Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Dash 8 Q300/200 > Command Training > Flashcards

Command Training Flashcards

1
Q

Can we connect or disconnect GPU whilst refuelling ?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How to connect a GPU ?

A

Position GPU unit in front of aircraft nose with brakes on.
Ensure cabling does not interfere with PAX embarking or disembarking the aircraft.
Plug the 28v cable into the GPU access port
Activate the applicable switch to provide power to the aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What sort of power does a rectifier convert and provide to the Aircraft ?

A

Converts 415V AC at 3 phase to 28.5V DC to supply the A/C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Can we operate the diesel powered Generators used for GPUs ?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do we know the Rectifier is QANTAS owned ?

A

It will have a QANTAS OWNED sticker on it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Rectifier serviceability ?

A

No U/S tag on the rectifier
No obvious signs of damage, cuts in the wires, evidence of arching.
Excesssive kinks or bends in the wire, the plugs are fitted correctly with no angular bend forces on them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Rectifier precautions ?

A

Do not move the rectifier
Don’t use if U/S
Don’t turn on or off during refuelling
Don’t disconnect or connect leads unless the unit is switched off
Don’t adjust the voltage or any settings
If severe weather then switch it off, to avoid damage
Beware of any trip hazards from the unit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Operating instructions with rectifier units ?

A

Ensure the unit is in the correct position.
Ensure the unit and power supply are both switched off.
Plug the cable into the power supply socket on the aircraft.
Turn the power supply on
Turn the rectifier switch on
Ensure green DC ON switch light illuminates.
To switch off, turn the rectifier unit off, turn the supply power off, unplug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What’s a CDL ?

A

Configuration deviation list

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What’s FSO ?

A

Flight standing order

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What’s and SPFIB ?

A

Specific preflight information briefing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Documents to be carried whilst at work ?

A

AUS license, Medical, cyclic/ line check card and passport if international

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Can we refuel with pax onboard, if so how ?

A

Yes as long as it’s not over wing refuelling
Must stop if fuel vapour is detected inside the cabin
Flight crew to notify the cabin crew that refuelling will take place
Fasten belts sign off, no smoking sign on, emergency lights ARMED
Passengers are to be advised that refuelling is taking place
Exits are clear, doors open and Evacuation can immediate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Can we refuel with the APU running ?

A

Yes need to be pressure refuelling
APU is not to be turned off or on when refuelling
Left main tank has enough fuel for APU
Fuel truck parked 9.2 m away
Fuel spillage refuelling is to be stopped immediately
At ports where they are not accostumed to refuelling they need to be noticed the APU Will be operating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What must we check when refuelling is complete ?

A

Refuel access panel closed and refuelling on light is out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If you are starting the engines during the pushback when do you do the start checks ?

A

After all doors are closed and start/pushback clearance is received.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Main and Aux battery loads between engine starts ?

A

0.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What do we Reject for in the high speed regime ?

A

Master warning, engine failure/fire, directional control issues, anything that the captains deems would make the aircraft not fly able.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What’s CAMO stand for ?

A

Continuing airworthiness maintenance organisation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What’s AMO stand for ?

A

Approved maintenance organisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What’s MOCO stand for ?

A

Movement Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Enroute thunderstorms avoided by how far ?

A

20nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How long to leave the aircraft before doing a magnastick check ?

A

5 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Basic airport requirements for LAHSO ?

A

ATC, Airport runway and taxiway signage refer to AIP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Two modes of LAHSO ?

A

Passive or active, active is aircraft landing and holding short. Passive is the aircraft which had unrestricted use of the RWY.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

If you can’t participate in LAHSO ops what must you do ?

A

Notify ATC as soon as practical.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Pilot approved maintenance tasks are outlined where ?

A

In the FDEM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How many re tests of the 24 hr system checks can we do ?

A

1 re test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What’s CAO 20.7.1B ?

A

Aeroplane weight and performance limitations specially above 5700kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What’s a contaminated runway ?

A

Runway that has more than 25% of the runway surface area required covered in Water or slush more than 3mm deep. Lose snow more than 20mm deep. Or compacted snow or ice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What’s the take off distance a available?

A

The length of the takeoff run available and if Clearway is provided the length of the clearway for climb to 35ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Four declared distances for all runways ?

A

TORA, TODA, ASDA, LDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What’s ASDA ?

A

Consist of TORA plus stopway suitable for use during a rejected takeoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When would we use a STODA ?

A

To reduce the climb gradient required after takeoff. You sacrifice Takeoff distance to reduce climb gradient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

All takeoff gradients are based on obstacles within a pre defined survey area which is usually ?

A

180m wide at the end of the clearway.

15km out at an angle of 12.5% until 1800m at the end of the surveyed area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Obstacle clearance must be established for all obstacles within ?

A

The take off area. 150m at the end of the clearway. Out at 12.5% until reaching a safe altitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Limitations with published gradients ?

And what’s the solution?

A

Obstacles outside the survey area have not been considered and they may need to be. Engine failure procedures that incorporate turns to avoid climbing over big obstacles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Maximum brake release weight is defined by the most limiting requirement of ?

A 
Takeoff distance 
Takeoff run 
Accelerated stop distance 
Climb gradient OEI
obstacle clearance OEI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How’s your takeoff distance calculated ?

A

Start to 35ft @V2 greater distance of AEO +15% or OEI at V1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What’s the Takeoff run ?

A

Ground roll plus half the distance to 35ft. Greater distance of AEO +15% or OEI at V1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What’s the ASD ?

A

Start to Accelerate to V1 and then come to a complete stop. AEO or OEI action at V1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What’s your minimum V1 value based on ?

A

VMCG which is the minimum for maintaining directional control on the ground.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Climb gradient requirements 4 segments ?

A

1st segment 35ft to gear fully retracted = positive rate.
2nd : Gear fully retracted to minimum 400ft QLINK 1000ft = 2.4%
3rd: Acceleration to final takeoff climb speed= 1.2% Available.
4th : climb to 1500ft AAL in the en route configuration= 1.2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How to calculate ROC ?

A

TAS x Gradient = ROC fpm

100 x 2.4 = 240fpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Net flight path = ?

A

Gross reduced by 0.8%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Net flight path must clear obstacles within the takeoff area by how much ?

A

By 35ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the two methods to calculate takeoff performance?

A

Aero data and performance handbook charts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What does W and D stand for on the TOLD cards ?

A

Wet and Damp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

ASD increase by approximately how much when runway is wet ?

A

10-15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

CAO 20.7.1B allows what to control ASD when wet ?

A

Reduction in V1 speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

When operating on a wet runway the threshold crossing height becomes what ?

A

Reduced to 15ft for the “GO” case

As an acceptable risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Why does our takeoff performance suffer when taking off with ice protection on ?

A

Reduced thrust and performance due to the increased load put on the AC generator and ice accretion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

For takeoff in or into icing conditions what speeds must be flown ?

A

Increased reference speeds (ICE) Must be flown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How long can we be at MTOP 100% ?

A

5 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Maximum landing weight is defined by the most limiting requirement of what ?

A

Field length
Approach climb gradient and
Landing climb gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What’s the required approach climb gradient ?

A

2.1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When ice protection is on for landing VAPP equals what ?

A

Vref ICE no other additives applied.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Landing what limit guarantees what in the missed approach ?

A

2.1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Obstacle clearance giving in missed approach climb gradients ?

A

100ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How to calculate total burn ?

A

Distance / Groundspeed x fuel flow + sector factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What’s ISA altitude at zero degrees ?

A

7500ft

62
Q

What’s ISA temp at 10,000ft ?

A
  • 5 degrees
63
Q

How many children = 1 adult manual weight and B ?

A

2 children 1 child

64
Q

Standard pax weight adult child and infant ?

A

Adult 87kg child 32kg

Infant 0

65
Q

Where do we find the dry operating weight and index for aircraft if doing manual loads ?

A

Load data sheet comply 365

66
Q

Where does freight usually go ?

A

CPT 42

67
Q

Standard taxi fuel Kgs ?

A

50kg

68
Q

When must you de-ice the aircraft ?

A

If during the walk around you notice the presence of ice snow or slush on the aircraft.

69
Q

Who is responsible for determining whether you need to be de-iced ?

A

The ground de icing team leader and the captain. If either one of the parties thinks the aircraft needs de-icing then the A/C must be de- iced.

70
Q

If ground icing conditions exist can we just de-ice or do we need anti-ice also ?

A

Need anti- ice also

71
Q

Where is de-icing fluid applied to ?

A

Just the parts of the aircraft that have ice.

72
Q

Where is anti-ice applied to on the aircraft ?

A

Everywhere that ice could potentially build up.

73
Q

Engine intakes must be what before starting in icing conditions ?

A

Free from any ice or snow before initiating a start.

74
Q

How is the aircraft de iced, what configuration?

A

Engines shutdown and all doors closed its preferred that the APU is not running during de-icing. If the APU is running have the bleed air off.

75
Q

Can you start the engines or APU whilst de/anti icing ?

A

No

76
Q

What are you provided with after De-Icing ?

A

A completed De-Ice/Anti-Ice slip verification slip.

77
Q

WAT limit reduction when using ice protection?

A

-180kg

78
Q

Weight category dash 8 ?

A

Medium between 7,000kg and 136,000kg

79
Q

If we are following a super heavy how much wake turbulence separation giving ? Time ?

A

3 mins or 4 mins if intermediate departure. 150m after the leading aircraft.

80
Q

Wake turbulence separation following a heavy ?

A

2 mins and 3 mins if intermediate departure.

81
Q

Distance separation between us and a Super ?

A

7nm

82
Q

Distance separation between a Heavy and us ?

A

5nm

83
Q

How far behind an aircraft can we taxi ?

A

15 or 23 for turboprop A/C

30 and 46

84
Q

If your departing from a intermediate point can they use distance separation in lie of timed separation?

A

No

85
Q

Does ATC need to give us wake turbulence separation between us landing and an aircraft taking off ?

A

No

86
Q

What’s WED ?

A

Water equivalent depth of contaminant = Depth x specific gravity of the contaminant.

87
Q

Landing distance required on a contaminated runway ?

A

LDR = Contaminated ULD x 1.15

88
Q

3 types of runway contamination?

A

Water, slush or lose snow
Compacted snow
Wet Ice

89
Q

Maximum WED when using general chart calculations ?

A

13mm

90
Q

Maximum WED when using specific contaminated runway RTOW tables ?

A

15mm

91
Q

Maximum depth of contaminant?

A

6cm

92
Q

Maximum crosswind contaminated runway ?

A

14kts for water,slush or loose snow

20kts for compacted snow.

93
Q

Things to consider when doing a takeoff on a contaminated runway ?

A

Set power by 50kts

Use full use of anti-skid brakes during reject

94
Q

Things to consider on landing with a contaminated runway ?

A

Use the longest runway, avoid tailwinds
Firm touchdown at the aiming point
Be accurate with speed.
Avoid the use of reverse thrust on slippery runways

95
Q

Why can’t we fly above FL250 ?

A

Don’t have drop down oxygen 20.4

96
Q

Supplemental oxygen for flight crew members ?

A

Must have 30 mins of supplemental oxygen whenever the aircraft is operated above 10,000ft
Must use i whenever the cabin altitude is above 10,000ft

97
Q

Supplemental oxygen for other crew members ?

A

Be provided with supplemental oxygen at all times in which the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000ft
Must use whenever the cabin altitude exceeds 14,000ft

98
Q

Supplemental oxygen for passengers ?

A

Must be able at all points during flight descend to FL140 within 4 mins
Have supplemental oxygen for 10% of passengers for 30mins

99
Q

How many PBEs do we need ?

A

1 for each crew member 3 in the 200 and 4 in the 300

100
Q

What may be an indication of an unscheduled propeller feathering ?

A

High torque

101
Q

Max T6 degrees C 200 ?

A 
MTOP = 800 
NTOP = 770 (may be exceeded above -18 degrees. Also may be exceeded by 5 degrees for 30 seconds) 
MCP = 800
Transient = 840 (20s) 
Max reverse = 770
102
Q

Max T6 degrees C 300 ?

A 
MTOP = 800 
NTOP = 765 ( May be exceeded by 5 degrees for a maximum of 30s as per graph in FCOM) 
MCP = 800
Transient = 840 ( limited to 20s) 
Max Reverse = 765
103
Q

Oil pressure below what requires a shutdown ?

A

40PSI

104
Q

Maximum APU generator load ?

A

Not to continuously exceed 1.0 except during engine starts

105
Q

What category is the AFCS approved for ?

A

Category 1

106
Q

What’s a category 1 APP ?

A

A precision approach with a DA not below 200ft

107
Q

Can we manually overpower the AP ?

A

No

108
Q

Autopilot and flight director only Approach’s are approved fort glide slope angles of what ?

A

2.5 - 4 degrees

109
Q

Glide slope angles greater than 3 degrees are approved only for what flap setting ?

A

15

110
Q

AP must be off how high on APP ?

A

200ft AEO

1000ft OEI

111
Q

Brace order ?

A

Attention brace brace brace

112
Q

Alert order ?

A

Attention all passengers remain seated and await further instructions.

113
Q

Evacuation order ?

A

Attention Evacuate evacuate

114
Q

Ditching order ?

A

Attention this is a ditching, follow your crew members instructions.

115
Q

Alert order cancel ?

A

Ladies and gentlemen Thankyou for your co operation. Please remain seated. Cabin crew resume your normal duties.

116
Q

Can we use VAPP = VREF when the field is limiting in length ?

A

Yes

117
Q

Non Normal VAPP ?

A

VAPP = VREF unless the captain considers that the additive is necessary

118
Q

Takeoff minima Junior FO ?

A

Ceiling 300ft and 2km or as per the runway limitations whichever is higher.

119
Q

Junior FO landing minima?

A

Applicable approach MDA/DH +200 ft and visibility of greater than 4km

120
Q

Crosswind limit junior FO ?

A

15kts

121
Q

Tailwind limit T/O and landing ?

A

5kts

122
Q

Minimum runway length junior FO ?

A

1300m

123
Q

Takeoff minima 550m vis and zero feet ceiling requirements?

A

Any operation when tower is active
Day only at non-controlled locations or when tower is inactive.
Locations with light spacing not exceeding 60m with centreline markings
Secondary power for the runway lights with changeover of less than 1 second.

124
Q

What’s a precautionary disembarkation?

A

Passengers disembark the aircraft as quickly as deemed safe via the main entry door.

125
Q

Three types of evacuations ?

A

Unprepared prepared and precautionary disembarkations

126
Q

Flight crew may initiate an emergency cabin prep when ?

A

Performing an emergency landing or ditching
Landing gear cannnot be fully locked down
A know or suspected malfunction has been identified that may result in damage on landing

127
Q

If using performance handbook for takeoff data. How much do we add to V1 for ice protection on ?

A

Flap 5 = 5kts
Flap 10= 7kts
Flap 15= 10kts

128
Q

What’s the password for the spare iPad ?

A

qlink1

129
Q

What’s the door code ?

A

2467#

130
Q

Specifically, crew do not need to re-submit an ATC Note for ?

A
  1. A TAS change less than 11 KTS; and/or
  2. An EET change less than 3 minutes
131
Q

What’s ISTOP mean ?

A

Introduction
Status of crew and aircraft
Turbulence/ weather conditions
Operational considerations
Password
Threats

132
Q

6.4.3.3 Dash 8 Overwing Refuelling (all ports) what do you need to do as flight crew ?

A

When refuelling is completed, the Flight Crew must ensure that the wing fuel cap is secure.

133
Q

Where to find how to fill out a QL3 form ?

A

FDEM page 170

134
Q

When ice, frost or snow has formed on the aircraft surfaces, necessitating the use of de-icing procedures, the event must be documented as follows ?

A

Following the de-icing procedure, ground personnel will provide a completed De-Ice/ Anti-Ice Verification Slip. “DE-ICED”, “ANTI-ICED” or both must be circled, as appropriate. An example is shown below.

  1. The Captain must inspect the aircraft surfaces to ensure that all ice, frost, snow or other frozen contamination has been removed.
  2. The Captain must pass the De-Ice/Anti-Ice Verification Slip to the ground agent, who will forward it to Airworthiness in Sydney.
    The aircraft must not depart unless all surfaces are free of ice, frost, snow or frozen contaminants.
135
Q

What’s the section in the FDEM about how to fill out Documents?

A

Section 7
CAMO documentation and procedures

136
Q

When can we replace a light bulb if they are of dual illumination?

A

Only when both bulbs have gone out

137
Q

Can we replace light bulbs with the aircraft powered?

A

Maintenance of the system is limited to bulb replacement only and should be carried out in most cases with the power OFF, eliminating any possible damage to the system being worked on.

138
Q

Where do we find the information to report for a wildlife strike?

A

OM 13.11.8 Special reporting procedures.

139
Q

What to do during a laser strike?

A

Where possible, an individual who is illuminated should look away immediately from the beam and report the illumination to ATS OM1 3.11.13

140
Q

If any electric shock is felt or suspected on the aircraft or external power source the following precautions should be applied without delay ?

A

Isolate the External Power from mains power source by switching off mains power. For diesel powered GPUs shutdown the GPU at the emergency stop button.
Arrange medical assistance as required for any affected Depower the aircraft and disembark. Do not re-touch the aircraft or GPU to confirm if electric charge is still present.
Contact the ROC and discuss the event with ROC and
Maintenance Watch.

141
Q

When will you get a GPS INTEG?

A

HPL >HAL Horizontal protection level ›Horizontal Alert limit.

142
Q

When will you get a Position uncertain?

A

ANP>RNP

143
Q

Can you do revalidation courses before flying ?

A

Revalidation courses should only be on the assigned duty day for such courses or after flying duties. OM4.7.1

144
Q

Junior First Officer
Take off
Minimum ?

A

Ceiling 300 feet and
Visibility 2 km or
As per airport/runway limitations
Whichever is higher

145
Q

Take off minimum for FO ?

A

As per airport / runway limitations

146
Q

Junior FO landing minima?

A

Applicable approach
MDA/DH+200ft and
Visibility greater than
4000m

147
Q

Crosswind
Limitations
(T/O and
LDG) ? Junior and Fo ?

A

Junior = 15kts including gusts
FO= 30kts including gusts

148
Q

Max tailwind for any FO ?

A

5kts

149
Q

Minimum runway length junior FO ?

A

130m on 2/300
1400m on 400

150
Q

Note: If weather conditions are forecast to exceed the First Officer’s limit, the transfer of control should be conducted ?

A

at an appropriate time prior to top of descent.

151
Q

When can we use the take off minima of 550m and zero feet cloud base ?

A
  1. Any operation when Tower active
    feet
  2. Day only operations at non-controlled locations (or when location Tower inactive), and/or
  3. Locations with light spacing not exceeding 60m and with centreline lighting or centreline marking.
  4. As prescribed in Part 139 MoS - Airports;
    the airport has secondary power supply for runway lighting with a switchover capability of one second or less for runway centreline lights or runway edge lights where centreline lighting is not provided.
152
Q

Runway edge light spacing for all company runways is annotated in ?

A

port information pages in the RM.

Dash 8 Q300/200 (74 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions