MET ATPL Flashcards

1
Q

The troposphere ?

A

Contains most of the water vapour of the at atmosphere and and the Temperature usually decreases with height

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2
Q

With increasing Altitude in the stratosphere temperature usually ?

A

Increases

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3
Q

The tropopause is ?

A

A region 8km to 18km above the earths surface at which a marked change in temperature lapse is apparent.

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4
Q

ISA decreases from sea level to the tropopause at what rate ?

A

2 degrees/1000ft

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5
Q

In ISA the tropopause is found at ?

A

A height of 36090 ft

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6
Q

One major difference between the troposphere and the stratosphere is ?

A

The stratosphere has almost no clouds.

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7
Q

From the earths surface, the vertical structure of the atmosphere is ?

A

Troposphere, tropopause, stratosphere

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8
Q

The lapse rate in the stratosphere is due to ?

A

The presence of the heat absorbing ozone.

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9
Q

Section of the atmosphere in which most roc the weather occurs ?

A

Troposphere

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10
Q

The temp at the base of the stratosphere is lowest over ?

A

The equator

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11
Q

The temp in the ISA tropopause is ?

A

-56 degrees C

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12
Q

Normally the diurnal variation of temp is greatest at ?

A

An inland location

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13
Q

The diurnal variation of temperature is?

A

The temperature Pattern over a 24 hour period.

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14
Q

Solar radiation passing through the atmosphere is?

A

Absorbed scattered and reflected.

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15
Q

On and ISA day you would expect the temperature at an elevation of 4000 feet above MSL to be?

A

+7 C

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16
Q

The sea level temperature in the standard atmosphere is?

A

+15°C

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17
Q

The change of temperature for an increase in altitude known as?

A

The lapse rate

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18
Q

The primary cause of weather is?

A

Temperature differential.

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19
Q

A line on the weather chart joining places having the same temperature is called ? 

A

Isotherm

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20
Q

Radiant energy arriving from the sun is termed?

A

Insolation

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21
Q

Our weather is due to the atmosphere been heated mainly by?

A

Radiation from the earth.

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22
Q

In the standard atmosphere at mean sealevel, temperature, pressure and lapse rate equal respectively?

A

+15°C/1013HPA/2°C/1000 feet

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23
Q

A line on a weather chart joining places of equal pressure is called?

A

And isobar

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24
Q

Atmospheric pressure is reported and recorded on weather charts in terms of?

A

Millibars or hectopascals

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25
Q

The pressure gradient is the ?

A

Change of pressure with distance, measured horizontally at right angles to the isobars.

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26
Q

The diurnal variation of pressure is?

A

The daily variation of pressure independent of that due to the movement and development of pressure systems.

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27
Q

Below 5000 feet pressure drops by 1 HPA with an ascent of approximately?

A

30 feet

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28
Q

Pressure may be defined as?

A

Force per unit area.

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29
Q

The density of air?

A

Is directly proportional to pressure and inversely proportional to temperature.

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30
Q

The sea level pressure in the standard atmosphere is defined in Australia as?

A

1013.2 HPA

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31
Q

The rate at which atmospheric pressure decreases with altitude in a column of air?

A

Decreases and is dependent on the main temperature of the column.

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32
Q

Before take off for a cross country flight planned to cruise at flight level 110, the altimeter subscale should be set to?

A

Local QNH if known or aerodrome elevation

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33
Q

What affect does density have on aircraft performance?

A

Good performance occurs when density is high.

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34
Q

If the Altimeter subscale setting is 1013HPA the Altimeter will read?

A

Pressure height

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35
Q

While and level flight with the area QNH correctly set, the altimeter indicates the aircraft?

A

Approximate height above mean sea level.

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36
Q

Aerodrome level pressure is known as?

A

QFE

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37
Q

While cruising at or below A100, the altimeter sub scale setting to be used is ?

A

Local QNH of a point within 100nm of the aircraft or area QNH

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38
Q

The accepted relationship between pressure in hectopascals and height in the lower layers of the atmosphere is?

A

1 HPA/ 30ft

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39
Q

What is the relationship between pressure and altitude ?

A

Increase in Altitude result in a decrease in pressure.

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40
Q

The QNH Altimeter setting is the ?

A

Sub scale setting at which the altimeter indicates airfield elevation on landing.

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41
Q

When flying from an area of high pressure into an area of low pressure the altimeter will ?

A

Over- read

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42
Q

The correction applied to station level pressure to obtain the QNH assumes?

A

The density of a column of air extending down to mean sealevel is independent of temperature at station.

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43
Q

The correction applied to station level pressure to obtain meteorological MSL pressure known as QFF assumes the density of a column of air extending from the station to MSL?

A

Increase with a decrease in height and depends on the outside air temperature at the station.

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44
Q

When a parcel of air becomes saturated and condensation occurs?

A

Latent heat is released.

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45
Q

Relative humidity is?

A

The percentage degree of saturation

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46
Q

The dew point is the temperature?

A

To which a Sample of moist air must be cooled at constant pressure for it to become saturated.

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47
Q

When water droplets in the liquid state freeze?

A

Latent heat is released.

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48
Q

Relative humidity is measured using a?

A

Psychrometer

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49
Q

A parcel of air has a temperature of 15°C and a relative humidity of 80%. A temperature rise of 10°C will cause?

A

The relative humidity to decrease.

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50
Q

The water vapour held in saturated air is?

A

Invisible always

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51
Q

When the temperature and Dewpoint are the same?

A

Relative humidity is 100%

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52
Q

The reading of wet and dry bulb thermometers at meteorological stations serves to calculate?

A

Humidity

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53
Q

Relative humidity is the ?

A

Ratio of the amount of water vapour present to the amount that could be held in a sample of air.

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54
Q

When the air temperature at a particular level is higher than that existing at a lower level?

A

And inversion exists

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55
Q

Warm air is rising adiabatically above a ploughed field, surface temperature 21°C. The dew point at the cloudbase is 3°C the cloudbase and freezing level respectively are approximately?

A

6000 feet and 8000 feet

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56
Q

If the ELR is between 1.5 degrees C and 3 degrees C the air is ?

A

Stable for dry air and unstable for saturated air.

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57
Q

Above the condensation level the lapse rate of rising air will ?

A

Reduce from the dry adiabatic lapse rate to the smaller saturated adiabatic lapse rate.

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58
Q

An inversion results in ?

A

Extremely stable conditions above.

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59
Q

No

A

Hb

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60
Q

Warmer temperatures above a colder layer of air indicates ?

A

An inversion

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61
Q

When the ELR is greater than the DALR, dry air is ?

A

Unstable

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62
Q

The dry adiabatic lapse rate is ?

A

3 degrees C/1000ft

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63
Q

When SALR is greater than the ELR, saturated air is ?

A

Stable

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64
Q

The actual change in temperature for an increase in altitude is known as ?

A

The environmental lapse rate

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65
Q

Warm air is rising adiabatically above a ploughed field, surface temperature +21 degrees C. The surface dew point is +3 degrees C. Allowing for the dew point lapse rate, the cloud base and freezing level respectively are approximately?

A

7500ft and 7000ft

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66
Q

The average rate of decrease in temperature per 1000ft of height is approximately?

A

2 degrees C

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67
Q

An adiabatic process is one ?

A

In which no heat is transferred into or out of the system.

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68
Q

A met station on the diagram, is located on the leeward side of a coastal range. From the data given, the MSL temperature on the windward side of the range using DALR and SALR is ?

A

20 degrees

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69
Q

A katabatic wind is ?

A

Is a downslope flow of cold air.

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70
Q

The surface wind around an area of low pressure in the Southern Hemisphere blows ?

A

Clockwise and inwards

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71
Q

If the wind direction changes in a clockwise direction it’s said to ?

A

Veer

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72
Q

The Coriolis force in the Southern Hemisphere acts ?

A

At right angles to the wind, causing a deflection to the left.

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73
Q

A land breeze is a wind that blows from the ?

A

Land to the sea during the night

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74
Q

Close isobars mean ?

A

Strong winds

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75
Q

A wind caused by uneven heating in coastal regions flows?

A

From the sea by day and from the land by night.

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76
Q

Is the forecast wind is 030/20 kn, it will blow?

A

From 030 T

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77
Q

When flying towards a low in the southern hemisphere an aircraft will experience?

A

Left drift.

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78
Q

Within the friction layer, with increasing height, the wind?

A

Backs

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79
Q

If you stand with your back to the wind in the southern hemisphere, the region of low pressure will be?

A

On your right.

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80
Q

The friction layer extends up to about?

A

3000 feet

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81
Q

What’s the passage of a cold front in the southern hemisphere?

A

The wind Backs, the temperature falls and the pressure rises.

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82
Q

Warm Fronts always lie along ridges and cold fronts always lie along troughs?

A

False

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83
Q

A cold front usually lies along a?

A

Trough of low pressure.

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84
Q

A cold Air mass is characterised by?

A

Unstable conditions, Cumuloform clouds.

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85
Q

A defined Boundry between two Air masses is called a?

A

Front.

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86
Q

Warm air masses are characterised by?

A

Stable with hazy conditions.

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87
Q

A cold front is a zone where?

A

Cold air is displacing warm air at the surface.

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88
Q

A warm front is a zone where?

A

Warm air slides over cold air at the surface.

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89
Q

What’s the passage of a warm front in the southern hemisphere?

A

The wind Backs, the temperature rises and the pressure fall decreases.

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90
Q

Following the passage of a warm front, the most likely weather scenario would be?

A

Nil significant weather.

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91
Q

The approach of a warm Front will Be indicated by?

A

High-level cloud, followed by mid-level cloud and eventually extensive Nimbostratus.

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92
Q

Frontal thunderstorms would be triggered?

A

By the passage of a cold front.

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93
Q

The north west monsoon?

A

Brings unstable moist air to Darwin.

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94
Q

The inter Tropic convergent zone is a Boundry between?

A

Airstreams originating in the northern and southern hemisphere.

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95
Q

The inter Tropic convergent zone is found near?

A

The equator.

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96
Q

The major hazard of a tropical cyclone to an aircraft in flight is?

A

Severe turbulence.

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97
Q

A strong wind across a mountain range will produce?

A

Strong down currents on the lee side.

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98
Q

Cyclone season in Australia is from?

A

November to April

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99
Q

You would expect to encounter the most severe turbulence when flying at a height of 3000 feet above the ground at a?

A

Rapidly moving cold front with unstable air.

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100
Q

The approach of a tropical revolving storm is Heralded bye?

A

Falling pressure with increasing wind speed.

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101
Q

The most pronounced thermal turbulence is found?

A

In the afternoon Overland.

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102
Q

If the air is unstable in the lower layers only, the following conditions could be expected ?

A

Bumpy with cumulus clouds.

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103
Q

The characteristics of warm in masses are?

A

Stable laps rate and strata form clouds.

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104
Q

Cold streams passing over south eastern Australia are usually unstable because?

A

The surface over which they pass is warmer than the air.

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105
Q

Hazard at all levels in a CB is?

A

Turbulence.

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106
Q

The main hazard pose to an aircraft by air frame icing is?

A

Reduced aerodynamic efficiency

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107
Q

The type of icing likely to be encounted above the freezing level in strata form cloud is?

A

Rime ice

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108
Q

Type of icing likely to be experienced just above the freezing level in cumuliform type cloud is?

A

Clear ice.

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109
Q

The formation of Clear ice requires?

A

Large droplets and an outside air temperature between 0° and -15°C

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110
Q

The most Severe airframe Icing is found?

A

Between 0° and -15°C

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111
Q

To hazards posed to an aircraft around a thunderstorm could be?

A

Turbulence and hail.

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112
Q

The minimum outside air temperature at which clear Airframe icing would be unlikely is?

A

+ 5°C

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113
Q

When a thunderstorm is in the vicinity of an airport, one hazard preventing aircraft landing and taking off is?

A

Wind shear

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114
Q

Airframe icing is most likely?

A

With visible moisture at temperature below freezing

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115
Q

The type of icing likely to be encounted in an orographic cloud when the outside air temperature is -10°C would be?

A

Clear ice 

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116
Q

The icing experience went flying through rain at temperatures below freezing would be?

A

Heavy clear

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117
Q

When avoiding thunderstorm, horizontal separation should be at least?

A

20 nautical miles

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118
Q

While on approach to land, an aircraft encounters abrupt decrease in the headwind component. The initial affect will be?

A

A decrease in airspeed and an undershoot tendency

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119
Q

The most hazardous form of airframe ice is?

A

Clear ice

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120
Q

Clear icing in Australia is normally associated with the following clouds?

A

Large cumulus, Cumulonimbus, Nimbostratus.

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121
Q

Before flight, the pilot noticed a thin white Crystaline deposit over the wings?

A

Should be remove before attempting to take off.

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122
Q

Dangerous icing is frequently found in?

A

NS cloud.

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123
Q

It is safe to avoid a thunderstorm by flying under it?

A

False

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124
Q

The white crystalline deposit of ice that forms on all exterior surfaces of an aeroplane when water vapour turns directly into ice is called?

A

Hoar frost

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125
Q

The pressure gradient force acts?

A

At right angles to isobars, towards the low-pressure

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126
Q

The strength of the pressure gradient force depends most on?

A

The spacing of the isobars.

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127
Q

Coriolis force explains the tendency of wind to?

A

Turn left in the southern hemisphere.

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128
Q

Surface wind, when compared to the gradient wind flow, is found to be?

A

Veered to the right and slower

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129
Q

Compared to the gradient wind flow, the surface wind Overland will have?

A

Veered by 30° and slowed by 2/3

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130
Q

The term Geostrophic wind refers to the steady flow of wind?

A

Along straight isobars

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131
Q

Anticyclonic flow occurs?

A

About a high in the southern hemisphere.

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132
Q

Cyclonic flow occurs?

A

About a low in the southern hemisphere.

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133
Q

A katabatic wind will tend to reinforce?

A

A land breeze

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134
Q

The variations in wind and temperature in which normally occur with the passage of a cold front are?

A

The wind backs and temperature falls

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135
Q

A Fohn wind is likely to result in?

A

A lower humidity in the lee of the mountain at low level.

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136
Q

Best describes a squall line?

A

A low cloud moving rapidly in the warm air ahead of a cold front.

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137
Q

Which latitude would There be the greatest difference between the actual wind and gradient wind at 5000 feet AGL?

A

5° south

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138
Q

A statement which best describes a backing wind is?

A

It is changing direction anticlockwise.

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139
Q

For a katabatic wind to form, there must be?

A

A surface inversion .

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140
Q

Squall lines are most often associated with?

A

Thunderstorms.

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141
Q

Surface friction causes?

A

A decrease in Coriolis affect.

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142
Q

An aircraft heading directly from a high-pressure system to a low-pressure system will?

A

Drift towards the left.

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143
Q

Conditionally stable is said to exist when ?

A

Saturated air is unstable but dry air is stable.

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144
Q

Which conditions are most likely to produce radiation fog ?

A

No clouds and light winds

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145
Q

During what stage of a thunderstorm would lightning be most frequent?

A

At the mature stage.

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146
Q

Where is hail most likely to be encountered inside a thunderstorm?

A

Between 10,000 feet and 30,000 feet.

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147
Q

In which conditions are thunderstorms most likely?

A

Latitudinal heating of fast moving cold moist air stream

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148
Q

Which of the following cloud types is most likely to produce Virga ?

A

Thin altostratus.

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149
Q

Which is most likely to be encounted in Nimbostratus cloud?

A

Heavy continuous rain

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150
Q

The lifting of fog may be caused by?

A

An increase in wind strength.

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151
Q

The most common way for cumulus clouds to form is?

A

Rising air being cooled by expansion

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152
Q

Which phenomena in thunderstorm causes low level wind shear at some distance away from the cell.

A

Down draft

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153
Q

Where are tornadoes most likely to be encounted?

A

With widespread, severe thunderstorms

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154
Q

Latitudinal heating of cold air stream produces?

A

Instability, possibly thunderstorms.

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155
Q

Thunderstorm can occur well after a cold front has passed because?

A

The surface over which the cold air is passing is warmer than the cold air mass

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156
Q

Advection fog forms when?

A

Warm air passes over a cold surface

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157
Q

Thunderstorms are most likely to form when atmospheric conditions are?

A

Humid and unstable

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158
Q

A wind blowing up sloping terrain during the day could be?

A

Anabatic

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159
Q

The area in which a tropical cyclone is most likely to form is?

A

Over the Pacific ocean near 15° south

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160
Q

During the mature stage of a tropical cyclone the central surface pressure?

A

Remains constant.

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161
Q

The temperature at the base of a Strato cumulus cloud is -1°C. The cloud is 2500 feet thick, and the temperature at the Cloud tops is -5°C. Flight within the cloud is likely to encounter?

A

Rime ice

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162
Q

And which cloud type is clear ice most likely in flight above the freezing level?

A

Nimbostratus

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163
Q

In the vicinity of mountain waves, the rotor zone might be located?

A

Under lenticular clouds

164
Q

Slant visibility in fog causes?

A

The runway to be visible from over the top, but not in the circuit area or final.

165
Q

The situation in which Clear icing is most likely is?

A

Above freezing level on climb and in large cumuliform cloud.

166
Q

The process involved in the formation of hoarfrost is?

A

Disposition of ice directly from water vapour mixed with the air.

167
Q

The Set of conditions most likely to produce mountain wave activity are?

A

A stable layer of air near the top of the ridge.

168
Q

The temperature range most likely to produce rime ice is?

A

-10°C to -20°C

169
Q

Clear ice is most likely to form on an aircraft flying in?

A

Thick altostratus cloud

170
Q

The cloud type often associated with mountain wave activities is?

A

Lenticular r and Rotor clouds.

171
Q

The most likely cause of turbulence Overland on a hot day is?

A

Thermal activities

172
Q

The most dangerous hazard of a mature thunderstorm is?

A

Turbulence

173
Q

Strong horizontal windshear can be encounted?

A

Above a strong surface inversion

174
Q

The onset of light wind beneath the radiation inversion will cause the inversion to become?

A

Weeker but deeper.

175
Q

Comparing visibility and turbulence above and below subsidence inversion, it is found that?

A

Visibility is greater and turbulence is less above the inversion

176
Q

There is Little vertical development in cloud within the south-east trades Because of?

A

The pressure of the tradewind inversion

177
Q

The pressure system which gives rise to subsidence inversion is?

A

Anticyclone.

178
Q

Meteological visibility refers to?

A

The greatest visibility prevailing over half or more of the horizon.

179
Q

The Equatorial trough move further north than it does south because?

A

The average surface temperature is higher because of the larger land masses in the northern hemisphere.

180
Q

Low-level jet streams can be hazardous because they produce?

A

Strong horizontal wind shear near the surface.

181
Q

Showers are associated with?

A

Altocumulus.

182
Q

A cloud which forms on the Windward slope of a mountain is?

A

An orographic cloud

183
Q

The following are classified as middle level clouds?

A

Altostratus, altocumulus, altocumulus lenticularis

184
Q

The process by which air is cooled to form a cloud in a low-pressure system is?

A

Convergence

185
Q

Heavy continuous rain would most likely be falling from?

A

Nimbostratus.

186
Q

The following are classified as low clouds?

A

Cumulus, stratus, Nimbostratus

187
Q

Clouds are classified as high-level clouds are?

A

Cirrus, Cirrocumulus, cirroStratis

188
Q

Cloud may form when?

A

Air reaches its dew point temperature

189
Q

Frontal cloud forms because of?

A

Up sliding and uplifting affects

190
Q

If the air is unstable, the following conditions could be expected?

A

Bumpy with cumulus clouds.

191
Q

Thermal convection currents forming cumulus clouds are caused by?

A

The heating of surface air on a sunny day

192
Q

Drizzle would most likely be falling from?

A

Stratus

193
Q

Cloud heights in ARFORS are given as ?

A

Height above mean sea level

194
Q

Compared to daytime conditions, night time meteorological visibility is?

A

The same

195
Q

Meteorological visibility is reported as the greatest distance an object can be seen?

A

Over half or more of the horizon expressed in metres.

196
Q

Poor visibility due to smoke haze may occur near industrial areas with?

A

Anticyclonic weather, light winds and surface inversion.

197
Q

Radiation fog is normally thickest just after?

A

Sunrise.

198
Q

The lifting of fog may be caused by?

A

An increase in wind strength.

199
Q

Radiation fog occurs mostly with ?

A

Light winds and clear skies at night.

200
Q

The term auto means?

A

The details were recorded by an automatic weather station

201
Q

Reduced visibility due to dust maybe produced by?

A

Strong surface wins and unstable conditions

202
Q

From the list of weather situations given below select the one which would be favourable for formation of fog?

A

Movement of warm moist air over a cool surface

203
Q

If the air is unstable, you can expect?

A

Bumpy flying conditions and unlimited visibility.

204
Q

A SPECI is?

A

A report that special conditions exist at the time of a routine report or that specified changes in the meteorological conditions have taken place.

205
Q

How many OKTAS is broken cloud?

A

5 to 7 OCKTAS

206
Q

A report of significant change in the conditions at an aerdrome is called?

A

A SPECI

207
Q

A TTF validity is ?

A

Three hours

208
Q

The term CAVOK indicates ?

A

No cloud below 5000 feet AGL, visibility being 10 km or more

209
Q

The term NOSIG means ?

A

No significant change is expected from the conditions reported in the METAR or SPECI

210
Q

A pilot encountering in-flight weather conditions that significantly differ from those forecasted should broadcast a?

A

SHORT AIREP

211
Q

In a TAF Cloud base is given as height above?

A

The aerodrome

212
Q

A SIGMET is ?

A

Information relating to the occurrence of hazardous phenomena at subsonic cruising levels.

213
Q

A METAR is ?

A

An aerodrome meteorological report

214
Q

The vertical visibility may be reported?

A

When the sky is obscured by phenomena like smoke, fog, dust or sandstorms.

215
Q

Hey trend type forecast (TTF) is valid for a period of?

A

Three hours

216
Q

A warning issued of winds over 40 kn within 2000 feet of ground level is called a?

A

AIRMET

217
Q

The extent of coverage of a domestic TAF is ?

A

It is valid for an area of five nautical miles from the centre of the airfield.

218
Q

The information contained in a TTF?

A

Reports current weather conditions at the aerodrome of origin and appends a statement of the trend expected in the next three hours

219
Q

Regarding the use of the term CAVOK ? 

A

Visibility is 10 km or more, with no shallow fog.

220
Q

The statement which correctly describes the presentation of information in a METAR is?

A

Height of cloud base is expressed as a three figure group

221
Q

The tropopause is a significant Boundry in the atmosphere. The tropopause is defined as?

A

It is the division between an atmospheric layer in which temperature generally decreases steadily with increasing altitude, and a layer in which temperature generally remains constant or increases with increasing altitude

222
Q

Clear air turbulence can occur in widely different circumstances, but there are some features which generally hold true. It is generally true of jet stream clear turbulence that?

A

If Clear air Turbalance is encountered in association with a jet stream, a 4000 ft altitude change is likely to be sufficient to leave the area of clear air turbulence

223
Q

Most jet streams are aligned roughly east to west. If Clear air turbulence is encountered in association with such a jet stream, the area of maximum turbulence likely to be found in relation to the jetstream core is?

A

Below it and on the polar side.

224
Q

Thunderstorms occur in two fundamental types frontal, and Air mass. The differences between frontal and Air mass thunderstorms are?

A

Strong downdraughts close to the ground a more likely beneath frontal storms.

225
Q

The condition which presents the greatest threat of clear airframe ice forming rapidly is?

A

Cruise penetration of cumulonimbus with an air temperature of -5°C

226
Q

The term which most correctly describes an accumulation air frame icing on an aircraft sufficient to make a change in altitude desirable is?

A

Moderate icing.

227
Q

The statement which best describes conditions on board and airline transport passenger aircraft encountering moderate turbulence is?

A

The aircraft rolls and pitches but remains under control and loose objects move about, the attendants have difficulty walking.

228
Q

The visibility at an aerodrome is reported as 900 RVR. As WE passed vertically above the airfield at 3000 feet you can clearly see the runway below. You make an ILS approach using standard 3° slope. The distance from the threshold you expect to 1st glimpse the runway is?

A

Half nautical mile about 180 feet on final

229
Q

The set of conditions which would most favourable for the formation of thick radiation fog overnight is?

A

Clear sky, high relative humidity, light wind

230
Q

The conditions most favourable for formation of Sea fog are?

A

Airflow from an area of warm water to an area of cold water.

231
Q

The conditions which would be most favourable for the formation of the low-level jet across southern Queensland are?

A

Early morning, clear sky, a high centered to the west of the great dividing range.

232
Q

The statement which gives the best set of atmospheric conditions required for the formation of thunderstorms is?

A

Unstable atmosphere through to high levels, some form of lifting mechanism and abundant moisture in the lower layers of the atmosphere.

233
Q

You depart an aerodrome with your aircraft altimeter accurately set up to the correct QNH. You observe that the aircraft is experiencing left drift. The effect on the altimeter reading, assuming that the QNH setting is not changed is?

A

Aircraft is flying towards an area of low pressure and the altimeter will Over read

234
Q

During a stable approach to land, you encounter sudden difficulty maintaining the desired glide slope and you need to use unusually large variations of power to hold the speed within acceptable limits the type of windshear encounter would be described as?

A

Strong

235
Q

A pilot who encounters certain intensities of windshear at an uncontrolled aerodrome is of Obligued to broadcast details of the encounter to all aircraft. The details which should be included are?

A

Aerorome, type and degree of shear, and altitude of greatest adverse effect.

236
Q

The datums used in aerorome forecasts are?

A

Cloudbase is height above the aerodrome, wind direction is based on true north.

237
Q

The meaning of the term dry adiabatic laps rate is?

A

The rate at which temperature of unsaturated air changes as a parcel of air ascends or decends through the atmosphere approximately 3° Celsius per 1000 feet

238
Q

A situation in the atmosphere where the environment temperature increases with height is said to be?

A

Stable

239
Q

A strong convergent zone within the Equatorial trough would probably lead to?

A

Both frequent thunderstorms and steady rain.

240
Q

Runway visual range is observed for the takeoff and landing direction and use. The point from which this observation would normally be made is?

A

The touchdown point for the particular runway.

241
Q

During a stable approach to land, you encounter sudden hazardous effects on aircraft controlability, and you need to use very large variations of power to hold the speed with an acceptable limits. This type of windshear encountered would be reported as?

A

Severe

242
Q

The datum’s used in METARS. Are ?

A

Cloudbase is height above the aerodrome, wind direction is based on true north.

243
Q

A TTF is an aerodrome weather report ?

A

To which a trend is attended and is valid for three hours from the time of the issue.

244
Q

Tropical thunderstorms occurring in the hours just before dawn are most likely to form?

A

Over the sea

245
Q

The type of thunderstorm generally regarded as having the most severe turbulence is?

A

Shear

246
Q

A strong pressure gradient is normally associated with?

A

An area of strong winds

247
Q

During approach you find difficulty in keeping the aircraft to the desired flight path and speed. You observe that there are cumulus clouds in the vicinity and there is Virga associated with the clouds the cause of the difficulties during approach is most likely a?

A

Micra burst and you would report you are experiencing strong wind shear

248
Q

A moist air flow over a mountain range in Stable atmospheric conditions is likely to result in?

A

A lower cloud base on the Windward slope.

249
Q

The most favourable condition for the formation of dust storms near Adelaide are?

A

An approaching cold front with a high-pressure area to the east.

250
Q

You are approaching an airfield near the east coast at 1800 UTC there is no cloud. The wind at 3000 feet is 260° at 30 kn. The ATIS reports the wind is 290° at 12 knots and the QNH is 1004HPA. The most likely explanation for the change of wind velocity below 3000 feet is?

A

Fictional effects are confined to below a surface inversion and the wind at 3000 feet is unaffected by surface friction.

251
Q

Visibility, as reported in a METAR in the Australian region, refers to?

A

The minimum visibility over half or more of the horizon.

252
Q

An approaching idealised fast moving cold front may generally be recognised by the accompanying?

A

Broken Cumuliform cloud and rain showers.

253
Q

The area of maximum horizontal windshear associated with a jetstream would normally be found?

A

To the side of the jet core nearest to the pole

254
Q

The following phenomena least likely to be associated with a microburst is?

A

Virga

255
Q

The conditions which are pre-requisites for the formation of dust storms are?

A

Land surface dry and dusty, wind speed atleast moderate and unstable atmosphere.

256
Q

Lenticircular clouds are likely to indicate the presence of?

A

Mountain waves

257
Q

The atmospheric condition were DALR is greater than ELR but the SALR is less than the ELR is known as ?

A

Conditionally instability or conditionally stability

258
Q

In January the subtropical jetstream likely to be located where?

A

Near latitude 30° south

259
Q

Concerning forecast in which Cumulonimbus cloud is forecast, the term’FREQ’ Means ?

A

Many, with little to no separation

260
Q

Where do tropical cyclones mainly form ?

A

Over warms seas beyond 5° of the equator

261
Q

A mature cyclone is moving due south in the southern hemisphere. The area of worst weather is likely to be located where?

A

In the south eastern quadrant

262
Q

The probability of encountering Clear air turbulence is greatest?

A

If the jet is curved

263
Q

You are approaching a westerly jetstream when flying south across Australia at FL390. The temperature at FL390 is steadily decreasing you would expect to pass the Jet core where ?

A

Below the Jet core

264
Q

Most common temperature range for RIME ice ?

A

-10° and -20°C

265
Q

Cloud type generally associated with rhyme ice?

A

Stratiform

266
Q

Most common temperature range for the formation of clear ice ? 

A

0°C to -15°C

267
Q

What’s the most dangerous form of icing ?

A

Clear ice.

268
Q

Which clouds are the most likely to form clear ice?

A

Cumuliform clouds above the freezing level cumulonimbus clouds thick altostratus and nimbostratus clouds and also orographic cloud.

269
Q

Is Clear ice a possibility in thick altostratus cloud?

A

Yes

270
Q

Difference between isolated occasional and frequent CBs ?

A

Isolated means individual CB, occasional means well separated CBs frequent means little to no separation.

271
Q

BC ?

A

Patches

272
Q

BL ?

A

Blowing

273
Q

DR ?

A

Drifting

274
Q

MI ?

A

Shallow

275
Q

PR ?

A

Partially covered by fog

276
Q

BR ?

A

Mist

277
Q

DU ?

A

Dust

278
Q

DS ?

A

Dust storm

279
Q

DZ ?

A

Drizzle

280
Q

FC ?

A

Funnel clouds

281
Q

IC ?

A

Ice crystals

282
Q

FU ?

A

Smoke

283
Q

GR ?

A

Hail

284
Q

GS ?

A

Small hail

285
Q

PL ?

A

Ice pellets

286
Q

PO ?

A

Dust devils

287
Q

SA ?

A

Sand

288
Q

SG ?

A

Snow grains

289
Q

SQ ?

A

Squalls

290
Q

SS ?

A

Sand storms

291
Q

UP ?

A

Unknown precipitation

292
Q

VA ?

A

Volcanic ash

293
Q

DTRT ?

A

Deteriorate

294
Q

MAR/ COT ?

A

At sea, at the coast

295
Q

ADJ MON ?

A

Adjacent mountains

296
Q

INC ?

A

Ice in cloud

297
Q

LAN ?

A

Inland

298
Q

METARS and SPECI weather in vicinity of aerodrome?

A

Within 8 and 16 km of the aerodrome reference point

299
Q

Is a SIGMET a forecast ?

A

No

300
Q

A column of air that is colder than ISA will have a lower or higher pressure at 10,000ft ?

A

Lower

301
Q

If conditions are colder than ISA what will the altimeter read ?

A

Over read, due to it sensing lower pressure

302
Q

Estimated rule of thumb when calculating Altimeter error ?

A

4% of the indicated height per 10° of variation from ISA

303
Q

Where are jetstreams usually found ?

A

At the break in the Tropopause

304
Q

Usually width and depth of Jetstreams ?

A

Upto 100nm wide and only several 1000 fr deep

305
Q

Minimum wind speed of Jetstream ?

A

60kts

306
Q

CAT more severe in which season ?

A

Winter

307
Q

Is the CAT more sever when its over water or land ?

A

Land

308
Q

Whixh direction does the Thermal wind usually fliw in each hemisphere?

A

South in the southern and north in the northern

309
Q

Whats an ISOTACHS ?

A

Line joining areas of equal wind speed

310
Q

Wheres the sub tropical jet ?

A

Altitude of 200HPA FL385 at 30 degrees

311
Q

Which jetstream is generally the stronger ?

A

STJ

312
Q

If your flying south in the Southern Hemisphere and temperatures remain constant, whats the risk ?

A

Flying through the jet core

313
Q

In the Southern Hemisphere your flying south and temperatures are rising are you above or below the Jet Core ?

A

Above because your above the tropopause

314
Q

Whats RSWT ?

A

Route Sector winds and temperatures

315
Q

Whats GPWT ?

A

Grid point winds and temperatures

316
Q

Validity period for GPWT forecasts ?

A

Three hours either side of the stated validity time

317
Q

SIGWX PROG altitudes ?

A

Significant weather between FL185 to FL445

318
Q

During a stable approach, you encounter sudden difficulty in maintaining the desired slope and you need to use unusually large variations of power to hold airspeed with an acceptable limits. The type of windshear encountered would be described as?

A

Strong

319
Q

Tropical thunderstorms occurring in the hours just before dawn are most likely to form?

A

Over the sea

320
Q

RSWT and GPWT forecast altitudes ?

A
FL445
FL385
FL340
FL300
FL235
FL185
321
Q

Is there a high possibility of a microburst from heavy continuous rain from overcast NS ?

A

No

322
Q

Strong horizontal windshear would most likely be encounted ?

A

At a strong surface inversion boundary

323
Q

Most likely cause of turbulence on a hot day is ?

A

Thermal convection

324
Q

Concerning tropical cyclones they tend to form where ?

A

Tend to form over warm seas beyond 5 degrees of the equator

325
Q

Cloud type commonly associated with a slow moving warm front is ?

A

Nimbo stratus

326
Q

Tropical cyclones usually form were ?

A

Between 5 and 15 degrees north or south of the equator

327
Q

In the Southern Hemisphere where is the most destructive area of the cyclone ?

A

Front left Quadrant

328
Q

Micro bursts are primarily associated with what type of clouds?

A

Convective of cloud types.

329
Q

If a mature cyclone is moving towards the east in the southern hemisphere the most destructive quadrant is the ?

A

North east

330
Q

An occluded Front is formed by?

A

A warm front being over run by a cold front.

331
Q

An increase in the water vapour content of a Sample of air will result in?

A

A reduction in air density and an increase in relative humidity

332
Q

If a Sample of air is cooled to below it’s dew point?

A

Condensation will occur

333
Q

A subsidence inversion is produced by?

A

Adiabatic expansion

334
Q

When a forecast indicates the presence of mist you would anticipate?

A

Relative humidity generally lower than 100% and visibility not less than 1 km

335
Q

The temp inside a cumuliform cloud is ?

A

Warmer than the environment

336
Q

In the climb out and approach phases of flight, information about the incidence of winds of 40 k or more within 2000 feet of the ground, reported by a pilot in command directly to ATS is known as?

A

An AIRMET special

337
Q

When a headwind shears to a calm wind, the initial indications a pilot should be aware of are ?

A

Indicated airpseed decreasing, aircraft pitching down and altitude decreasing.

338
Q

A feature of a high-pressure area is air movement? 

A

Descending to the surface and then outward

339
Q

A thermal low is usually located ?

A

Over the surface of a dry, sunny region

340
Q

If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at flight level 350, the density altitude compared to the pressure altitude is?

A

Higher than the pressure altitude

341
Q

An area of convergence at the surface in the Equatorial trough may be characterised by?

A

Low surface pressure, Ascent and widespread rain and showers

342
Q

The beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm is signalled by that?

A

Start of rain at the surface.

343
Q

The feature normally associated with the Cumulus stage of a thunderstorm is?

A

Continuous updraft

344
Q

Area QNH is accurate to within plus or minus ?

A

5 HPA

345
Q

Many IFR have weather radar to enable pilots to avoid thunderstorms embedded in ?

A

Nimbostratus cloud

346
Q

Pressure altitude will equal to true altitude when ?

A

Standard atmospheric conditions exist

347
Q

Runway visual range represents?

A

The maximum distance in the direction of take off or landing at which the runway can be seen from the pilots eye level at touchdown.

348
Q

The area of worst turbulence in association with mountain waves is likely to be located where?

A

Under the Crests 

349
Q

When atmospheric conditions are unstable?

A

The ELR exceeds the DALR and the SALR

350
Q

Fog is when visibility is below what ?

A

1000m

351
Q

The cloud type having the largest size of water droplet is?

A

NimboStratis

352
Q

Wind which blows parallel to curved isobars is termed?

A

Gradient

353
Q

As part of the general circulation, the wind over south Australia and the southern part of Western Australia are known as the ?

A

Mid- latitude westerlies

354
Q

The most severe turbulance associated with a thunderstorm is usually encountered ?

A

In the middle part of the storm around the freezing level

355
Q

In the vicinity of your aircraft’s track the cloud is 5/8 CU with bases 5000ft and tops 18000 ft. Your aircrfat is at FL140 and the OAT Is -12 degrees C. Another aircraft reports it is flying in showers below cloud at 3000 feet with OAT + 16 degrees C if you entered the cloud what type of icong woukd you expect?

A

Clear ice as you would be just above the freezing level at FL140

356
Q

A moist air mass is moving west over the great dividing range, has an ELR which is less than the saturated air lapse rate. The likely type and location of any cloud that may form is?

A

Stratiform clouds mainly on the eastern slopes

357
Q

One of the preconditions for mountain waves to form is?

A

Wind atleast 25 to 30 kn at the mountain top and increasing with height

358
Q

The expected duration of an individual microburst is?

A

Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation

359
Q

A feature associated with a temperature inversion is?

A

A stable layer of air

360
Q

While and Cruise you encounter turbulence of sufficient intensity to cause difficulty in maintaining the desired flight path and requiring large power changes to control speed. You would report this level of Windshear as?

A

Strong

361
Q

Isobars on a Mean sealevel analysis chart represent lines of equal pressure?

A

Reduced to sea level

362
Q

Coriolis affect has the least influence on wind direction?

A

At the equator

363
Q

The condition likely to result in the formation of frost is?

A

The temperature of the collecting surface below the dew point and the dew point also below freezing

364
Q

As an aircraft passes through a front into the colder air in the southern hemisphere?

A

Atmospheric pressure increases

365
Q

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, the stage characterised predominantly by downdraught is?

A

Dissipating

366
Q

The term embedded thunderstorms indicates?

A

Thunderstorms are obscured by other types of clouds.

367
Q

Cold southerly streams are frequently unstable because they are?

A

Heated from below by the underlying surface

368
Q

You are flying in thick altostratus cloud with an outside air temperature of -3°C. The type of ice if any you would most likely to encounter is?

A

A mixture of rime and clear ice.

369
Q

A feature of the dissipating thunderstorm is ?

A

Downdraughts

370
Q

A parcel of unsaturated air, rising in an atmosphere with the environmental lapse rate of 4°C per thousand feet, will cool at?

A

3°C per 1000 feet and conditions will be unstable

371
Q

When flying in Strato cumulus clouds with drizzle and outside air temperature of -5°C, the type of ice you would be most likely to encounter is?

A

Rime

372
Q

Geostrophic flow would be unlikely?

A

On the equator

373
Q

RSWT winds are in magnetic or true ?

A

TRUE

374
Q

A thunderstorm is reported 200nm north east of Darwin YPDN at 4am local time of January 5th. The most likely trigger mechanism causing development of the storm is ?

A

Increased instability due to radiation of heat from the tops of existing cumulus clouds

375
Q

After climbing through a subsidence inversion layer, the condition most likely to increase is?

A

Horizontal visibility

376
Q

How does density and water vapour content change as a dry air mass moves over an ocean surface ?

A

Becomes less dense due to the increase in water vapour content

377
Q

The type of cloud if any usually associated with the low-level jet is?

A

None the sky is usually clear

378
Q

The primary cause of all changes in the earths weather is?

A

Variations of solar energy at the earth surface

379
Q

Freezing rain encountered during climb is normally evidence that?

A

A layer of warm air exist above

380
Q

If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at flight level 310, the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude is?

A

The true altitude is lower than 31,000 feet

381
Q

The most severe turbulence in a thunderstorm is likely to occur where?

A

Around the middle of the cloud just above the freezing level

382
Q

Refer to CAO 20.7 .0 For an international flight the max landing weight maybe determined using forecast conditions provided the forecast was issued within?

A

Two hours of departure

383
Q

When saturated air moves downhill, it’s temperature increases ?

A

At a slower rate than the dry air because vaporisation requires heat

384
Q

When a local parcel of air is stable ? 

A

The parcel of air resists convection

385
Q

Squall lines most often develop?

A

Ahead of a cold front

386
Q

Precipitation as showers is most likely to fall from?

A

Cumulus 

387
Q

VOLMET broadcasts are transmitted ?

A

On the hour and half hour for airports specified in the AIP

388
Q

The term used to describe a change of temperature in an air mass due to a change in pressure is?

A

Adiabatic

389
Q

When a tropical cyclone is decaying the central pressure does what ?

A

Rises

390
Q

The decaying stage of a tropical cyclone is characterised by what ?

A

The central pressure rising

391
Q

The data given in the GPWT forecast for the route Cairns to Mount Isa at FL 300 DIFFERS slightly from that given in the RSWT the difference is due to the fact that our RSWT data is?

A

The average for the route sector and the GPWT data is that for the midpoint of a 5° latitude times 5° longitude area.

392
Q

Does isolated CBs mean well separated or individual?

A

Individual

393
Q

The cloud and precipitation type usually producing the lowest inflight visibility is?

A

Drizzle beneath thick stratus

394
Q

The ambient wind at 5000 feet above a landmass in the southern hemisphere is northerly at 30 kn the surface wind would be closest to?

A

030/10

395
Q

Ground based inversions are characterised by?

A

Cold temperatures

396
Q

In the lower levels of the atmosphere, surface friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because surface friction?

A

Decreases wind speed and Coriolis affect

397
Q

Wind flows down slope and becomes warmer and dryer when it is?

A

Fohn wind

398
Q

If precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight, the temperature is?

A

Above freezing at flight level

399
Q

Station pressure is defind as ? 

A

Actual pressure at field elevation

400
Q

The pre-requisites for the formation of a low-level jet are?

A

Anticyclonic conditions, a surface inversion and a mountain barrier

401
Q

 Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce a hazard to instrument flight in the form of?

A

Embedded thunderstorms

402
Q

The cloud type indicative of very strong turbulence is ? 

A

Standing lenticular

403
Q

A feature of a quasi- stationary Front is?

A

Surface winds tend to flow parallel to the frontal zone

404
Q

The maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm can be found ?

A

On all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell

405
Q

A TAF 3 is an ?

A

Aerodrome forecast issued every 3 hours

406
Q

Reports of wind direction in MET messages indicate the direction ?

A

uestion 36 of 36 (Marks: 1) (AMET 141)
ports of wind direction in MET messages indicate the direction
1 from which the wind is blowing in degrees magnetic
2 from which the wind is blowing

407
Q

Reports of wind direction in MET messages indicate the direction ?

A

from which the wind is blowing expressed in degrees true