on 1st tri US?

A

Down

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6
Q

Most helpful in detecting trisomy 21 between 17 and 19 wks AOG

A

short femur

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7
Q

After gestational sac, what is the next visible landmark that can be used for pregnancy dating?

A

yolk sac

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7
Q

Position of cursors in measuring BPD

A

outer to inner, inner to outer, middle of wall to middle of wall

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8
Q

What is often the 1st feature of fetal hydrops revealed by US in early pregnancy?

A

generalized skin edema

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9
Q

Skin edema is best and most clearly observed where?

A

fetal head, more specifically, at the back of the neck

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9
Q

Classic triad of signs suggestive of congenital toxoplasmosis?

A

chorioretinitis, intracranial calcifications, hydrocephalus

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9
Q

Overall the most sensitive marker for trisomy 18

A

short ear length

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9
Q

Chorionicity and amnionicity of pregnancy in twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome

A

monochorionic diamniotic

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9
Q

Level of cervical fusion in Apert syndrome?

A

C5-C6

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10
Q

Often the first manifestation of hydrops?

A

ascites

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10
Q

(Which side of the body is more often affected in Poland syndrome?)

A

right

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11
Q

(1st sonographic finding in Meckel syndrome)

A

oligohydramnios

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11
Q

Most characteristic prenatal feature of monosomy X (Turner) syndrome?

A

cystic hygroma

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12
Q

What is the first definitive sonographic finding to suggest early pregnancy? / What is the earliest unequivocal sign of pregnancy using sonographic evaluation? / What is the first structure that can be measured for the purpose of calculating GA?

A

gestational sac / chorionic sac

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13
Q

Position of cursors in measuring HC

A

outer to outer

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13
Q

Describe the “arrow” that must be seen in measuring the HC

A

cavum septi pellucidi and frontal horns are the feathers 3rd ventricle and sylvian aqueduct are the shaft ambient and quadrigeminal cisterns and tentorial hiatus are the arrowhead
(Note: cavum septi pellucidi must be visible in the anterior portion of the brain and the tentorial

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14
Q

What is technically the easiest to measure among the common biometric measurements?

A

femur length

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14
Q

What is the most difficult of the four measurements that are ordinarily obtained?

A

abdominal circumference

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14
Q

In what plane should you measure the AC?

A

right and left portal veins are continous with one another

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14
Q

What is the type of placentation of conjoined twins?

A

monochorionic-monoamniotic

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15
Q

What is the only criteria diagnostic of monochorionic-monoamniotic twins?

A

single amniotic cavity

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15
Q
A

dichorionic-diamniotic

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16
Q

With rare exceptions, what is always the type of placentation of dizygotic twins?

A

dichorionic-diamniotic

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16
Q

What is the most important predictor of the pregnancy-related complications in twin gestations?

A

type of placentation (chorionicity, not zygosity)

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16
Q

What is the amnionicity if there are 2 yolk sacs?

A

diamniotic

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16
Q

What is the chorionicity if more than 2 membrane layers are seen?

A

dichorionic

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16
Q

What is the chorionicity if 2 layers in the dividing membrane / membrane layers are seen?

A

monochorionic

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16
Q

What type of placentation is more likely if there is a thicker dividing membrane?

A

dichorionic-diamniotic

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17
Q

What is the chorionicity if there are differing genders?

A

dichorionic

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17
Q

With what conditions has premature or accelerated placental calcification been associated?

A

chronic maternal HTN, preeclamppsia, IUGR, smoking

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17
Q

What is the most accurate predictors of dichorionic placentation?

A

twin-peak sign / separate placentas

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17
Q

What are the common etiologies for hypoechoic placental lesions which are often of no clinical significance?

A

intervillous thrombus and decidual septal cysts (others: perivillous fibrin deposition/placental surface cysts, placental/venous lakes)

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17
Q

The most informative areas to find the dividing membrane are near what fetal structures?

A

neck, chin, limbs

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18
Q

What hypoechoic placental lesions are typically located at the periphery of the placenta, resulting in triangular or rectangular areas of fibrin deposited under the fetal surface of the placenta, with the base of the triangle along the chorion?

A

perivillous fibrin deposition/placental surface cysts

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18
Q

What are sonolucent intraplacental spaces sometimes with swirling internal echoes and shape that may be modified with change in maternal position or uterine contractions?

A

placental / venous lakes (no clinical significance)

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18
Q

In what conditions have placental lakes been variably reported?

A

Rh incompatibility, elevated maternal serum AFP, edematous placentas

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18
Q

In what area of the placenta is placental infarction more commonly located

A

periphery

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18
Q

With what conditons have placental infarctions been associated?

A

post-term, maternal HTN, anticardiolipin

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18
Q

Appearance of most placental infarction on US?

A

isoechoic (rarely, slightly hyperechoic)

18
Q

Which site of placental hematomas is of greatest clinical consequence?

A

retroplacental (can manifest as placental abruption)

18
Q

When the retroplacental hypoechoic complex is thickened, what possibilities shoule be considered?

A

retroplacental hemorrhage, focal myometrial contraction, or leiomyoma

18
Q

Associations of retroplacental hematomas?

A

HTN/preeclampsia, obstruction of venous drainage of the placenta, cocaine, smoking, anticardiolipin, trauma, chorioamnionitis

18
Q

What are the best predictors of pregnancy outcome in placental abruption?

A
  1. extent of placental detachment - >50%
  2. volume of bleed - >50 mL 3. location of bleed - retroplacenta
19
Q

Midportion of the placenta, not just the edge, completely covers the os?

A

central previa

20
Q

Villi penetrate the decidua but not the myometrium?

A

accreta (often used interchangeably as a general term)

20
Q

Villi penetrate and invade the myometrium but not the serosa?

A

increta

20
Q

To which vessel does the umbilical vein connect?

A

left portal vein

20
Q

Placenta extends into the LUS, usually >2 cm from the internal os, and does not cover or reach it?

A

low-lying placenta

21
Q

What is the most predictive sonographic sign of accreta?

A

placental lacunae

21
Q

At which end should SUA be confirmed?

A

fetal end

21
Q

Villi penetrate throught the myometrium and may perforate the serosa, sometimes into the adjacent organs?

A

percreta

21
Q

Exaggerated form of eccentric insertion of the cord, at the margin of the placenta?

A

battledore placenta

22
Q

Cord inserts beyond the placental edge into the free membranes of the placenta?

A

velamentous insertion of the cord

22
Q

Early in development, there are 2 umbilical veins. Which atrophies, left or right?

A

Right

22
Q

Which direction of cord twist is more common?

A

left

22
Q

5 parameters of BPP

A

breathing, movement, tone, HR, urine output (AFV)

23
Q

Which variable/parameter was added in the modified BPP?

A

placental grading

23
Q

What 2 urinary tract abnormalities may be associated with polyhydramnios?

A

congenital mesoblastic nephroma and unilateral UPJ obstruction

23
Q

What is the 1st step in performing a BPP?

A

NST (continuous fetal HR tracing)

24
Q

Which among the parameters of BPP evaluate the state of fetal well-being on an acute basis?

A

HR, breathing, movement, tone

25
Q

Which of the parameters of BPP evaluates the chronic fetal threats to fetal health?

A

AFV, placental grading

26
Q

What specific CNS centers are the different biophysical activities dependent on?

A

-tone - cortex (subcortical area) - 8 weeks
-movement - cortex nuclei - 9 weeks
-breathing - ventral surface of the 4th ventricle - 21 weeks
-NST - posterior hypothalamus, medulla - late 2nd tri or early 3rd tri

26
Q

What is the earliest biophysical activity to appear during intrauterine life?

A

tone (>movement>breathing>NST)

26
Q

What is the gradual hypoxia concept?

A

Biophysical activities that appear first during fetal life are the last to disappear when there is fetal asphyxia or intra-amniotic infection.

27
Q

What are the first biophysical activities to become compromised in the presence of fetal acedemia/hypoxemia?

A

HR, breathing (>movement>tone)

27
Q

What is the most caudal structure of the pelvic cavity?

A

pelvic diaphragm

28
Q

What form the pelvic diaphragm?

A

levator ani and coccygeus muscles

29
Q

The suspensory ligament of the ovary is usually not seen. But what structure within it is often
identified with TAS or TVS?

A

ovarian artery

30
Q

What is the thickest layer of the myometrium?

A

intermediate / middle layer

31
Q

Bordering structures of the ovarian fossa

A

anteriorly - obliterated umbilical artery posteriorly - ureter and internal iliac artery
superiorly - external iliac vein

32
Q

Narrowest portion of the fallopian tube?

A

interstitial or intramural portion

33
Q

(What portion of the fallopian tube can be normally demonstrated sonographically?)

A

interstitial or intramural portion (isthmus, ampulla, and infundiblum not usually seen unless there is tubal pathology or free fluid)

34
Q

Ureter course

A

true pelvis - anterior to the internal iliac artery and posterior to the ovary
-courses anteriorly and medially to lie in the broad liagament where it is in close proximity to the uterine artery
-runs anterior, in front of the lateral fornices of the vagina and then passes medially to enter the trigone

35
Q

Bladder shape/appearance on transverse scans

A

superiorly, rounded/oval; inferiorly, square

36
Q

Where along the urethra are uretheral diverticula found?

A

posterior and lateral

37
Q

Where does the rectum begin?

A

S3

38
Q

Term for when the uterus becomes “trapped” in the sacral hollow during pregnancy?

A

incarcerated

39
Q

Constellation of 3 findings on sonography diagnostic of an incarcerated uterus

A
  1. pregnancy is deep within the cul-de-sac 2. UB lies anteriorly rather than inferiorly to the uterus and marked bladder distension
  2. cervix (soft tissue structure) is seen between bladder and pregnancy
40
Q

What separate the outer layer from the intermediate layer of the myometrium?

A

arcuate vessels

41
Q

Which among the uterine anomalies has the poorest fetal survival? Most difficult to confidently diagnose on US?

A

unicornuate

42
Q

Reproductive complications are greatest in this class of mullerian duct anomaly

A

septated

42
Q

What congenital structural malformation has the strongest association with early miscarriage?

A

septate uteri (due to poorly vascularized septum)

42
Q

Most consistent finding among polycystic ovaries?

A

increased stromal echogenicit

42
Q

2003 definition of PCOS according to the Rotterdam consensus workshops

A

12 or > follicles measuring 2-9 mm, ovarian volume >10 cc

42
Q

In which breast quadrant is most of the dense tissue found?

A

upper outer

42
Q

Risk factors of ectopic preg

A

tubal surgery, sterilization, previous ectopic, DES, IUD, tubal disease - high risk
infertility, genital infection, multiple sexual partners - moderate pelvic/abdominal surgery, smoking, vaginal douching, <18 yo at first intercourse - slight

42
Q

What is known as “no man’s land” in which no glandular tissue should be seen?

A

retroglandular fat

42
Q

What is the earliest sign of IUP?

A

small fluid collection in the endometrium

43
Q

Most specific finding of ectopic pregnancy?

A

extrauterine live embryo

43
Q

(Arrangement of the 3 mammographic views for triangulation)

A

CC, MLO, ML

43
Q

What are the 3 “danger zones”?

A
  1. medial portion of the breast 2. retroglandular fat 3. film edge at the chest wall
43
Q

There should be only fatty tissue in the medial breast near the chest wall and in the retroglandular fat. What is the only normal exception?

A

sternalis muscle

43
Q

What breast location is most often excluded by screening mammograms?

A

upper inner

43
Q

What part of the breast is included more in the Cleopatra view?

A

outer

43
Q

-pleomorphic

A

BI-RADS 4

43
Q

What view can be utilized to display the lower inner portion of the breast

A

superior-inferior oblique view (reverse oblique)

44
Q

large rodlike

A

BI-RADS 2

44
Q

Eggshell-type or rimlike calcifications

A

calcifiying oil cysts, fat necrosis, intraparenchymal calci, skin calci

45
Q

Mass with round, coarse peripheral calcifications

A

fibroadenoma

46
Q

Needle-like or sausage-shaped calcifications pointing toward the nipple, usually asymptomatic

A

plasma cell mastitis or secretory disease

46
Q

Linear calcis on ML view, can’t be seen or cloudlike/smudgy on CC view / Sedimented calcifications within tiny benign cysts

A

milk of calcium / (aka sedimented calcium - Brant)

47
Q

What is historically the most difficult breast ca to see on mammograms?

A

invasive lobular ca

47
Q

What malignancies were reported to metastasize to the breast hematogeneously (multiple new solid masses all over in a nonductal pattern)?

A

melanoma and RCC

47
Q

What tumor can look like a “breast rock”? - entire mass replaced by dense calcification

A

fibroadenoma

48
Q

Aka fibroadenolipoma?

A

hamartoma

49
Q

Only fat-containing malignancy?

A

liposarcoma

50
Q

AD inherited, characterized by multiple and extensive intradermal oil cysts bilaterally?

A

steatocystoma multiplex

51
Q

fat-fluid or fluid-fluid level on lateral-medial view

A

galactocele

52
Q

Cysts with fluid-fluid level…

A

acorn cysts

53
Q

Complex masses

A

cancer, hematoma/seroma, abscess, Phyllodes tumor, intracystic papilloma or ca, galactocele

54
Q

Giant fibroadenoma cutoff size

A

> 8 cm

55
Q

In premenopausal women, when does the normal breast tissue enhance the most?

A

right before the onset of mense

56
Q

In premenopausal women, when does the normal breast tissue enhance the least?

A

7-10 days after the onset of menses

57
Q

Nonenhancing internal septations in smooth, oval, or lobulated masses are highly specific for?

A

fibroadenoma

58
Q

Types of enhancement (Daniel)

A

type I - nonenhancing indicate type II - gradually enhancing benignancy
type III - rapidly enhancing with sustained gradual enhancement indeterminate
type IV - rapidly enhancing with plateau high likelihood of type V - rapidly enhancing with early washout

59
Q

Types of enhancement curves (Kuhl)

A

type I curve - gradually enhancing with a late persistent plateau
type II - rapidly enhancing with a late plateau
type III - rapidly enahcning with a late rapid washout

60
Q

Axillary LN levels

A

I - infralateral to lateral edge of the pectoralis minor muscle
II - behind the pectoralis minor muscle
III - between the pectoralis minor and subclavius muscles (Halsted ligament)

61
Q

Mainstay for determining extent of disease?

A

Rupture, contraction of fibrous capsule, capsular calci, hematoma, infection, silicone gel bleed

62
Q

What are the causes of implant rupture?

A

Subpectoral location, implant age, closed capsulotomy

63
Q

How do you classify implant integrity?

A

Intact, intact with gel bleed, intracapsular rupture, extracapsular rupture

64
Q

How do you differentiate radial folds from stepladder sign?

A

Multiple thin echogenic lines; radial folds - always extend to implant periphery, stepladder lines DO NOT

65
Q

Most sensitive and specific finding for rupture?

A

linguine sign

66
Q

Probably the most important characteristics to assess in a breast mass?

A

margins

67
Q

With what malignancy are groups of pleomorphic calcifications that are more linear or dot-dash in appearance more commonly associated?

A

comedocarcinoma (high-nuclear-grade intraductal carcinomas that have
luminal necrosis) (note: pag lower-grade ie cribriform and micropapillary, punctate and granular appearing)

68
Q

Which between prepectoral and subpectoral implants are subject to greater risk of fibrous and calcific contractures?

A

prepectoral

69
Q

Which of the patterns of enhancement on delayed imaging are more likely demonstrated by most
invasive ca?

A

invasive ca? plateau (64%) and washout (87%) (persistent - benign)

70
Q

Tell the displacement of the ureters in the presence of an ovarian mass? iliac lymph nodes?

A

ovarian mass - displace ureter posteriorly or posterolaterally; iliac LNs - medially or anteromedially

71
Q

When is the signal intensity of the myometrium highest? And therefore, low-intensity myometrial
lesions (leiomyomas and adenomyomas) are best demonstrated during this time…

A

late proliferative and early secretory / mid-menstrual cycle

PBR 2 and 3 (41 decks)

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