P and L ATPL Flashcards

1
Q

The runway limit weight is ?

A

the heaviest permitted weight for the available runway length and ambient
conditions of outside air temperature, pressure and wind component along the runway.

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2
Q

EOL

A

Effective
Operational Length (EOL) of the runway.

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3
Q

The most limiting field length for the B727 is ?

A

all engine takeoff distance required (due to the 15%
additional runway length required for all engines).

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4
Q

If a lower Wet V1 is not used for take-off on a wet runway, then BRW would have to be ?

A

reduced in order to preserve the reject capability on the runway with the reduced braking performance.

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5
Q

The runway limit weight is determined by three requirements ?

A

The all engines operating takeoff distance required (TODR). Also called the all-engine go distance.

The 1 engine operative takeoff distance required (TOR 1-inop). Sometimes referred to as the
Engine-out accelerate go distance.

The Accelerate Stop Distance Required (ASDR). This is defined for a B727 in the POH (page 1-7) as
the total distance required to accelerate from a standing start with all engines operating, experience
a pod failure such that failure is recognised at V1, and then decelerate to a full stop.

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6
Q

In the B727, the ASDR is always ?

A

less than the TOR with 1 engine inoperative.

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7
Q

a. TORA (TAKEOFF RUN AVAILABLE) ?

A

The length of RWY declared available and suitable for the ground run of an ACFT
taking off. (In most cases, this corresponds to the physical length of the RWY
pavement.)

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8
Q

TODA (TAKEOFF DISTANCE AVAILABLE)
.

A

The length of TKOF run available plus the length of any clearway (CWY) available

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9
Q

ASDA (ACCELERATE-STOP DISTANCE AVAILABLE)

A

The length of TKOF run available, plus the length of the stopway (SWY), if provided.
(Any SWY length included shall be adequate for use by all AFT which comply with the
RWY strength rating.)

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10
Q

LDA (LANDING DISTANCE AVAILABLE)

A

The length of RWY declared available and suitable for the ground run of an ACFT
landing (LDG). (In most cases, this corresponds to the physical length of the RWY
pavement.)

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11
Q

stopway ?

A

a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of the take-off run available, prepared as a
suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off;

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12
Q

clearway ?

A

a defined area at the end of the TORA, on the ground or water
under the control of the aerodrome operator, that is selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an
aeroplane may make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height.

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13
Q

Balanced Field Length Means ?

A

that Accelerate-stop Distance
And Accelerate-go Distance Are Equal

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14
Q

In order to achieve maximum takeoff weight for a given field length, the distance ?

A

required to reach 35 ft
With engine failure recognised by V1 and the distance required to accelerate stop need to be the same.
This is called the balanced field length. It is achieved through the selection of a balanced V1.

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15
Q

The lowest allowable V1 is based on ?

A

an engine failure at Vmcg and V1 at least 1 second later to allow
for recognition time.

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16
Q

Highest allowable V1 ?

A

VR

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17
Q

What’s the benefit of having a low V1 ?

A

A low V1 (close to Vmcg) results in a short accelerate stop distance, but a long 1 inop takeoff distance.
This is useful to maximise BRW on a runway which has a clearway available beyond the TORA.

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18
Q

Benefit of a high V1 ?

A

A high V1 (close to VR) results in a long accelerate stop distance, but a short 1 inop takeoff distance.
This is useful to maximise BRW on a runway which has a stopway available beyond the TORA.

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19
Q

Balanced V1 or a Mid V1 benefit?

A

A balanced V1 results equal accelerate/stop distance, and 1 inop takeoff distance.
This is useful to maximise BRW on a runway which has no stopway or clearway available beyond the TORA
(when ASDA = TODA).

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20
Q

The take-off area for a code 4 runway (CN) (4) ?

A

which is a field length 1800 m or greater is an area beyond
the end of the runway starting at a width of 90 m either side of the runway centre line and extending for
15000 m at a diverging width of 12.5% until a total width of 1200 m, or 1800 m in IMC operations when
the take-off procedure includes a heading change of greater than 15 degrees

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21
Q

Line up allowance?

A

45m is subtracted

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22
Q

The minimum second segment (gear up) certification net gradient with an engine failure on takeoff in CAO
20.7.1 (B) is ?

A

1.8% at not less than V2

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23
Q

Second segment gear up boing certified climb gradient ?

A

1.9% net

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24
Q

Performance degradation margin 3 engine aeroplane?

A

0.9%

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25
Q

Pressure altitude = ?

A

Elevation + ( 1013-QNH) x30

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26
Q

Interpolate EPR to the nearest ?

A

nearest 5°C of OAT and 1000 ft of pressure altitude.

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27
Q

The EPR for a jet engine is ?

A

a ratio between the static pressure at the engine exhaust outlet and
the static pressure at the engine inlet.

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28
Q

If the aircraft is required to be operated with an inoperative aft fuel boost pump in tank 2, a minimum of ?

A

5443 kg of fuel must be left in the tank at all times to ensure that the forwards boost pump pickup will
remain covered during all normal flight attitudes to prevent fuel starvation.

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29
Q

The maximum zero fuel weight with INOP aft boost pump will be reduced by ?

A

5443 kg to 58057 kg.

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30
Q

Standard male female weights ?

A

86 male
71 female
Standard 81

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31
Q

Adolescent weight ?

A

62kg

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32
Q

Child weight ?

A

45kg

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33
Q

Infant weight ?

A

20kg

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34
Q

When adolescents (either male or female) and children are carried, for scale movement
purposes, one adolescent/child is equivalent ?

A

to half an adult. The correct weight must be
accounted for in the weight column.

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35
Q

For scale movement purposes infants are ?

A

ignored. However, the correct weight must be
accounted for in the weight column.

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36
Q

Speed Certification is based on the most adverse CG position for the speed being considered ?

A

For Vs: Most forward CG.
For VMCA : Most rearward CG.

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37
Q

Thrust = ?

A

Mass Air Flow x (Vj-
V) or Mass x Acceleration

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38
Q

Lower weight moves the total drag curve ?

A

down and left (less drag and a lower min drag speed at the
same angle of attack).

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39
Q

Extending gear or flaps or spoilers (speed brakes) moves the total drag curve ?.

A

up and left (more drag
and a lower min drag speed).

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40
Q

Vimd gives what ?

A

max L/D
min drag
best endurance
max angle of climb Vx

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41
Q

Best air range achieved at ?

A

Best TAS/drag ratio @1.32 Vimd

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42
Q

Best range is achieved at which altitude?

A

Initially range improves with increasing altitude, but once design RPM is exceeded, higher altitudes will
result in reduced range performance, so best range is not achieved at maximum altitude, but at Optimum
Altitude, where engine design RPM yields the airframe’s best range speed.

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43
Q

Best ground range is achieved at ?

A

at best groundspeed/drag ratio

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44
Q

Average TAS in climb = ?

A

= Air distance (Anm)/ETI (min) × 60

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45
Q

Average rate of climb = ?

A

PA climbed (ft)/ETI (min)

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46
Q

To calculate SAR ?

A

divide TAS by Fuel Flow (FF) (in tonnes per hour). SAR = TAS/FF

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47
Q

To calculate SGR ?

A

divide Groundspeed (GS) by Fuel Flow (FF) (in tonnes per hour). SGR = GS/FF

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48
Q

At a constant speed and altitude, high gross weights result in what SGR ?

A

low SGR (poor fuel economy) due to
increased drag.

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49
Q

Each 10 000 kg of weight loss (about 2 hours of cruise) does what to SGR ?

A

improves SGR by about 10% (10 gnm per tonne or
1 kg/nm).

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50
Q

ALTITUDE
At a constant weight and speed, an increase in altitude results in what change to SGR ?

A

an increase in SGR (good economy) as
the altitude increases towards the optimum altitude for that weight and speed. Each 1000 ft below
optimum flight level reduces range by about 1%.

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51
Q

10 degrees of ISA deviation above ISA reduces SGR by about ?

A

1%. (0.9% per 10 degrees according to the
B727 POH).

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52
Q

Each 50kts of wind effects SGR how ?

A

Each 50 kt of headwind reduces SGR by about 10% (-10 gnm per tonne or 1 kg/nm). Each 50 kt of
tailwind increases SGR by about 10% (+10 gnm per tonne or 1 kg/nm).

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53
Q

How does altitude effect SFC ?

A

As altitude increases, the reduced air density reduces both thrust output and fuel flow, however below the
tropopause, the reduced temperatures result in a favourable reduction in SFC. Above the tropopause, the
SFC increases again as the lower air density is no longer offset by the reduction in outside air temperature.

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54
Q

Power = ?

A

Thrust x TAS

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55
Q

Approach attitudes given leading and trailing edge flap deployment?

A

High attitude given leading edge devices only
Low attitude given trailing edge devices only
Medium attitude given leading and trailing edge devices

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56
Q

V1 ?

A

VI is equal to VEr plus the speed gained during this recognition time with the critical engine inoperative
VI must not be less than Vmcg plus the speed gained during recognition time (1 second).
VI must not be greater than VR (although they may be equal).

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57
Q

Vr must not be less than ?

A

VR must not be less than V1.
VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA.

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58
Q

019
If a pilot rotates later than scheduled VR in a one engine inoperative take-off with an engine failure
at V1 , the TODR will ?

increase but the TORR will decrease
decrease but the TORR will increase
increase and the TORR will increase
decrease and the TORR will decrease

A

increase and the TORR will increase

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59
Q

In a turbo-jet aircraft, thrust output from the ram recovery effect is less than expected at very high
speed. This is due to ?

ram intake choking
ram shock wave interference
ram temperature rise
unstable air flow

A

ram temperature rise

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60
Q

The propulsive efficiency of a jet increases with an increase in speed due to ?
ram effect means more air going through the engine
the aircraft is approaching the speed of its exhaust
angle of attack is decreasing
the engine speed increases to design rpm

A

the aircraft is approaching the speed of its exhaust

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61
Q

The Landing Distance Required (LDR) to bring the aeroplane to a stop on a dry runway at the
planned destination aerodrome, and the destination alternate aerodrome (if any) for the flight, for
a CAR Part 121 jet engined aircraft, must not be greater than ?

60% of the landing distance available for the runway, assuming the aeroplane
crosses the runway threshold at a height of 50 ft
70% of the landing distance available for the runway, assuming the aeroplane
crosses the runway threshold at a height of 50 ft
60% of the landing distance available for the runway, assuming the aeroplane
crosses the runway threshold at a height of 35 ft
70% of the landing distance available for the runway, assuming the aeroplane
crosses the runway threshold at a height of 35 ft

A

60% of the landing distance available for the runway, assuming the aeroplane
crosses the runway threshold at a height of 50 ft

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62
Q

In the event of an engine failure en-route in a multi-engined aircraft operating as a CAR 121
operation, at 1500 ft above the landing aerodrome the net flight path gradient must be at least ?

positive
1%
1.3%
1.5%

A

positive

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63
Q

In weight and balance calculations, a moment is defined as ?

A

a weight multiplied by an arm

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64
Q

The definition of Basic Weight includes ?

A

operational items

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65
Q

For a take-off in a two engined aeroplane under CAR 121, in the en route configuration existing at
the end of the level flight acceleration manoeuvre, at final take-off climb speed with the critical
engine inoperative and the remaining engine at maximum continuous power or thrust, the aeroplane
must be able to achieve a gross gradient of climb of at least ?

A

1.2%

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66
Q

Expressing an aircraft CG position as a percentage of the Mean Aerodynamic Chord, (% MAC)
permits a comparison of the location of the CG relative to the position of the ?

A

centre of pressure

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67
Q

A reduction of Index Units (IU) refers to a centre of gravity shift which is ?

A

forward

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68
Q

In weight and balance calculations, the term Index Unit (IU) refers to ?

A

a moment

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69
Q

When Preparing a load and trim sheet for your company, Blue Sky Airlines, operating under CASR
Part 121, For scale movement purposes, infants are ?

A

ignored

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70
Q

When using standard weights to compile a B727 load and trim sheet for your company, Blue Sky
Airlines, operating under CAR Part 121
using standard male and female weights instead of the standard adult weight will generally result in ?

A

a lower total weight of passengers

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71
Q

When using standard weights to compile a B727 load and trim sheet for your company, Blue Sky
Airlines, operating under CAR Part 121
the standard weights include ?

A

an allowance for cabin baggage

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72
Q

With regard to the rotation speed (VR) ?

A

rotation at the correct rate at VR will result in attaining V2 at or below 35 ft with one engine
inoperative

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73
Q

With regard to the take-off safety speed (V2) ?

A

V2 is achieved as a result of proper rotation procedures

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74
Q

With regard to the minimum control speed (VMCA) ?

A

VMCA is the minimum speed at which the aeroplane can be kept within specified limits of heading
and attitude following sudden failure of the critical engine in the second segment configuration with
takeoff thrust applied

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75
Q

With regard to the stall speed VS1G ?

A

VS1G is the stalling speed or the steady flight speed, obtained in the clean configuration at 1G

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76
Q

The scenario which is most likely to cause a tail strike in a large turbojet aircraft during take-off
would be ?

A

a normal rotation rate at a speed lower than VR

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77
Q

V2 must not be less than ?

A

1.2 Vs

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78
Q

With regard to the use of Stopways and Clearways
a Stopway would sometimes be suitable as part of a Clearway ?

A

True

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79
Q

For an air transport operation according to CAR 121, it is a requirement that, assuming that the
critical engine fails at VEF and using a single V1: any clearway forming part of the take-off distance
available does not exceed ?

A

half the length of the take-off run available

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80
Q

If, during a flight of an aeroplane in an air transport operation under CAR 121, performance data is
used that contains actual landing distance data; and that data is used when calculating the landing
distance required at the aerodrome of intended landing, the pilot in command of the aeroplane must
ensure, during the flight and before landing, that the landing distance available at the aerodrome is
greater than, or equal to ?

A

115% of the landing distance required to bring the aeroplane to a stop on the runway

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81
Q

Balanced field length occurs when ?

A

the distance required one engine out to 35 ft, is equal to the ASDR

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82
Q

For a take-off in air transport operations under CAR 121, in calculating the net take-off flight path
for the flight
it must be assumed that the point on the net take-off flight path where a level flight segment
commences is ?

A

the same horizontal distance from the end of the runway as the point where the
gross take-off flight path intersects the height selected for the level flight acceleration manoeuvre

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83
Q

In an air transport operation under CASR 121, to meet planned missed approach climb
requirements ?

A

the aeroplane must be able to avoid obstacles by an acceptable margin using procedures specified
in the operator’s exposition for the specific runway, aerodrome and the aeroplane type

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84
Q

When determining the maximum weight for take-off in an aeroplane on an air transport operation
under CAR 121, the take-off distance required for a take-off from the runway must not exceed the
takeoff distance available for the runway; and any clearway forming part of the take-off distance
available must be appropriate for the aeroplane type and the operator and the pilot in command
must take into account ?

A

the loss of any runway length due to the aligning of the aeroplane for take-off

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85
Q

If used within the approved take-off range, the use of more flap on take-off will ?

A

shorten the take-off run, but lengthen the second and third take-off segments

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86
Q

A jet engine aircraft on an air transport operation under CAR 121, following the critical engine
failing at the most critical point along the route, when using a navigation specification of RNP 2 or
better, during flight from the cruising altitude to an aerodrome where a landing can be made, must
have a net flight path which ?

A

has a positive slope at 1500 ft above all terrain and obstructions within 5 NM of the intended track
to be flown; or clears all terrain and obstructions by at least 2000 ft vertically, within 5 NM of the
intended track to be flown

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87
Q

Of the following factors, the most significant in determining cockpit cut-off angle is ?

A

pilot seat height

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88
Q

With regard to unusable fuel in an aircraft fuel system, unusable fuel is ?

A

included in the Basic Weight and Maximum Brakes Release Weight

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89
Q

With respect to CG management, to minimise the risk of overbalancing the best sequence to load a
tricycle undercarriage large jet transport aircraft is to ?

A

load as much freight as possible first in the
front of the aircraft and load passengers from the central passenger zone

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90
Q

V1 must be greater than or equal to ?

A

VMCG plus pilot recognition time

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91
Q

As fuel is consumed from the wing tips, the aircraft CG moves ?

A

forward

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92
Q

The aircraft is loaded to a Taxi Weight of 84250 kg and full tanks with 29550 kg of useable fuel at
the ramp using the normal fuel loading procedure.
As 150 kg of Start and Taxi fuel, and 5850 kg of flight fuel is consumed from Taxi using normal
usage procedures, after the first hour of flight there is a fuel load remaining of 23550 kg. The most
forward aircraft CG position during the first hour of flight will be at a weight of ?

A

84250 kg

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93
Q

A B727 is loaded with 15000 kg of useable fuel in the main tanks for a flight.
The correct statement regarding fuel feeding is ?

A

use tank to engine feed

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94
Q

As the takeoff CG position becomes more rearward, the number of horizontal stabiliser trim units
required for take-off is ?

A

smaller

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95
Q

Before entering the landing charts when calculating landing weight for a Category 1 (CAT 1) ILS
landing, a LDA of 2000 mt must be reduced by ?

A

300 mt

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96
Q

When on approach to land in gusty conditions it is desirable to approach at a higher than normal
speed to account for variations in airspeed. To calculate this speed margin, add half the wind speed
and half the gust speed with a maximum increment of 20 kt above the approach speed.
If the reported wind at an aerodrome is 10 kt gusting to 20 kt (a 10 kt gust), then an aeroplane
should approach at ?

A

normal approach speed plus 10 kt

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97
Q

To achieve best endurance when holding in a jet engined aeroplane, the ideal altitude should be ?

A

higher rather than lower

98
Q

At a constant indicated air speed (IAS) in level flight, as the CG of a B727 moves rearwards during
flight due to fuel burn ?

A

induced drag, stall speed, Vmca speed and range all decrease

99
Q

What happens to SGR EAS and fuel flow At constant Mach number and level, as weight reduces in the cruise due to fuel burn ?

A

specific ground range (SGR) increases, equivalent air speed (EAS) stays constant, and fuel flow
decreases

100
Q

In a steady state climb at constant EAS and weight, the balance of forces mean that ?

A

lift is less than weight and thrust is equal to drag plus rearward weight component

101
Q

What’s transversely mean in loading ?

A

Short side length ways

102
Q

QUESTION APLA_095
The factors affecting an aircraft’s Maximum Brakes Release Weight include ?

A

structural maximums, zero fuel weight, runway limit, climb limit, en-route climb limit and landing
weight limits

103
Q

The four climb segments following an engine failure at V1 for a large turbine aircraft consist of ?

A

35 ft to gear up, gear up to 400 ft minimum, 400 ft minimum level to takeoff climb speed, 400 ft
minimum to 1500 ft

104
Q

Following an engine failure recognised by V1 in a twin-engined turbine transport aircraft, the gross
climb gradient that must be achieved without landing gear retraction is ?

A

positive

105
Q

The reason for specifying a maximum zero fuel weight for an aircraft is ?

A

to prevent excessive stress on the wings and fuselage with low fuel quantities

106
Q

The speed VREF is ?

A

the landing speed in a nominated configuration

107
Q

The accelerate stop distance required (ASDR) for a particular aircraft as shown in the manufacturers
data assumes ?

A

there is a 2 to 3 second reaction time between V1 and pilot response

108
Q

An aircraft approaching to land at a 3 degree approach angle, crosses the landing threshold 50 ft
higher than the normal approach height.
Compared to the normal touchdown position, the extra distance to the touchdown position for this
approach is ?

A

1000 ft

109
Q

When a range of V1 speeds is available for a given set of conditions, selection of a high V1 will ?

A

decrease the one engine inoperative takeoff distance required and increase the accelerate-s
distance required

110
Q

If a clearway is approved to extend the TODA in take-off performance calculations, the effect on the
brakes release weight of the addition of clearway (CWY) with the longer TODA is ?

A

the BRW may be increased if runway limited, and V1 would need to be reduced below the balanced
V1 to preserve reject capability

111
Q

When considering the obstacle clearance requirements for large multi-engined turbine aircraft
operating under CAR 121, in the event of an engine failure after take-off, the second segment
climb refers to the period from ?

A

the completion of landing gear retraction to a minimum height of 400 ft

112
Q

The effect on the V1 speed if stopway is included in takeoff and AD performance calculations is ?

A

V1 may be increased

113
Q

QUESTION APLA_123
The most critical segment for obstacle clearance in the event of an engine failure on take-off is the ?

A

second

114
Q

Climb limit weight net gradient required?

A

1.9% net gradient OEI

115
Q

How to determine EOL ?

A

Deduct 45m from shortest of ASDA
TODA
STODA if main TODA <1.9%

116
Q

Is V2 the best climb speed ?

A

No just the minimum acceptable

117
Q

V2 compared to VMCA and VS ?

A

> 1.1 VMCA or 1.2 VS

118
Q

What’s V2 Overspeed ?

A

On a climb limited takeoff. Delaying VR to achieve a higher than V2 climb speed.

119
Q

TORR ?

A

From start point to an equidistant point between Vlof and 35ft

120
Q

What’s the takeoff flight path ?

A

End of the Takeoff distance (35ft) to 1500ft ( Four segments)

121
Q

Torque setting for four segments OEI takeoff ?

A

First 3 are max T last segment is MCP

122
Q

Forward COG in the cruise performance?

A

Increase stall speed, drag and thrust required. Reduce range

123
Q

Benefits of forward COG in cruise ?

A

Reduced VMCA and increased longitudinal stability

124
Q

What happens the the thrust/drag/ fuel flow curve if your low weight ?

A

Down and left

125
Q

What happens the the thrust/drag/ fuel flow curve if you have gear flaps and spoilers out ?

A

Up and left

126
Q

Best air range ?

A

At best TAS/Drag ratio 1.32VIMD

127
Q

Best ground range ?

A

At best GS/Drag ratio

128
Q

727 designed to cruise between what flight levels ?

A

FL300 - FL350

129
Q

Buffet boundaries ?

A

Low and high speed. Pre stall and MCRIT

130
Q

Drift down OEI rounding ?

A

Round weight to nearest 1000kg and temp to nearest 5 degrees

131
Q

Climb schedule 727 ?

A

310/0.78M

132
Q

Average TAS in climb equation ?

A

Air distance ( anm ) / ETI ( min ) x 60

133
Q

Stabiliser trim benefits?

A

Reduced drag
Preserves elevator travel
Allows a smaller elevator

134
Q

How many cabin crew standard ?

A

6

135
Q

En route climb what do you round your brake release weight to ?

A

Nearest 2000kg

136
Q

Do the standard weights include an allowance for cabin baggage ?

A

Yes

137
Q

If runway is longer than what, do you reduce landing distance by 13% instead of 300m for ILS CAT 1 ?

A

2300m

138
Q

The angle of attack required for minimum thrust in level flight in a particular turbojet aircraft ?

does not vary with changes in gross weight
is greater at higher gross weights
is greater at lower gross weights
occurs at a faster speed at lower gross weights

A

does not vary with changes in gross weight

139
Q

The correct statement concerning the climb speed profile of a lightly loaded transport category jet
aircraft which is climbing at VMO is ?
the climb is initially made at Vmo until Mmo is reached and then the remainder of the
climb is made at Mo if thrust limits permit
the climb is initially made at Vmo until the engine thrust limits are reached then the
remainder of the climb is made at MMo
the climb is initially made at no until VNE is reached
the climb is initially made at VMo until McIr is reached

A

the climb is initially made at Vmo until Mmo is reached and then the remainder of the
climb is made at Mmo if thrust limits permit

140
Q

Refer to the B727 Weight and Balance Extract. The Basic Weight (BW) of the aircraft is ?

only unusable oil and unusable hydraulic fluid
all oil and only unusable hydraulic fluid
only unusable oil and all hydraulic fluid
all oil and all hydraulic fluid

A

all oil and all hydraulic fluid

141
Q

The Long Range Cruise Mach (Muc) schedule of a jet transport aircraft is ?

the same as the maximum range cruise schedule and involves a reduction in wing
angle of attack as fuel is burnt and weight reduces
the same as the maximum range cruise schedule and involves a reduction in thrust
as fuel is burnt and weight reduces
slightly faster than the maximum range cruise schedule and involves a reduction in
thrust as fuel is burnt and weight reduces
slightly faster than the maximum range cruise schedule and involves a reduction in
wing angle of attack as fuel is burnt and weight reduces

A

slightly faster than the maximum range cruise schedule and involves a reduction in
thrust as fuel is burnt and weight reduces

142
Q

At a given Flight Level (FL), the maximum air range of a jet transport aircraft of a given Brakes
Release Weight (BRW) is achieved by flying ?

at a speed corresponding to the best TAS/Drag ratio in nil wind and this is equivalent
to the best Lift/Drag ratio speed
at a speed corresponding to the best TAS/Drag ratio in nil wind and this is equivalent
to 1.32 times the best Lift/Drag ratio speed which occurs at a lower angle of attack
as weight reduces
at a speed corresponding to the best Lift/Drag ratio in nil wind and this is equivalent
to 1.32 times the best TAS/Drag ratio speed which occurs at a slower speed as
weight reduces
at a speed corresponding to the best TAS/Drag ratio in nil wind and this is equivalent
to 1.32 times the best Lift/Drag ratio speed which occurs at a slower speed as weight
reduces

A

at a speed corresponding to the best TAS/Drag ratio in nil wind and this is equivalent
to 1.32 times the best Lift/Drag ratio speed which occurs at a slower speed as weight
reduces

143
Q

The maximum permitted seat load in the passenger cabin of the B727 without special authorisation
is ?

87 kg
86 kg
81 kg
77 kg

A

87 kg

144
Q

The location of the centre of gravity datum for the B727 is ?

just behind the main landing gear
at 28% MAC
one inch in front of the nose
just in front of the main landing gear
on the leading edge of the nose gear strut

A

just in front of the main landing gear

145
Q

B727 is in cruise at a constant altitude and Mach number. The effect of an increase in Outside Air
Temperature (OAT) on Specific Air Range (SAR) and True Air Speed (TAS) are ?

TAS and SAR will increase
TAS and SAR will decrease
TAS will increase and SAR will not significantly change
TAS will decrease and SAR will not significantly change

A

TAS will increase and SAR will not significantly change

146
Q

VREF is ?
the landing reference speed in a nominated configuration and is equal to 1.3Vs
the landing reference speed in a nominated configuration and is equal to 1.2Vs
the target speed for a missed approach
the touchdown speed

A

the landing reference speed in a nominated configuration and is equal to 1.3Vs

147
Q

A B727 is loaded with maximum useable fuel in the main tanks and both auxiliary tanks for a flight.
The correct statement regarding fuel feeding is ?

use tank-to-engine feed for all operations until 5000 kg remains, then use fwd aux
fuel, then use aft aux fuel, then use tank-to-engine feed
use tank 2 for all operations until the tank 2 quantity equals the quantities in tanks 1
and 3, then use aft aux fuel, then use fwd aux fuel, then use tank-to-engine feed
use tank 2 for all operations until not less than 3650 kg has been used, then use aft
aux fuel, then use fwd aux fuel, then use tank-to-engine feed
use tank 2 for all operations until not less than 3650 kg has been used and the mains
are essentially equal, then use fwd aux fuel, then use aft aux fuel, then use tank-to-
engine feed

A

use tank 2 for all operations until not less than 3650 kg has been used and the mains
are essentially equal, then use fwd aux fuel, then use aft aux fuel, then use tank-to-
engine feed

148
Q

The theoretical requirement (as far as the airframe is concerned) for maximum range cruise is ?

an TAS of VIM at a cruise level as high as possible
a Mach number of McIr at a cruise level as high as possible
a Mach number equal to that for LRC
an IAS of 1.32 Vimd at a cruise level as high as possible

A

an IAS of 1.32 Vimd at a cruise level as high as possible

149
Q

The maximum range TAS of a turbojet aircraft is ?

not influenced by wind
slower at high altitude
faster at lower gross weights
determined by the angle of attack for best GS/Drag

A

determined by the angle of attack for best GS/Drag

150
Q

The landing weight used in determining the take-off weight limitation is calculated allowing for ?

expected consumption of fuel and oil
no oil consumption
no fuel consumption
expected fuel consumption and no oil consumption

A

expected consumption of fuel and oil

151
Q

Your flying above the transition layer at a fixed Mach No. what happens to IAS and TAS ?

A
152
Q

What is the maximum crosswind for the Boeing 727 if you have lost both left and right hydraulic systems that power the ailerons and elevator?

A

15kts

153
Q

The B727 reject takeoff characteristics
mean that ?
as long as TODA is shorter than ASDA, both ADA and TODA are acceptable
mean that both ADA and TODA need to be checked individually
none of these
mean that as long as ASDA is shorter than TODA, both ASDA and TODA are acceptable

A

mean that as long as ASDA is shorter than TODA, both ASDA and TOD are acceptable

154
Q

A film crew is filming in flight and has equipment that needs to be bolted to the floor in the main cabin. Which of the following applies?

The items should be bolted to the floor at the rear of the cabin in the aisle, beyond the last exit row
• The items should be bolted to the floor at the rear of the cabin in the last exit row, but must be less than 0.3 m high and less than
0.7 m long
The items should be bolted to the floor below the film crew seats
O The items should be bolted to the floor below or in place of vacant seats

A

The items should be bolted to the floor below or in place of vacant seats

155
Q

Two aircraft of identical weight are taking off, aircraft 1 uses flap 25 whilst aircraft 2 uses flap 30. Which aircraft will have the higher
climb gradient and why?

© Aircraft 1 because it has less drag
• Aircraft 2 because it has a slower climb speed
• Aircraft 1 because it has a faster climb speed
Both will have the same gradient as they are the same weight

A

Aircraft 2 because it has a slower climb speed

156
Q

The optimal rate of rotation in a large passenger jet aircraft like the B727 or similar is?
© 1° to 2° per second
© 2° to 3° per second
© 4° to 5° per second
© 3° to 4° per second

A

2° to 3° per second

157
Q

When is the propulsive efficiency of a jet engine 100%?
When forward speed is the same as exhaust speed
At max range cruise speed
At long range cruise speed
When full thrust is set

A

When forward speed is the same as exhaust speed

158
Q

it is not specified which direction a long item is loaded in the cargo compartments ?
O you must load it with its longest side perpendicular to the aircraft
O you must load it with its longest side parallel to the aircraft
you may choose to load it in any direction
you must not load the item onto the aircraft

A

you may choose to load it in any direction

159
Q

Empty weight includes ?
equipment which is on the aircraft when weighed and has a fixed location, including engine oil, hydraulic fluids and any
unusable fuel
© equipment which is on the aircraft when weighed and is fixed to the aircraft only
© equipment which is on the aircraft when weighed and has a fixed location
equipment which is on the aircraft when weighed and has a fixed location plus operational items

A

equipment which is on the aircraft when weighed and has a fixed location, including engine oil, hydraulic fluids and any
unusable fuel

160
Q

Can you put more fuel in over wing or underwing ?

A

Underwing

161
Q

You are asked to determine the fuel requirement for a critical point 1 inop flight plan. Which best represents what should be
accounted for?
© Take weather holding fuel for either the departure and destination
© Take weather holding fuel for the greater of departure or destination
© Take weather holding fuel for both the departure and destination
© Take weather holding fuel for the departure but not the destination as you will never get there

A

Take weather holding fuel for either the departure and destination

162
Q

Basic Empty Weight (BEW) includes ?
the empty weight of the aircraft plus the operational items and crew
O the empty weight of the aircraft plus the operational items and payload
O the empty weight of the aircraft plus the operational items and the mandatory minimum pilot crew
• the empty weight of the aircraft plus the operational items

A

• the empty weight of the aircraft plus the operational items

163
Q

You are climbing through the lower stratosphere. Flying at a fixed Mach number, what change in TAS will you see?
© Unchanged
© Decrease
© Increase

A

Unchanged

164
Q

You are flying freight from Sydney (YSSY) into old Hong Kong (Kai Tak Airport) for the first time. You have heard stories about how you
can reach out the cockpit window and pick the washing off the clothes lines on the terraced approach. Landing doesn’t concern you so
much as taking off. What is the clearance for obstacles required during takeoff in the takeoff area?
35 ft
100 ft
200 ft
150 ft
50ft

A

35 ft

165
Q

After burning fuel from the AFT Aux, we ?
© switch to tank 2 and burn until the kg in tank 2 = tank 1 + tank 3
O switch to tank 2 and burn until the kg in tank 2 = 1.5 x tank 1 = 1.5 x tank 3
© switch to tank 2 and burn until the kg in tank 2 = tank 1 = tank 3
O switch to tank 2 and burn until the kg in tank 2 = 0.5 x tank 1 = 0.5 x tank

A

switch to tank 2 and burn until the kg in tank 2 = tank 1 = tank 3

166
Q

Jet engines are more efficient when at ?
O all RPM settings
O high RPM setting
O low RPM setting
O low altitude

A

high RPM setting

167
Q

When determining the critical point depressurised, should you account for traffic holding?
© You must plan to hold for traffic however ATC may slot you in ahead of other aircraft
O Yes, traffic holding fuel must always be carried regardless of emergency circumstances
O No. ATC will slot you in

A

No. ATC will slot you in

168
Q

Flying 15 knots above the landing speed will have what impact on the aiming point?
No effect
Further down the runway
Closer to the threshold
None of these

A

No effect

169
Q

When determining the maximum last minute passengers, what do we round to ?

A

Down to the nearest even amount of passengers

170
Q

Fuel for take off is ?
always drawn from FWD Aux, or if empty AFT aux, or if empty tank 2
always drawn from tank 2
always drawn from FWD Aux, or if empty AFT aux, or if empty tank 3
O always drawn from FWD Aux, or if empty AFT aux, or if empty tank

A

always drawn from tank 2

171
Q

What happens to stability as fuel is burnt off?
More stable
Less stable
No change

A

More stable

172
Q

After take off and burning the mandatory minimum from tank 2; if all other tanks have fuel, which tank is now used?
Tank 3
FWD Aux
Tank 1
Tank 2
Rear Aux

A

FWD Aux

173
Q

What is the maximum runway slope for the Boeing 727?
0% - 2%
0% +2%
+2% - 0%
+2% - 2%

A

+2% - 2%

174
Q

When ATIS not available what do we use for wind in our calculation for maximum quick turn around ?

A

Nil wind but land into wind, also assume you will land on the downslope.

175
Q

Balanced field length is?

a field length where the distance to accelerate and stop is equal to the take-off distance of an aeroplane experiencing
an engine failure at the critical engine failure recognition speed (V1)
when TORA and TODA are the same in both directions for opposite runways
a field length where the distance to accelerate and stop is equal to the take-off distance with all engines operational
a field length where the distance to accelerate and stop is equal to the take-off distance with all engines operational and climb to
35

A

a field length where the distance to accelerate and stop is equal to the take-off distance of an aeroplane experiencing
an engine failure at the critical engine failure recognition speed (V1)

176
Q

For a jet aircraft, where is it best to hold?
Minimum thrust
Lower rather than higher
Doesn’t have an impact
Higher rather than lower

A

Higher rather than lower

177
Q

When a plane is correctly rotated at VR, in the case of an engine failure ?
© lift-off is possible and V2 is reached at 50 feet at the latest
© lift-off is possible and V2 is reached at 35 feet at the earliest
lift-off is possible and V2 is reached at 50 feet at the earliest
O lift-off is possible and V2 is reached at 35 feet at the latest

A

lift-off is possible and V2 is reached at 35 feet at the latest

178
Q

Take-off distance available (TODA) means the sum of ?

the length of the take-off run available; and if clearway is provided- the length of the Clearway.
the length of the runway available; and if clearway is provided - the length of the clearway
the length of the runway available - minus the 45ft line-up allowance; and if clearway is provided - the length of the clearway
the length of the take-off run available

A

the length of the take-off run available; and if clearway is provided- the length of the Clearway

179
Q

From a stability point of view, what C of G position is the best?

Between the two ends of the envelope
On the aft end of the envelope
Anywhere as long as it is within the flight envelope
On the forward end of the envelope

A

On the forward end of the envelope

180
Q

If a right engine failure occurs 1 second after V1 ?

the aircraft will still be below VMCG
the takeoff should be continued
the aircraft will be approximately at VMCG
the takeoff should be aborted

A

the takeoff should be continued

181
Q

Contaminated runway means a runway that has ?

more than 50% of the runway surface area covered by: water, or slush, more than 5 mm deep; or loose snow more than 25 mm
deep; or compacted snow or ice, including wet ice
more than 25% of the runway surface area covered by: water, or slush, more than 5 mm deep; or loose snow more than 25 mm
deep; or compacted snow or ice, including wet ice
more than 50% of the runway surface area covered by: water, or slush, more than 3 mm deep; or loose snow more than 20 mm
deep; or compacted snow or ice, including wet ice
more than 25% of the runway surface area covered by: water, or slush, more than 3 mm deep or lose snow more than 20 mm deep; or compacted snow or ice, including wet ice.

A

more than 25% of the runway surface area covered by: water, or slush, more than 3 mm deep or lose snow more than 20 mm deep; or compacted snow or ice, including wet ice.

182
Q

For the B727; What does payload include?

Passengers and cargo
Cargo and fuel
Passengers and cargo and fuel and operational items
Passengers and cargo and fuel

A

Passengers and cargo

183
Q

In a typical long haul jet engine the optimal RPM and SFC curve would show ?

SFC reducing as RPM increases until approx 75-90% then SFC increasing slightly
SFC reducing as RPM increases until 100%
SFC reducing as RPM increases until approx 92-98% then SFC increases slightly
SFC reducing as RPM increases until approx 80-90% then SFC increasing slightly

A

SFC reducing as RPM increases until approx 92-98% then SFC increases slightly

184
Q

At a constant speed and altitude ?

high gross weights result in high SGR due to increased drag
low gross weights result in low SGR due to decreased drag
high gross weights result in low SGR due to increased drag
low gross weights result in low SGR due to increased drag

A

high gross weights result in low SGR due to increased drag

185
Q

When calculating TOD what altitude do you use for TAS ?

A

Half way down to sea level

186
Q

At what slope do you need to account for it when doing LDR calculations?

A

> +/- 1%

187
Q

The 727 cruises with a fuel flow of 4500 kg per hour at 450kt TAS. Calculate SAR per kg of fuel ?
100
1.0
0.1
0.01
10

A

0.1

188
Q

Which of the following is correct in relation to the Centre of Gravity for the Boeing 727?

Forward of the main wheels
Over the main wheels
Behind the main wheels

A

Forward of the main wheels

189
Q

When flying for best range with the gear down you should ?

fly at the same speed
fly at a slower speed
fly just faster
fly at a faster speed

A

fly at a slower speed

190
Q

In the B727, if the runway has a slope of 2% DN, then LDA should be ?

reduced by 10%
reduced by 40%
reduced by 30%
reduced by 20%

A

reduced by 20%

191
Q

What is the maximum TAT for the B727 LRC at FL280 with GW 72,100 kg?

15
17
11
12
14

A

14

192
Q

If the temperature was 9° above TAT for a LRC, the fuel flow would be set at ?
2% lower fuel flow
none of these
2% higher fuel flow
3% lower fuel flow
3% higher fuel flow

A

3% higher fuel flow

193
Q

The B727 standard descent profile is ?
.82M / 270 / 240 KIAS
.78M / 290 / 250 KIAS
.80M / 280 / 250 KIAS
.82M / 260 / 200 KIAS

A

.80M / 280 / 250 KIAS

194
Q

Assuming nil wind, the best cruising altitude for range ?
will always be the same altitude for every flight
will always be the highest altitude below FL250
will always be the highest altitude possible for the engine design RPM
will always be the highest altitude possible

A

will always be the highest altitude possible for the engine design RPM

195
Q

What is the effect of using zero flap compared to flap 15 for takeoff?
Runway limit weight will decrease but performance limited weight increase
Runway limit weight and performance limited weight increase
Runway limit weight and performance limited weight decrease
Runway limit weight will increase but performance limited weight decrease

A

Runway limit weight will increase but performance limited weight decrease

196
Q

Additional flap setting ?

reduces climb performance and reduces takeoff performance
improves climb performance, however reduces takeoff performance
improves takeoff performance, however reduces climb performance improves climb performance and improves takeoff performance

A

improves takeoff performance, however reduces climb performance

197
Q

When holding in a racetrack pattern, in ISA +5°C at GW 65,000 kg, at FL200 the EPR, IAS and Fuel Flow will be ?

1.48/223/1194
1.48/223/1188
1.48/223/1196
1.48/223/1190
1.48/223/1192

A

1.48/223/1192

198
Q

ERSA shows the following hypothetical runway characteristics; What is the subgrade stength category?
PHYSICAL CHARACTERISTICS

06/24 062 62a PCN15 /F/A/5700 690 (100PSI) / T WID 30 RWS 90

Ultra Low Strength
High Strength
Med Strength
Low Strength

A

High Strength

199
Q

When holding in straight and level at GW 68,000 kg, at FL150 the EPR, IAS and Fuel Flow will be ?

1.38/227/1201
1.38/227/1264
1.40/227/1264
1.40/227/1201

A

1.40/227/1201

200
Q

When flying a 15,700 kg twin turbine propeller aircraft, the minimum climb performance during a missed approach is ?

1.3 VS with a gross gradient of climb of at least 3.2%
1.5 VS with a gross gradient of climb of at least 3.2%
1.5 VS with a gross gradient of climb of at least 2.1%
1.3 VS with a gross gradient of climb of at least 2.1%

A

1.5 VS with a gross gradient of climb of at least 2.1%

201
Q

ERSA shows the following hypothetical runway characteristics; What is the pavement type?

06/24 062 62a PCN15/F/A/5700 690 (100PSI) / T WID 30 RWS 90

Flexible asphalt or bitumen
Flexible other surface Rigid asphalt or bitumen
Rigid concrete
Flexible concrete

A

Flexible asphalt or bitumen

202
Q

How does an aerodrome determine acceptable wheel loading for a significantly heavier than usual aircraft wanting approval to land?

They determine safety by testing
They determine safety by testing and then make a political decision of the benefits
They determine safety by testing and then make an economic decision of cost of repair v benefit
They determine safety by testing and then make an economic and or political decision of cost of repairs v benefits

A

They determine safety by testing and then make an economic and or political decision of cost of repairs v benefits

203
Q

Question 19 of 20
For .80M/280/250 KIAS, a descent for straight in approach from FL330 will use ….. Kg ?

670 kg
630 kg
680 kg
640 kg

A

670 kg

204
Q

Using a higher assumed temperature for takeoff will cause ?
a decrease in take off distance required
a higher V1 speed
a reduction in ASDR
an increase in takeoff distance required.

A

an increase in takeoff distance required.

205
Q

The big risk for a touchdown with excessive speed in a B727 or similar is ?

the aircraft becoming airborne in a gust of wind
overheating the brakes and landing gear
loss of control
tyres bursting on landing

A

overheating the brakes and landing gear

206
Q

Fixed alternate reserves ?

A

2250

207
Q

During a normal approach path the cutoff angle is ?

the angle between the closest point of the runway and the highest point in the sky the pilot can see
the angle between the longitudinal axis and the closest point the pilot can see on the ground
the angle between the closest point of the runway and the closest point the pilot can see on the ground
the angle between the highest point in the sky and the closest point the pilot can see on the ground

A

the angle between the longitudinal axis and the closest point the pilot can see on the ground

208
Q

The published TCH is 53 ft. The aircraft crosses the threshold on a 3 degree profile on slope but 18 kts too fast. The aiming point in
feet past the threshold is ?

1060
1000
940
680

A

1060

209
Q

The maximum legal reported tailwind component is:
15 kt
10kt
0 kt
12 kt

A

10kt

210
Q

What happens to the stall speed at high altitudes?
Remains the same
Increases
Decreases
Decreases then increases

A

Increases

211
Q

BRW 79,000 kg
Wind component 28 head, ISA +3
Planned cruise level FL280
You are currently 32 nm past the airport on climb passing FL120
Which best describes the top of climb position past the airport?

93 nm
118 nm
124 nm
86 nm

A

118 nm

212
Q

Using an assumed temperature for takeoff will cause what?
A reduction in fuel consumption for takeoff and climb as it is a lower thrust setting
No change to fuel efficiency/consumption
An increase in fuel consumption for takeoff and climb

A

An increase in fuel consumption for takeoff and climb

213
Q

An increase in takeoff weight will have what effect on the takeoff speed?
Decrease
increase
Same

A

increase

214
Q

Using an assumed temperature for takeoff will cause what?
No change to engine thrust
Reduction in engine thrust output
Increase in engine thrust output

A

Reduction in engine thrust output

215
Q

An increase in takeoff weight will have what effect on the takeoff run?
Decrease
Increase
Same

A

Increase

216
Q

Using an assumed temperature for takeoff will cause what?
Reduction in TORR
No change to TORR
Increase in TORR

A

Increase in TORR

217
Q

Aircraft A 200 groundspeed
Aircraft B 440 groundspeed
If both aircraft want to meet the same 3.3% climb gradient requirement, what will be the rate of climb of the aircraft B compared to A?

Same
Depends on the wind
lower
Higher

A

Higher

218
Q

When compared to a light aircraft, an increase in take off weight will have what impact on the ROC required to maintain a standard
climb gradient?

Increase
Same
Decrease

A

Increase

219
Q

When authorities design departure procedures they assume ?
your aircraft can maintain V2 with one engine inop and gear retracted
your aircraft can maintain V2 with one engine inop and gear plus flaps retracted
O your aircraft can maintain V2 with all engines functioning and gear retracted
your aircraft can maintain V2 with all engines functioning and gear plus flaps retracted

A

your aircraft can maintain V2 with one engine inop and gear retracted

220
Q

The screen height at V2 means ?

you can maintain V2 speed and clear all objects within 35 ft from the takeoff height to middle of the windscreen
you can maintain V2 speed and clear all objects within 35 ft from the takeoff height to bottom of the windscreen
you can maintain V2 speed and clear all objects within 35 ft from the takeoff height to top of the windscreen
you can maintain V2 speed and clear all objects within 35 ft above the takeoff height

A

you can maintain V2 speed and clear all objects within 35 ft above the takeoff height

221
Q

Using a TAF to determine the takeoff distance required. What should you use for planning purposes?

The mean wind speed indicated on the TAF, assume taking off on the uphill runway
Nil wind, zero slope
Minimum stated wind, assume taking off on the uphill runway
Nil wind, assume taking off on the uphill runway

A

Nil wind, assume taking off on the uphill runway

222
Q

Which of the following is most correct in regards to the seating within the cabin of the B727?
Passenger capacity is 144 seats and 6 seats for crew
Passenger capacity is 132 seats and 6 seats for crew
Passenger capacity is 138 seats and 6 seats for crew
Passenger capacity and crew capacity is 138 seats

A

Passenger capacity is 138 seats and 6 seats for crew

223
Q

How do flap settings affect the forward visibility during landing?
None of these
Flaps 30 leads to an approach with a higher angle of attack and reduces forward cockpit visibility
Flaps 40 leads to an approach with a higher angle of attack and reduces forward cockpit visibility
Flaps 25 leads to an approach with a higher angle of attack and reduces forward cockpit visibility

A

Flaps 25 leads to an approach with a higher angle of attack and reduces forward cockpit visibility

224
Q

The Critical Point (CP), or Equal Time Point (ETP), is when ?
an aircraft is the same flying distance from 2 potential en-route diversions
an aircraft is the same flying time from 2 potential en-route diversions
is half distance between origin and destination
is equal time between origin and destination

A

an aircraft is the same flying distance from 2 potential en-route diversions

225
Q

The major issue with late touchdown and prolonged flare is ?
excessive loss of airspeed while in flight
excessive brake temperatures
excessive speeds for brake application
excessive use of runway distance at speeds higher than landing calculations

A

excessive use of runway distance at speeds higher than landing calculations

226
Q

With regard to stability in landing configurations, which of the following is most accurate?

The aircraft may be less stable at high speeds and experience high sink rates
The aircraft may be more stable at high speeds, but experience higher sink rates
The aircraft may be less stable at low speeds and experience high sink rates
The aircraft may be more stable at low speeds, but experience high sink rates

A

The aircraft may be less stable at low speeds and experience high sink rates

227
Q

In the event of an engine failure, just after PNR which of the following is most accurate?

A higher altitude should be adopted in order to minimise loss of specific range
A driftdown procedure should be adopted in order to minimise loss of specific range
A driftup procedure should be adopted in order to minimise loss of specific range
A lower altitude should be adopted in order to minimise loss of specific range

A

A driftdown procedure should be adopted in order to minimise loss of specific range

228
Q

Liftoff speed is primarily limited by ?

the minimum rated speed of the tyre with the lowest rated maximum speed
the maximum rated speed of the tyre with the highest rated maximum speed
the maximum rated speed of the tyre with the lowest rated maximum speed
the minimum rated speed of the tyre with the lowest rated minimum speed

A

the maximum rated speed of the tyre with the lowest rated maximum speed

229
Q

ERSA shows the following hypothetical runway characteristics; What is the strength?

06/24
062 62a PCN15 /F/A/5700 690 (100PSI) / T
WID 30 RWS 90

A

15

230
Q

The ASDR is the sum of ?

brakes off to V2 distance, V2 to brakes applied, brakes applied to stop
brakes off to V1 distance, V1 to stop
brakes off to V1 distance, V1 to brakes applied, brakes applied to stop
brakes off to V2 distance, V2 to stop

A

brakes off to V1 distance, V1 to brakes applied, brakes applied to stop

231
Q

There is a minimum speed at which full rudder will be necessary, in order to fly a constant heading with level wings.
The speed that corresponds to a
minimum control speed and is referred to as VMCA
3-degree bank angle
1-degree bank angle
2-degree bank angle
5-degree bank angle
4-degree bank angle

A

5-degree bank angle

232
Q

Passengers should be loaded ?
from the front and into the rear or central zones first
from the rear and into the front or central zones first
from the front and into all zones evenly
from the front and into the front or central zones first

A

from the front and into the front or central zones first

233
Q

How do we determine the optimum altitude to fly at?
GS / Drag
GS / Fuel flow
Highest anm
TAS / Fuel flow

A

TAS / Fuel flow

234
Q

For a turbojet aircraft, where on the curve would best endurance be?
Minimum parasite drag
Minimum thrust
Where a straight line hits the curve on a tangent
Minimum induced drag

A

Minimum thrust

235
Q

What holding speed is best for speed stability?

Slightly slower than L/D max
Minimum speed
At L/D max
Slightly faster than L/D max

A

Slightly faster than L/D max

236
Q

Engine Failure Speed (Vef) is ?

the time to recognise the engine failure and apply full braking force OR a minimum of 2 seconds
the time to recognise the engine failure and apply full braking force OR a minimum of 1 second
the time to recognise the engine failure and take the first action to stop the aeroplane at V1 OR a minimum of 2 seconds
the time to recognise the engine failure and take the first action to stop the aeroplane at V1 OR a minimum of 1 second

A

the time to recognise the engine failure and take the first action to stop the aeroplane at V1 OR a minimum of 1 second

237
Q

With regard to the minimum control speed VMcg ?

Vmcg is the minimum speed at which the aircraft can be kept within specified limits of heading and attitude using primary aerodynamic controls only with the critical engine
inoperative and the remainder at take-off power in the second segment configuration
VmcG is the minimum speed at which directional control is available using primary
aerodynamic controls alone following sudden failure of the critical engine with maximum thrust in the take-off configuration
Vmcg is faster than Vef
VMcG is the minimum V1 speed

A

VmcG is the minimum speed at which directional control is available using primary
aerodynamic controls alone following sudden failure of the critical engine with maximum thrust in the take-off configuration

238
Q

Compared to a balanced field take off calculation, the addition of a clearway to the TODA in a
runway limited take off performance calculation will permit ?

a higher gross weight at take off with a lower Vi speed
a lower gross weight at take-off with a higher V1 speed
a higher gross weight at take off with a higher V1 speed
a shorter TODR

A

a higher gross weight at take off with a lower Vi speed

239
Q

balanced field length calculation is most useful ?
to maximise TOW in a runway limited situation when TODA=ASDA
to maximise TOW in a climb limited situation when TODR=ASDR
to maximise TOW when clearway is available
to maximise TOW in all situations

A

to maximise TOW in a runway limited situation when TODA=ASDA

240
Q

The maximum range of a turbojet aircraft at a particular altitude will be achieved flying at ?
a speed resulting the best lift/drag ratio
a speed resulting the best TAS/drag ratio
a speed resulting the best GS/drag ratio
a speed resulting the weight/drag ratio

A

a speed resulting the best GS/drag ratio

241
Q

LRC compared to MRC is what ?

A constant speed lower than MRC
A Constant speed and higher than MRC
Dependent on weight
Minimum drag speed

A

Dependent on weight