LAW ATPL Flashcards
You are completing completed command training for an Air Transport Part 121 Operator. This
training makes you current and licenced under CAR part 61. Which of the following requirements
are not required to be included to complete command training for an Air Transport Operation
under CAR Part 121?
flying training or simulator training in an approved simulator
successful completion of the operators Part 121 command proficiency check for the
aeroplane and a line check
training in the responsibilities of pilot in command in that kind of aeroplane and training in relation to pilot incapacitation
supervised line training for at least 110 hours and 50 sectors
D = supervised line training for at least 110 hours and 50 sectors
As the holder of an ATPL you may, subject to certain conditions, pilot an aircraft in command or as
copilot. To do this you must hold a valid licence endorsed (refer CAR 61.665) ?
with an instructor rating for the type and class of aircraft concerned with a command instrument rating with an instructor rating and a command instrument rating
for the type and class of aircraft concerned
One type of air service operation in which you are engaged involves the carriage of passengers for
hire or reward. This operation ?
is classified as an air transport operation
must be classified as a regular public transport operation
must be classified as a public transport service
may be classified as charter
is classified as an air transport operation
After December 2, 2023, a 19 passenger seat aircraft with a certificate of airworthiness issued in
2007, operated by a CAR Part 121 operator must be fitted with or carry ?
2 ELTs, at least one of which must be an automatic ELT
either an automatic ELT, or 2 ELTs
1 ELT
1 ELT only if operating over water where the carriage of life rafts is required
1 ELT
Australian registered, pressurised, turbine single engined aircraft with 9 passenger seats are
required to be fitted with weather radar for ?
IFR passenger transport operations
night VFR operations only
RPT operations only
all operations in the IFR
IFR passenger transport operations
One of the conditions under which cargo may be carried in the cabin on a CAR Part 121 passenger
transport operation requiring cabin crew to be carried is that it may be loaded ?
on an unoccupied control seat if the weight of cargo does not exceed 77 kg, is
properly restrained and the relevant flight controls are removed
in the passenger compartment ahead of, but never behind, the passengers
in the aisle, but only if crew members are still able to move freely through the
aircraft in an upright position
on an unoccupied passenger seat if the weight of the cargo does not exceed 77 kg
and the cargo is suitably restrained
on an unoccupied passenger seat if the weight of the cargo does not exceed 77 kg and the cargo is suitably restrained
Refer Adelaide DAP. A condition relating to a turbojet aircraft arriving at Adelaide airport prior to the
lifting of a NAP curfew is that it ?
must not land before the curfew is lifted
must not land before the curfew is lifted unless the pilot declares an inflight
emergency or has insufficient fuel to divert
must not land before the curfew is lifted unless the variable reserve would be burnt while holding may land without restriction provided the flight plan had indicated an arrival after the curfew
must not land before the curfew is lifted unless the pilot declares an inflight emergency or has insufficient fuel to divert
The equipment required to be fitted an IFR passenger transport operation flight under CAR part
121 for measuring and displaying flight information must be duplicated with separate and
independent equipment for measuring and displaying ?
time
outside air temperature
flight attitude
magnetic heading
Flight altitude
With respect to Standard Instrument Departures (SID), a published SID gradient in brackets may be
shown after the main gradient. The gradient in brackets is for the purpose of ?
Airspace containment
With respect to Standard Instrument Departures (SID), a published SID gradient is NOT for the
purpose of ?
ensuring obstacle clearance in the event of engine failure
In flight, a separate safety harness or seat belt must be worn by ?
all occupants of an aircraft, including infants/children, during take-off and landing
at least one pilot crew member at all times during flight
at least two flight crew members when an electronic type automatic pilot is engaged
all flight crew members, but not passengers, during an instrument approach
at least one pilot crew member at all times during flight
An aircraft with a two axis autopilot (with heading and altitude hold modes) and has a yaw damper
which is unserviceable. Concerning operations under CAR Part 135 ?
the aircraft may be operated single pilot IF or day VFR or night VFR
the aircraft may operate single pilot day VFR only
dual controls and a second endorsed pilot is required for IF RPT
dual controls and a second endorsed pilot is required for aerial work
the aircraft may be operated single pilot IFR or day VFR or night VFR
Over one stage of a passenger air transport flight under CAR 135, you note that you will be
required to navigate the aeroplane only by use of radio navigation systems and you plan a route via
a number of NDBs located on track. If the rated coverage of each of the NDBs is 50 nm and there
are no other methods of fixing position, the maximum allowable distance between NDBs (assume nil
wind at cruising FL and TAS 200 kt) is ?
330 nm
400 nm
250 nm
150 nm
330nm
With respect to aircraft operating under CAR part 135 which are required to be fitted with cockpit
voice recorders (CVR) and flight data recorders (FDR), the periods of the flight during which they
are required to record are ?
from engine start to engine shutdown for both CVR and FDR
from take-off to landing for both CVR and FDR
before taxi and engine start, from as close as practicable to the start of the cockpit
checks until as close as possible to the completion of the final cockpit checks at the
termination of the flight after engine shutdown for the CVR, and from the time the
aircraft first moves under its own power until the conclusion of taxiing after landing,
when the aeroplane can no longer move under its own power for the FDR.
from engine start to engine shutdown for FDR and from take-off to landing for CVR
before taxi and engine start, from as close as practicable to the start of the cockpit
checks until as close as possible to the completion of the final cockpit checks at the
termination of the flight after engine shutdown for the CVR, and from the time the
aircraft first moves under its own power until the conclusion of taxiing after landing,
when the aeroplane can no longer move under its own power for the FDR.
An aircraft operating under the IFR in CAR Part 121 air transport operations must be equipped
with an autopilot with altitude hold and heading modes unless ?
the autopilot loses its capability not more than 3 days before the flight
the aircraft is fitted with fully functioning dual controls
the aircraft is fitted with fully functioning dual controls with 2 control seats, one
occupied by the pilot in command and the other by a private pilot
the operation is cargo transport only
the aircraft is fitted with fully functioning dual controls
You note on the ERC that the route of the planned flight in class C airspace passes near the
boundary of an area outlined in red and designated R200 4000 - FL250 H24 Status RA1. Flight
through area R200 is ?
not permitted under any circumstances
permitted only in accordance with AC clearance conditions and instructions
permitted at pilot’s discretion after assessing the potential danger of the activity
permitted only if conducted above A040
permitted only in accordance with ATC clearance conditions and instructions
What is the minimum clearance from cloud required for VMC in Class G airspace at 5000 ft AMSL?
600 m horizontally, 500 ft below and 1000 ft above
600 m horizontally, 1000 ft above and 500 ft below
1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft above and 1000 ft below
1500 m horizontally, 500 ft above and 1000 ft below
1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft above and 1000 ft below
When flying in controlled airspace, any change of level must be ?
commenced within one minute of receiving an instruction from ATC, unless a later
time is specified
made at a rate of not less than 500 ft per minute except that the last 1000 ft of level
change shall be made at 500 feet per minute
commenced immediately on receipt of an instruction from ATC unless a later time is
specified
made at the ‘standard rate’
commenced within one minute of receiving an instruction from ATC, unless a later time is specified
You are cruising in Class G airspace under the VFR and you sight a slower aircraft directly ahead at
the same level and on the same track. To overtake this aircraft you must ?
alter heading to the left to pass to the left and keep left until clear of the other
aircraft
climb to pass above
alter heading to pass to the right and keep right until clear of the other aircraft
descend to pass below
alter heading to pass to the right and keep right until clear of the other aircraft
The point on descent, after cruising at a Flight Level in Australia, where the altimeter subscale
setting should be changed to QNH is ?
immediately on commencing descent
prior to entering the transition layer
at 10000 ft altitude
at 5000 ft altitude
prior to entering the transition layer
When refueling a CAR 121 operator’s aircraft is completed you note that a refueling tanker is
parked 20 m directly behind your turboprop powered aircraft. The correct statement is ?
you are not permitted to start your aircraft engines
your operators exposition must include procedures for the safe felling and operation
of an aircraft on an aerodrome
you may start and taxi as normal provided the tanker is manned or the wheels are
chocked
there are no limitations on the operation of your aircraft
your operators exposition must include procedures for the safe felling and operation of an aircraft on an aerodrome
Prior to commencing an IFR air transport flight as a CAR Part 135 operation, you note that the
altitude alerting system is unserviceable in the piston engined aircraft you’re to operate the flight in.
The flight may proceed ?
below FL140 without restriction
without any restriction
above FL150 without any restriction
in Class G airspace or below FL 150 in CTA
in Class G airspace or below FL 150 in CTA
Refer CAO 48.1 Instrument 2019 appendix 4. As a two pilot crew, your Flight Duty Period (FDP) and
duty time to and from Home Base totals 8 hours 50 minutes. If the previous day was a rest day, the
minimum Home Base Off Duty Period (ODP) before commencing the next FDP is ?
12 hours
9 hours, which includes a local night
12 hours, which must include a local night
24 hours
12 hours
You are planning an IF charter flight (dual VHF equipped) which will arrive at GLEN INNES NSW
(STBY POWER NOT AVBL) after last light. You are advised that the runway lighting will be activated
at last light, but the aerodrome will be unattended. With regard to aerodrome lighting ?
the flight may proceed to GLEN INNES without restriction
an alternate is required and INVERELL (PAL - standby power) is suitable
an alternate equipped with stand-by power is required
no alternate is required if additional fuel for 30 minutes holding is carried
an alternate is required and INVERELL (PAL - standby power) is suitable
Cargo Air Transport Operations in multi-engined aircraft with a maximum take-off weight of more
than 8618 kg ?
may be conducted under the VFR or IF as either a single pilot or a multi-crew
operation
may be conducted as a single pilot operation under the VFR
may be single pilot if under 5700 MTOW
must be conducted under the IFR with minimum of 2 flight crew, one of which is
command rated for the aircraft being flown.
must be conducted under the IFR with minimum of 2 flight crew, one of which is
command rated for the aircraft being flown.
During an air transport operation above FL250, both flight crew members are seated at the
controls. If quick donning type oxygen masks are available, then the lowest altitude above which at
least one of the flight crew must use supplemental oxygen is ?
FL450
FL350
FL410
10000
10000 ft
Where an aircraft has a permissible unserviceability, the maintenance release issued ?
need not be endorsed with the permissible unserviceability
must be endorsed with the permissible unserviceability and a statement that the
maintenance release is issued subject to the conditions relating to use of the aircraft
with the permissible unserviceability as endorsed
must be endorsed with the permissible unserviceability but not the related conditions
need not be endorsed with the permissible unserviceability but must state that the
maintenance release is subject to specific conditions relating to a permissible
unserviceability
must be endorsed with the permissible unserviceability and a statement that the
maintenance release is issued subject to the conditions relating to use of the aircraft
with the permissible unserviceability as endorsed
The maximum distance over water which a twin turbine-engine propeller-driven aeroplane with a
Maximum Take-Off Weight (MTOW) below 5700 kg operating an air transport service may operate
without carrying life-rafts is ?
400 nm or 2 hours at its normal cruising speed in still air
the distance in which with one engine inoperative, the aeroplane could reach a
suitable forced landing area, situated on land, for the flight
100 nm or 30 minutes at its normal cruising speed in still air
100 nm or 60 minutes at its normal cruising speed in still air
100 nm or 30 minutes at its normal cruising speed in still air
When a flight crew member becomes aware that an aircraft has suffered a major defect, the person
is required to enter and sign an endorsement setting out the facts of the situation in the aircraft
maintenance release ?
in all circumstances
in all circumstances except when the defect existed at the time the maintenance
release was issued and was known to the person who issued the maintenance
release or to a responsible employee of that person
in all circumstances except when the aircraft is to be flown to or from a place where
maintenance on the aircraft is to be carried out or has been carried out
in all circumstances except when the defect existed at the time the maintenance
release was issued and was known to the person who issued the maintenance
release or to a responsible employee of that person and the maintenance release
was issued under a permission to fly.
in all circumstances
Airborne weather radar equipment fitted to an IF pressurised, turbine-engine aircraft below 8618
kg MTOW, operated on a passenger air transport operation ?
must be serviceable before flight for aircraft requiring 2 or pilots
must be serviceable before flight for every flight above FL180
may be unserviceable before flight for a maximum 24 hour period
may be unserviceable before flight provided none of the relevant forecasts or reports
indicate that potentially hazardous weather conditions exist in the flight path along
which the aeroplane will be flown; or if the operational flight plan for the flight
includes an alternate aerodrome - in the flight path to that aerodrome
may be unserviceable before flight provided none of the relevant forecasts or reports
indicate that potentially hazardous weather conditions exist in the flight path along
which the aeroplane will be flown; or if the operational flight plan for the flight
includes an alternate aerodrome - in the flight path to that aerodrome
Refer CAO 48.1 Instrument 2019 appendix 4. When planning a single pilot air transport, an FDP in
excess of 11 hours may be assigned ?
provided the tour of duty does not exceed 12 hours
provided the tour of duty does not exceed 15 hours
under no circumstances
provided the FDP includes a split-duty rest period with access to suitable sleeping or
resting accommodation.
provided the FDP includes a split-duty rest period with access to suitable sleeping or
resting accommodation.
Q32 The defects regarded by CASA as major defects in Australian aircraft are ?
defects causing primary structural failure, control system failure, engine structural
failure or fire or any defect of such a kind that it may affect the safety of the aircraft
or become a danger to person or property
defects which are not permissible unserviceabilities
defects causing any system failure
defects causing control difficulties
defects causing primary structural failure, control system failure, engine structural
failure or fire or any defect of such a kind that it may affect the safety of the aircraft
or become a danger to person or property
A person by connected with the operation of an Australian aircraft who discovers a major defect which
could cause primary structural failure in the aircraft must report the defect to CASA ?
within 2 working days
within 24 hours
within 12 hours
immediately
Immediately
A person who discovers a defect other than a defect causing primary structural failure, control
system failure, engine structural failure or fire in an Australian aircraft in the course of performing
maintenance on the aircraft must report the defect to CASA ?
within 2 working days
within 24 hours
within 12 hours
immediately
Within 2 working days
All passenger air transport operation operations over water in a single-engine aeroplane below 8618
kg MTOW that is not a seaplane or amphibian, if the aeroplane is flown further over water than the
distance from which, with the engine inoperative, the aeroplane could reach a suitable forced
landing area for the flight ?
must be conducted in accordance with the IFR
proceeding more than 10 nm from land, for more than one hour continuously, must
be IFR
must be conducted so that the distance along track between successive suitable land
masses does not exceed 50 nm (maximum 25 nm from land)
must carry the following: for each infant on board - a life jacket, or another equally
effective flotation device, that may have a whistle; for each other person on board
a life jacket that must have a whistle.
must carry the following: for each infant on board - a life jacket, or another equally
effective flotation device, that may have a whistle; for each other person on board
a life jacket that must have a whistle.
When planning a flight under the IFR, but intending to navigate solely by reference to radio
navigation systems, an acceptable method for determining a positive radio fix is ?
passage over specified aids
one position line from a radio nav aid within its rated coverage
the intersection of 2 position lines at an angle of less than 45 degrees
the intersection of two position lines from any two NDBs, if obtained within the rated
coverages of both NDBs
passage over specified aids
You are planning a VFR air transport flight in an aeroplane below 8618 kg MTOW, but no suitable
forecast is available for the flight prior to your ETD. The destination aerodrome does not have a
published instrument approach procedure. If you are satisfied that the weather at the departure
aerodrome will permit a safe return for at least one hour after your departure ?
you must not depart until a forecast has been obtained
you may depart, but may only continue, if you obtain a suitable forecast for both the
destination aerodrome and any planned alternate aerodromes within 30 minutes of
departure
you may depart, but may only continue, if you obtain a suitable forecast before
proceeding more than 3 nm from, or 1500 ft above, the departure aerodrome
you may depart, but may only continue, if you obtain a suitable forecast for the
destination aerodrome within 30 minutes of departure
you may depart, but may only continue, if you obtain a suitable forecast for the
destination aerodrome within 30 minutes of departure
You are to conduct a flight during the hours of darkness and OCTA to an aerodrome not equipped
with PAL. If the ETD is 121200 UTC and the flight time is 210 minutes, the period you must ensure
that runway lighting is available at the destination is ?
from 121500 UTC to 121530 UTC
from 121430 UTC to 121600 UTC
from 121500 UTC until taxiing is completed
from 121530 UTC until taxiing is completed
from 121500 UTC until taxiing is completed
You are on finals to land at a non-controlled aerodrome on a runway with an LDA of 1750 m.
Another aeroplane is departing on the same runway and you estimate that it will be airborne but
not past the departure end of the runway as you reach the threshold. You should ?
continue the approach, but ensure that your aircraft does not pass the threshold
until the other aircraft has commenced a turn or is beyond a point on the runway at
which you would expect to complete your landing roll or be able to manoeuvre safely
in a missed approach
discontinue the approach as adequate separation does not exist
continue the approach and request the other pilot to expedite
continue the approach and land as the separation is adequate since the other
aeroplane is airborne
continue the approach, but ensure that your aircraft does not pass the threshold
until the other aircraft has commenced a turn or is beyond a point on the runway at
which you would expect to complete your landing roll or be able to manoeuvre safely in a missed approach
When in CTA and approaching within 30 nm of an aerodrome located within a civil control zone, you
are asked to confirm sighting another arriving aircraft ahead. On confirmation of sighting you are
instructed to follow and maintain separation from that aircraft’. One of the provisions of this
instruction is ?
that you are not to overtake the aircraft
that you may overtake, provided that you maintain at least the minimum horizontal
and vertical separation distances
that you may only overtake if outside 5 nm from the destination
that you may overtake, but only in VMC by day
that you are not to overtake the aircraft
For the purpose of weight and balance of the aircraft, the standard passenger weight an adult
passenger of indeterminate gender on an air transport operation in an aircraft over 8618 kg MTOW
with a maximum operational seating capacity between 10 and 14 is ?
86 kg
71 kg
77 kg
70 kg
86kg
Refer to CAO 48.1 Instrument 2019. it is a condition on each flight crew licence that the licence
holder must not begin to carry out any task for a flight if, due to fatigue, the FCM is, or is likely to
be ?
unfit to perform a task that the FCM must perform during the flight
unable to ensure the efficiency of the operation
unfit to ensure the comfort of passengers
unable to uphold reputation of the AOC holder
unfit to perform a task that the FCM must perform during the flight
You are operating under the provisions of appendix 3 of CAO 48.1 Instrument 2019. After 36 hours
off duty period, you commence a period of standby at home. After completing 11 hours standby
you are called in to fly to an away base as a passenger departing your home base at 0700 LST. This
positioning flight takes another 2 hours. You may then commence a single sector flight as a
member of a two pilot crew provided that the assigned FDP for the flight is not more than ?
2 hours
3 hours
4 hours
14 hours
3 hours
Serviceable airborne weather radar must be fitted to ?
a turbine aircraft with MTOW 19000 kg for all flights
aircraft in CAR Part 121 operations and CASR Part 135 operations in relevant
aircraft involving passenger or medical transport under the IF or night VFR
a turbine aircraft with MTOW 5600 kg on passenger air transport flights under CASR
Part 135
all pressurised aircraft engaged in passenger air transport operations under the IFR
aircraft in CAR Part 121 operations and CAR Part 135 operations in relevant
aircraft involving passenger or medical transport under the IF or night VFR
When vectored under AT surveillance procedures, and a heading instruction is given, the pilot shall
commence the turn ?
within 1 minute of receiving the instruction and the turn shall be rate one
within 30 seconds of receiving the instruction and the turn shall be at the standard
rate for the aircraft type
within 1 minute of receiving the instruction and the turn shall be at the standard rate
for the aircraft type
immediately on receiving the instruction and the turn shall be rate one or the
standard rate for the aircraft type, then maintain the heading
immediately on receiving the instruction and the turn shall be rate one or the
standard rate for the aircraft type, then maintain the heading
During in a pressurised aeroplane, only one pilot is at the controls. If quick donning type oxygen
masks are available, then the lowest altitude above which that pilot is required to wear the mask
and use supplemental oxygen ?
10000 ft FL140 FL250 FL450 FL410
FL450
A CASA examiner may travel on a flight to undertake checks of the operation ?
provided that 7 days’ notice in writing is given
except when off-loading a passenger or cargo is necessary
with the approval of the chief pilot
on immediate notice from the examiner, irrespective of whether a passenger or
cargo must be off loaded, if the examiner considers circumstances so warrant this
action
on immediate notice from the examiner, irrespective of whether a passenger or
cargo must be off loaded, if the examiner considers circumstances so warrant this
action
LAHSO are being conducted at the airport from which you are departing. A simultaneous take-off
and landing is ?
permitted by day only, with cloud ceiling 500 ft and visibility 1000 m
permitted by day and night, with cloud ceiling 1000 ft and visibility 5000 m
permitted by day and night, provided all aircraft are alerted that LAHSO are in
progress by advice on the ATIS
not permitted at night under any circumstances
not permitted at night under any circumstances
When subject to unlawful interference a pilot must set the transponder on the appropriate code. On
receipt of this code the controller will request confirmation of the setting by use of the phrase ?
“confirm you are declaring an emergency” and the pilot should acknowledge
“confirm you have been hijacked” and the pilot should not reply
“confirm squawking assigned code” and the pilot should not reply
“confirm you are subject to unlawful interference” and the pilot should acknowledge
“confirm squawking assigned code” and the pilot should not reply
As a flight crew member of an Australian aircraft you become aware of a defect in the aircraft. You
shall ?
inform the maintenance engineer of the defect so that he can enter it into the
maintenance release
enter details of the defect in the maintenance release and sign the entry
inform all crew members who are likely to fly the aircraft, and inform the
maintenance engineer of the defect
inform the chief pilot of the defect so that he can enter the defect in the
maintenance release and make all other pilots aware of the defect
enter details of the defect in the maintenance release and sign the entry
inform all crew members who are likely to fly the aircraft, and inform the
maintenance engineer of the defect
Before acting as Pilot In Command of an air transport operation aircraft on a particular route, a pilot
shall ?
be certified as competent on that route by a CASA examiner
have made at least one flight over the route within the previous 12 months as a pilot
member of the operating crew of an aircraft engaged in IFR operations only
follow the requirements of the Operator’s Exposition relating to route knowledge and
departure, destination and alternate aerodromes
made at least one instrument approach at the departure and destination aerodromes
within the previous 12 months
follow the requirements of the Operator’s Exposition relating to route knowledge and
departure, destination and alternate aerodromes
Q11 The pilot of a mode 3A SR transponder equipped aircraft operating VFR on a civil flight in Class G airspace and not participating in a Surveillance Information Service (SIS), should select code ?
1200
2000
3000
4000
1200
Immediately before take-off, the pilot in command shall ensure that ?
the control surfaces are completely free from frost and ice
windscreens and all control surfaces are completely free from frost and ice
the aircraft is not covered with frost or ice to a degree which would degrade take-off
performance
all external surfaces of the aircraft are completely free from frost or ice or snow
except the top of the fuselage if certain conditions are met
all external surfaces of the aircraft are completely free from frost or ice or snow
except the top of the fuselage if certain conditions are met
You are the pilot of piston engined aircraft engaged in passenger air transport operations in an
aircraft with 15 passenger seats. You may fly single pilot operations provided that ?
the aircraft the aircraft is operated under the IFR
no more than 10 passengers are carried
the aircraft MOW does not exceed 3500 kg
no more than 9 passengers are carried
no more than 9 passengers are carried
You are the Pilot In Command of a 4 engine jet aircraft (MTOW 447000 kg) with one engine
unserviceable. It cannot be repaired or changed where you are. You and your crew are ferry
qualified and the aircraft is approved for this type of operation in the flight manual.
Concerning conditions for the flight ?
the operation must be conducted with only the essential flight crew and the entire
flight must be in VMC
the flight must not be an air transport operation under CAR part 121
the flight may be a cargo air transport operation, but not a passenger air transport
operation
the flight may be operated as either a passenger or cargo air transport operation
the flight must not be an air transport operation under CAR part 121
For IFR operations in Class G airspace, you are required to carry ?
HF radio at all times
VHF radio only
HF radio if your aircraft is not fitted with an ELB
VHF and also HF radio when outside VHF coverage
VHF and also HF radio when outside VHF coverage
Q16 When cleared to conduct a ‘visual approach’ in CTA by night under the VFR, the Pilot In Command
shall ?
follow the route clearance until within 5 nm of the aerodrome
follow the route clearance until within 3 nm of the aerodrome
not descend below 1000 ft until aligned on final
track direct to a point within 3 nm of the aerodrome for approach to a nominated
runway
follow the route clearance until within 3 nm of the aerodrome
A person who is not a member of the operating crew of an aircraft under CASR Part 135, may ?
with the permission of the Pilot In Command, enter the crew compartment and
occupy a vacant crew operating position
must not occupy a flight crew seat unless the operator’s exposition permits that
person to occupy the flight crew seat, and the person is briefed on the safety
procedures relevant to the seat
not enter the crew compartment, unless the person is authorised to conduct
examinations, inspections or checks of the aircraft, its equipment, or is a member of
the operating crew or the ground organisation provided for use by the aircraft
not enter the crew compartment unless authorised by CASA and approved by the
Pilot In Command
must not occupy a flight crew seat unless the operator’s exposition permits that
person to occupy the flight crew seat, and the person is briefed on the safety
procedures relevant to the seat
You are enroute to Adelaide where an ILS approach will be required. Your 75MHz marker beacon
receiver is unserviceable. You ?
cannot carry out an ILS under any circumstances and will have to divert
may carry out a LOC approach if the required cloud base and visibility minima are
notified on the ATIS
may carry out an ILS if radar will give distance checks
may carry out an ILS if the alternate fixes on the IAL chart (or NOTAM) are used for
altimeter checks (e.g. ME checks)
may carry out an ILS if the alternate fixes on the IAL chart (or NOTAM) are used for altimeter checks (e.g. DME checks)
Q19 You are the Pilot In Command of an aircraft for an air transport operation under CAR Part 135.
The quantity of useable fuel on board before flight ?
must be determined and recorded, and sufficient for the flight
must be not less than fuel for taxi, trip and destination alternate for all flights
must be verified and cross checked by 3 independent methods which must all be
with 3% of each other
must be based on fuel requirements computed only from manufacturers data for the
aeroplane
must be determined and recorded, and sufficient for the flight
Q20
When the destination aerodrome has a TAF3 issued and valid for the ETA ?
the TAF3 requires that 30 minute buffer periods for alternate or holding
requirements be applied for flight planning in relation to INTER/TEMPO/BECMG/FM
periods during the entire validity period of the TAF3
the TAF3 requires no 30 minute buffer periods for alternate or holding requirements
be applied for flight planning in relation to INTER/TEMPO/BECMG/FM periods during
the first 3 hours of the TAF3 or until the end of the TAF3 validity period (whichever is
earlier)
the TAF3 requires that 30 minute buffer periods for alternate or holding
requirements be applied on PROB 30 or PROB 40 endorsed forecast conditions of
reduced visibility or thunderstorms or associated severe turbulence
the TAF3 requires that the normal alternate or holding requirements be applied for
flight planning in relation to forecast weather conditions as if the forecast were a
normal TAF
the TAF3 requires no 30 minute buffer periods for alternate or holding requirements
be applied for flight planning in relation to INTER/TEMPO/BECMG/FM periods during
the first 3 hours of the TAF3 or until the end of the TAF3 validity period (whichever is
earlier)
The number of turn and slip indicators which must be fitted and serviceable for a Day VFR air
transport operation under CAR Part 135 in an aeroplane for which 2 pilots are required is ?
two
one, if it has a duplicated power source
one, whether or not the power source is duplicated
two, if their power source is not duplicated
none
Two
You are to conduct a cargo air transport flight at night under the IF as a CAR Part 135 operation.
Part of the electric lighting equipment required includes at least ?
one landing light with a single illumination source
two landing lights having two independent and separately energised illumination
sources
two landing lights, or a single landing light having two independent and separately
energised illumination sources
the fitting of anti-collision lights where the aircraft is not fitted with landing lights
two landing lights, or a single landing light having two independent and separately
energised illumination sources
A turbine-engine aircraft on a CAR Part 121 operation fitted with an altitude alerting system or
assigned altitude indicator which is inoperative may begin a flight ?
from an aerodrome at which there is no facility for the equipment to be repaired or
replaced, within 72 hours of the time the equipment was found to be inoperative
provided the flight is only in Class G airspace
provided the flight is below FL 150
provided the flight is only is Class G airspace and below FL 150
without additional conditions
from an aerodrome at which there is no facility for the equipment to be repaired or
replaced, within 72 hours of the time the equipment was found to be inoperative
Refer CAO 48.1 Instrument 2019. Before an FM may be considered to be acclimatised to a new
location following an FDP crossing 8 time zones Eastbound with no local night within 2 hours of the
new location’s time zone in the preceding ODP, the required adaptation period is ?
48 hours 72 hours 90 hours 120 hours 60 hours
90 hours
Unless specially authorised, the operations which must be conducted in accordance with the IFR is ?
all over water flights all single engine flights over water all flights in CTA all flights at night all flights in Class A airspace
all flights in Class A airspace
Turbine-engine aircraft first registered on or after 1 January 2014, operating air transport
operations under CAR 121 must be equipped with an approved Airborne Collision Avoidance
System (ACAS) ?
if the aircraft MTOW is greater than 15000 kg or has a maximum certificated
passenger seating capacity of more than 30
if the aircraft is pressurised and operates in any class of airspace in the High Density
Traffic Zone of Eastern Australia (HDTZEA) above FL 150 in passenger air transport
operations
if the aircraft MTOW is less than 5700 kg or has a maximum certificated passenger
seating capacity of less than 19
if the aircraft MTOW is greater than 5700 kg or has a maximum certificated
passenger seating capacity of more than 19
if the aircraft MOW is greater than 5700 kg or has a maximum certificated
passenger seating capacity of more than 19
The flight crew intercommunication system fitted to an aircraft operating air transport flights under
CAR 135 must consist of ?
1 headset and 1 microphone that is not of the hand-held type, for each pilot for the
flight, plus a spare hand held microphone
1 headset and 1 microphone that is not of the hand-held type, for each pilot for the
flight, plus a spare headset and microphone that is not of the hand held type, plus a
spare hand-held microphone
1 headset and 1 microphone that is not of the hand-held type, for each pilot for the
flight, plus a spare headset and microphone that is not of the hand held type
1 headset and 1 microphone that is not of the hand-held type, or alternatively a
hand-held microphone provided that all voice radio communications and Morse code
transmissions from navigation aids are audible over a flight deck loudspeaker at the
noise levels generated with engines at power settings of take-off thrust and below
1 headset and 1 microphone that is not of the hand-held type, for each pilot for the
flight, plus a spare headset and microphone that is not of the hand held type
As Pilot In Command under the IF you must, unless otherwise authorised by ATC ?
select a cruising level which conforms with Table A of the Cruising Levels Tables
select a cruising level which conforms with Table B of the Cruising Levels Tables
select a cruising level which is not below 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within
10 nm of the planned track
not cruise at any level between FL210 and FL290
select a cruising level which conforms with Table A of the Cruising Levels Tables
An aircraft is scheduled to depart aerodrome XX at 1200 UTC for aerodrome YY, which requires an
alternate. Flight time to the destination YY is 1 hour 15 minutes and the flight time to the alternate
ZZ is 40 minutes. If the aerodrome forecast for ZZ expires at 1500 UTC, the latest time the aircraft
can depart XX is ?
1205 UTC
1255 UTC
1305 UTC
1405 UTC
1205UTC
Your aircraft has a MTOW of 6100 kg and you wish to a conduct 2 crew, passenger air transport
under the IF as a CASR Part 135 operation. As Pilot In Command, it is your responsibility to check
that the aircraft is fitted with certain serviceable instrumentation. The equipment which must be
duplicated (separate and independent) is equipment for measuring and displaying ?
IAS, pressure altitude, stabilised heading, turn & slip, vertical speed, attitude (plus
standby attitude equipment)
heading, turn & slip, and IAS, magnetic heading
magnetic heading, turn & slip, attitude, vertical speed, altitude
stabilised heading, turn & slip, vertical speed, Mach number
IAS, pressure altitude, stabilised heading, turn & slip, vertical speed, attitude (plus
standby attitude equipment)
At the descent point the altimeter is set to a QNH of 1020 HPA. In the circuit area at an indicated
altitude of 2100 ft you realise that the local QNH is actually 1010 HPA. The elevation of the
aerodrome is 1100 ft, so your height above the surface is ?
1000 ft
1300 ft
700 ft
2100 ft
700ft
During felling operations ?
the fuel tank filling points or vent outlets must not be closer than 5 m to any
exposed public area
all items of felling equipment are electrically bonded (of the same electrical
potential)
passengers must not embark or disembark
there should be no passengers on board the aircraft
all items of felling equipment are electrically bonded (of the same electrical
potential)
When cruising below 10000 ft, the altimeter setting at top of climb should be ?
1013 HPA
Departure Local QNH
Local QNH of a station within 100 nm of the aircraft if known, or Area QNH
QFE
Local QNH of a station within 100 nm of the aircraft if known, or Area QNH
Q34 The minimum vertical distance from cloud and flight visibility which must be maintained by VFR aircraft cruising at 9500 ft AMSL in class C airspace is ?
1000 ft below and 500 ft above and 8 km visibility
1000 ft below and 1000 ft above and 5 km visibility
1000 ft below and 1000 ft above and 8 km visibility
1500 m and 5 km visibility
1000 ft below and 1000 ft above and 5 km visibility
Q35
The minimum horizontal distance from cloud which must be maintained by an aircraft cruising in
Class D airspace under the VFR is ?
1500m
1000 m
2000 m
600 m
600m
The pilot in command of a flight, must study authorised weather forecasts and reports for the route
to be flown and the departure and destination aerodromes (and any planned alternate aerodrome) ?
the conditions as advised on the ATIS
the conditions declared by CASA as acceptable for a particular aerodrome for
determining weight limits for take-off or landing
not more than 1 hour before commencing a flight
not more than 2 hours before commencing a flight
not more than 1 hour before commencing a flight
When an aircraft is being felled, equipment or electronic devices (other than aircraft and fuelling
equipment and devices, safe servicing equipment and devices or industry compliant safe
equipment) must not be operated ?
within 6 m of a critical felling point for the aircraft
within 30 m of a critical fulling point for the aircraft
within 15 m of a critical fulling point for the aircraft
within 37 m of a critical fulling point for the aircraft
within 15 m of a critical fulling point for the aircraft
The pilot in command must direct passengers to fasten their seat belts ?
before descent from cruise
before descent from 1000 ft AMSL
prior taxiing, take-off, landing or any other time the pilot considers necessary
before commencing an instrument
prior taxiing, take-off, landing or any other time the pilot considers necessary
Q39
You are PIC of a passenger air transport flight in an F28 planning to cruise at FL280. The crew’s
supplemental oxygen supply must be adequate to supply the crew for the entire period the cabin
pressure altitude is above 13000 ft, but in any case you must ensure that ?
there is not less than 45 minutes supply for each crew member
there is not less than 2 hours supply for each flight crew member or assisting crew
member
there is at least a 30 minute supply for each crew member
there is not less than a 10 minute supply for each crew member
there is not less than 2 hours supply for each flight crew member or assisting crew
member
Refer to CAO 48.1 Instrument 2019. At the commencement of an FDP or an off-duty period at a
new location which differs in local time by 2 hours or more from the location where the FCM was
last acclimatised (the original location), the FCM is considered to be in an unknown state of
acclimatisation if the period at the new location commences ?
36 hours or more after the FCM commenced a duty period at the original location
24 hours or more after the CM commenced a duty period at the original location
12 hours or more after the CM commenced a duty period at the original location
8 hours or more after the FCM commenced a duty period at the original location
36 hours or more after the FCM commenced a duty period at the original location
Refer to CAO 48.1 Instrument 2019. An FCM has completed a flight to the East crossing 3 time
zones between the departure (original location) and the destination (adaptation location) which is
not the home base of the FCM. Immediately preceding the FDP, the FCM had an off duty period
which included a local night, at a location less than 2 hours’ time difference from the destination.
The FCM is considered to remain in his or her state of acclimatisation (whether acclimatised to a
particular location, or in an unknown state of acclimatisation) until he or she has had an adaptation
period in an adaptation location of ?
24 hours
33 hours
36 hours
45 hours
33 hours
Concerning the fitting and operation of aircraft surveillance equipment in an F28 aircraft operating an air transport operation in any class of airspace ?
2 transponders are required to be fitted, and one must have an approved ADS-B
OUT equipment configuration
1 transponder is required to be fitted, and it must have Mode A/C capability
2 transponders are required to be fitted, and both must be operated at any time
at least 1 approved ADS-B OUT equipment configuration is required
at least 1 approved ADS-B OUT equipment configuration is required
Q2
The requirement for the carriage and supply of supplemental oxygen for passengers in
unpressurised aircraft below 8618 kg MTOW is that the supply must be ?
sufficient for 20% of the passengers for periods longer than 30 min at altitudes
between 10000 ft pressure altitude and FL150
sufficient for 20% of the passengers for 15 min at altitudes above FL150
sufficient for at least 10% the passengers for any period after the first 30 minutes at
pressure altitudes between 10 000 ft and 13 000 ft
sufficient for all passengers at all times during which the aircraft flies above 10 000 ft
sufficient for at least 10% the passengers for any period after the first 30 minutes at
pressure altitudes between 10 000 ft and 13 000 ft
The minimum number of protective breathing equipment (PBE) units required for pressurised
aircraft below 8618 kg MOW requiring more than one pilot to fly the aircraft in an air transport
operation is ?
two units capable of providing a continuous 15 minute supply of oxygen or suitable
gas mix for each flight crew member
one unit capable of providing a continuous 15 minute supply of oxygen or suitable
gas mix for one flight crew member
one unit at each crew station capable of providing a continuous 15 minute supply of
oxygen or suitable gas mix for a flight crew member
one at each crew station capable of providing a continuous 15 minute supply of
oxygen or suitable gas mix for a flight crew member and one portable PBE unit for
each flight crew member
one at each crew station capable of providing a continuous 15 minute supply of
oxygen or suitable gas mix for a flight crew member and one portable PBE unit for
each flight crew member
In the event of an engine failure in a multi-engine aircraft in flight the pilot in command shall ?
notify ATC or ATS immediately and proceed to the closest aerodrome
notify ATC or ATS as soon as practicable and proceed to the nearest suitable
aerodrome
notify ATC or ATS when convenient and proceed to the planned destination
notify the company operations centre immediately and proceed to the nearest
suitable aerodrome where repair facilities are
notify ATC or ATS as soon as practicable and proceed to the nearest suitable
aerodrome
If a return to land at the departure aerodrome is necessary in the event of an engine failure after
take-off in a piston multi-engined aircraft, the meteorological conditions for take-off must be ?
not less than the standard take-off minima of 300 ft ceiling and 2000 m visibility
at or above the IAL landing minima for any approach the pilot in command is able to
conduct at the aerodrome or such as to allow a visual approach
below the standard take-off minima of 300 ft ceiling and 2000 m visibility
above to the standard take-off minima or the take-off minima detailed in DAP East or
West
at or above the IAL landing minima for any approach the pilot in command is able to
conduct at the aerodrome or such as to allow a visual approach
If published instrument approach minima are calculated using forecast aerodrome (TAF) QNH, the
availability of actual aerodrome QNH permits ?
an addition to the minima of 100 ft
a reduction of the minima by 100 ft provided the QNH is from an approved source
and not used more than 15 minutes after receipt
no change to the minima
a reduction of the minima by 100 ft provided the QNH is from a METAR and is not
used more than 15 minutes after receipt
a reduction of the minima by 100 ft provided the QNH is from an approved source
and not used more than 15 minutes after receipt
Special alternate weather minima are available at some aerodromes for use by suitably equipped
aircraft. The minimum aircraft equipment requirements which apply to the use of special alternate
weather minima are ?
duplicated LOC, G/P, and VOR receivers and duplicated DME and GNSS or single
DME and single GNSS
duplicated LOC, G/P, VOR, DME and GNSS receivers
duplicated LOC and G/P receivers but only one VOR, DME and GNSS receiver
duplicated LOC, G/P receivers, but only one VOR and ME receiver
duplicated LOC, G/P, and VOR receivers and duplicated DME and GNSS or single
DME and single GNSS
In the event of a NDB failure of an ILS, aircraft must join the ILS ?
outside the middle marker as directed by ATC or NOTAM
outside the outer marker as directed by ATC or NOTAM
inside the IAF as directed by ATC or NOTAM
between the outer marker and middle marker as directed by ATC or NOTAM
outside the outer marker as directed by ATC or NOTAM
The holder of an Instrument Rating is taken to have a valid instrument proficiency check for the
relevant aircraft during the following period ?
if the holder is successfully participating in an operator’s approved cyclic training and
proficiency program that covers IF operations in the relevant aircraft - the period
ending 12 months after the holder concludes participating in the program
if the holder passes the flight test for the instrument rating in a relevant aircraft - the
period from when the holder passes the flight test to the end of the 12th month after
the month in which the holder passes the flight test
if the holder successfully completes an instrument proficiency check for the relevant
aircraft - the period from when the holder successfully completes the check to the
end of the 6th month after the month in which the holder successfully completes the
check
if the holder passes the flight test for an instrument endorsement in a relevant
aircraft and the flight test is conducted more than 3 months after the holder passes
the flight test for the rating - the period from when the holder passes the flight test
for the endorsement to the end of the 15th month after the month in which the
holder passes the flight test for the endorsement
if the holder passes the flight test for the instrument rating in a relevant aircraft - the
period from when the holder passes the flight test to the end of the 12th month after
the month in which the holder passes the flight test
Regarding aircraft safety precautions during felling operations ?
all engines, including any auxiliary power units (APU’S) must be stopped, with their
ignition switches in the off position
APUs may be operated without any special conditions
engines and APUs may be operated without any special conditions
APUs must be started prior to fulling operations, and the flight manual instructions
must permit the APU to be operated during fuelling
APUs must be started prior to felling operations, and the flight manual instructions
must permit the APU to be operated during fuelling.
Q11 The holder of an instrument rating is authorised to conduct an azimuth guidance operation only if
the holder has ?
in the previous 90 days has conducted an azimuth guidance operation in an aircraft
or an approved flight simulation training device for the purpose
in the previous 120 days has conducted an azimuth guidance operation in an aircraft
or an approved flight simulation training device for the purpose
in the previous 90 days has conducted an azimuth guidance or course deviation
indicator operation in an aircraft or an approved flight simulation training device for
the purpose
in the previous 90 days had conducted 2D instrument approach in an aircraft or an
approved flight simulation training device for the purpose
in the previous 90 days has conducted an azimuth guidance operation in an aircraft
or an approved flight simulation training device for the purpose
Before take-off, the pilot in command must complete checks to ensure that ?
the wings, control surfaces, propellers, vertical and horizontal stabilisers are
completely free from frost, snow and ice
control locks, covers and ground safety devices and restraints have been removed
the flight controls are available to their full limit of travel
aircraft hatches, access ports, panels and fuel tank caps are secured
all of the above
All of the above
When a radio equipped aircraft is operated in controlled airspace under radio voice control by ATC
the pilot in command must ?
ensure that a listening watch is maintained at all times by a flight crew member
continuously monitor the ATC frequency while in that airspace
not maintain a listening watch on more than one frequency at any one time
regularly check radio operation by requesting a signal check at time intervals not
exceeding 30 minutes
continuously monitor the ATC frequency while in that airspace
The aircraft exempt from the requirement to carry an approved Emergency Locator Transmitte
(ELT) that is in working order are/is ?
aircraft operating within 50 nm of its place of departure
single seat aircraft
an aircraft on a flight related to its manufacture
an aircraft on a delivery flight following its purchase
all of the above
all of the above
Q15
The frequency or frequencies approved ELT’s fitted to multi-engine aircraft operating over land must
transmit on are ?
406 MHz and 121.5 MHZ
243 MHZ
121.5 and 243 MHz
121.1 or 243 MHz
406 MHz and 121.5 MHZ
Concerning carriage of animals on a flight in an aircraft under CAR 121 ?
use the procedure specified in the operators exposition
carry assistance animals in the passenger cabin on moisture absorbent mattin
put cats in unpressurised unheated cargo compartments with a blanket
oxygen mask
sedate any animals before loading to reduce stress on the animal
use the procedure specified in the operators exposition
The minimum aeronautical experience requirements for the issue of an ATPL (aeroplane) is ?
1500 hours including 750 hours as pilot of a registered or recognised aeroplane
made up of at least 70 hours PIC, 200 hours cross country, 75 hours instrument
flight time and 100 hours night PIC flight time
1500 hours including 750 hours as pilot of a registered or recognised aeroplane
made up of at least 500 hours in command, 100 hours cross country, 75 hours
instrument flight time and 75 hours night flight time
1500 hours including 1000 hours as pilot of a registered or recognised aeroplane
made up of at least 500 hours in command, 100 hours cross country, 175 hours
instrument flight time and 100 hours night flight time
1500 hours including 750 hours as pilot of a registered or recognised aeroplane
made up of at least 250 hours in command, 250 hours cross country, 100 hours
instrument flight time and 100 hours night flight time
1500 hours including 750 hours as pilot of a registered or recognised aeroplane
made up of at least 70 hours PIC, 200 hours cross country, 75 hours instrument
flight time and 100 hours night PIC flight time
To apply for an ATPL (aeroplane) a person must ?
be at least 21 years of age, hold a commercial or multi crew pilot (aeroplane)
licence, complete the flight training and pass the flight test for the ATPL, hold a pass
in the ATPL (aeroplane) theory examination(s), complete an approved course in
multi-crew cooperation and meet the minimum aeronautical experience
be at least 18 years of age, hold a commercial pilot (aeroplane) licence, hold a
current command instrument rating, hold an initial twin-engine aircraft endorsement,
hold a pass in the ATPL (aeroplane) theory examination(s) and meet the minimum
aeronautical experience
be at least 21 years of age, hold a commercial pilot (aeroplane) licence, hold a
current command multi-engine instrument rating hold a pass in the ATPL (aeroplane)
theory examination(s), hold an initial turbine engine aircraft endorsement and meet
the minimum aeronautical experience
be at least 18 years of age, hold a flight radiotelephone operator licence, hold a
commercial pilot (aeroplane) licence, hold a
current command multi-engine
instrument rating hold a pass in the ATPL (aeroplane) theory examination(s) and
meet the minimum aeronautical experience and hold a valid medical certificate
appropriate to the licence
be at least 21 years of age, hold a commercial or multi crew pilot (aeroplane)
licence, complete the flight training and pass the flight test for the ATPL, hold a pass
in the ATPL (aeroplane) theory examination(s), complete an approved course in
multi-crew cooperation and meet the minimum aeronautical experience
The aircraft required to be equipped with an approved and serviceable public address system are ?
any aircraft with a passenger seating capacity of 15 seats or more
passenger air transport operations under CAR Part 121
a charter or PT aircraft with a passenger seating capacity of 15 seats or more
any aircraft with a passenger seating capacity of 10 seats or more
passenger air transport operations under CAR Part 121
Multi-engine land aircraft on over water flights are required to carry life jackets (or infant flotation
devices) for each occupant for ?
only operations carrying more than nine passengers
only air transport operations
all flights beyond 50 nm from an area of land that is suitable for a forced landing
all passenger air transport operations when the aeroplane is flown further over water
than the distance from which with an engine inoperative, the aeroplane could reach
an area of land which is suitable for a forced landing
all flights beyond 50 nm from an area of land that is suitable for a forced landing
all passenger air transport operations when the aeroplane is flown further over water
You are ready to start in a F27 but notice the fuel tanker is parked 50 m directly behind you,
preparing to fuel another aircraft. Concerning ground operations ?
you may not start
you may start, but cannot apply power to taxi until the tanker has moved
you may start and taxi as normal provided the tanker is manned or its wheels are
chocked
you may start and taxi as normal provided the tanker is not refueling another aircraft
the tanker causes no limitations to your operation, provided your operation creates
no hazard to any other aircraft, persons or property
the tanker causes no limitations to your operation, provided your operation creates
no hazard to any other aircraft, persons or property
The types of CAR Part 135 operations which require the provision of printed safety cards to
supplement the oral pre-flight briefing for passengers are ?
all operations in an aircraft with more than 4 rows of seats
all passenger air transport operations in an aircraft with more than 2 rows of seats
all operations in an aircraft with a seating capacity of more than 9
all operations in a multi-engined aircraft with a seating capacity of more than 8
all passenger air transport operations in an aircraft with more than 2 rows of seats
An IFR aircraft conducting other than low-visibility operations must not continue an approach
land below 1000 ft AGL at an aerodrome served by ATS with a published IAP for which VR repor
are available for the IAPs to the relevant runway ?
where the TDZ VR is reported by ATC as continually less than the landing minin
for the IAP
where any controlling zone VR is reported by ATC as continually less than tI
landing minima for the IAP
where the END VR is reported as less than 75 m
where the TDZ VR is reported by ATC as continually less than 50 m above t
landing minima for the IAP
where the TDZ VR is reported by ATC as continually less than the landing minima
for the IAP
The documents required in relation to international passenger air transport operations under CASR
Part 121, include passenger lists ?
which are not required for medical transport operations
which must be carried in the aircraft and also readily available to the operator on the
ground
which must be available to the operator on the ground during flight, but which are
not required to be carried on board
which are only required to be carried when the maximum certificated passenger
capacity of the aircraft exceeds 20 passengers
which must be carried in the aircraft and also readily available to the operator on the
ground
Concerning the carriage of cargo in an aircraft carrying passengers ?
cargo may never obstruct an emergency exit
galley equipment may never obstruct an aisle
cargo may never be carried on an unoccupied seat
cargo must not be carried in a place where it may obstruct any equipment that is
essential to the safe operation of the aircraft
cargo must not be carried in a place where it may obstruct any equipment that is
essential to the safe operation of the aircraft
Q28
The minimum number of cabin crew required for CAR Part 121 operations in an F28 carrying 85
adult passengers is ?
one
three
two
four
Two
CAR part 121 requirements for 3 yearly cabin crew training includes ?
training covering the procedures for the stowage of articles in the cabin and for
turbulence
training covering post-accident survival techniques on land and water and the use of
related survival equipment
realistic simulation of scenarios covering cabin decompression and firefighting
a practical firefighting exercise using all the firefighting equipment for the crew
members duties on the aeroplane, including donning and use of protective clothing
and protective breathing equipment
a practical firefighting exercise using all the firefighting equipment for the crew
members duties on the aeroplane, including donning and use of protective clothing
and protective breathing equipment
A piston-engined aircraft, operating under CASR part 135 after 2 December 2023 must be fitted
with ?
GPWS if above 5700 kg MTOW under IFR or VFR at night
GPWS or TAWS-Class A
TAWS- Class-A or TAWS-Class B
GPWS or airborne weather radar equipment
Q31 The performance required for multi-engined aircraft to satisfy en route obstacle clearance when in
cruise in IMC under the IF as a CASR part 135 operation is met if ?
with an engine inoperative and the remaining engine within maximum continuous
power limitations, the aircraft can achieve a climb gradient of 1% up to 5000 ft
Pressure Altitude
with an engine inoperative and the remaining engine within maximum continuous
power limitations, the aircraft can operate at a height not lower than LSALT/MSA
with an engine inoperative and the remaining engine within maximum continuous
power limitations, the aircraft can maintain height at all heights up to 5000 ft in the
standard atmosphere
with an engine inoperative and the remaining engine within maximum continuous
power limitations, the aircraft can achieve a climb gradient of 4.5% up to 5000 ft
Pressure Altitude
with an engine inoperative and the remaining engine within maximum continuous
power limitations, the aircraft can operate at a height not lower than LSALT/MSA
Single-engine aeroplanes below 8618 kg MTOW, conducting air transport operations carrying more
than 9 passengers ?
must be crewed by at least 2 pilots if flown under the IFR
must be flown under the IFR
may be flown under the VFR at night
must be crewed by at least 2 pilots under either VFR or IFR
must be crewed by at least 2 pilots if flown under the IFR
033 In addition to specific flight manual requirements, the types of operations which require aircraft
under 8618 kg MOW to be fitted with pilot intercommunication equipment consisting of a headset
and microphone that is not hand held are ?
all VFR single pilot operations
all VFR operations
all air transport operations
all operations in piston single-engined aircraft
all air transport operations
Q34
Which of the following CAR Part 135 operations would be permitted in an aircraft which was not
equipped with a serviceable two axis (roll and pitch) automatic pilot with heading mode and altitude
hold?
single pilot operations under the IFR
single pilot operations under the VFR by night
2 crew operations under the VFR or IFR
2 crew operations under the VFR only
2 crew operations under the VFR or IFR
The minimum horizontal distance from cloud which must be maintained by an aircraft which is using
radio while cruising at 2500 ft AMSL VFR in Glass G airspace is ?
clear of cloud
1000 m
2000 m
1500 m
Clear of cloud
Q36
Regarding the operation under CAR Part 135 of an aircraft required to be fitted with a cockpit
voice recorder (CVR) with the CVR unserviceable ?
the aircraft may be operated only on test flights for a period not exceeding 21 days
the aircraft may be operated only on test flights for a period not exceeding 24 hours
the aircraft may not be operated
the CVR may not be inoperative for more than 21 days, the aircraft may not depart
an aerodrome which has the facilities to replace the unit, and there must be one FDR
or CVR (or combination recorder) operative
the CVR may not be inoperative for more than 21 days, the aircraft may not depart
an aerodrome which has the facilities to replace the unit, and there must be one FDR
or CVR (or combination recorder) operative
037
The maximum level at which any aircraft is permitted to operate without being required to carry a
cosmic radiation dose rate indicator and total dose indicator displaying cosmic radiation received in
the aeroplane’s cabin is ?
FL460
FL490
FL410
FL500
FL490
Q38 Refer to CAO 48.1 Instrument 2019 appendix 2. The maximum cumulative duty accrued by an FCM
in any consecutive 14 day period must not exceed?
60 hours
100 hours
120 hours
132 hours
100 hours
Refer to CAO 48.1 Instrument 2019 appendix 2. The cumulative flight time accrued by an FCM
during any consecutive 365-day period must not exceed ?
1200 hours
800 hours
1000 hours
900 hours
1000 hours
The qualifications and experience required for a pilot to be qualified to act as Pilot in Command of a
CAR Part 121 operation is ?
the flying experience specified in the operator’s exposition, successful completion of
the operator’s command training for that aeroplane, and suitable licencing under
CAR 61 to authorise the pilot to act as pilot in command of the flight
1000 hours
1500 hours and an ATPL
20000 hours and one orbit aboard either SpaceX Crew Dragon or Soyuz
the flying experience specified in the operator’s exposition, successful completion of
the operator’s command training for that aeroplane, and suitable licencing under
CAR 61 to authorise the pilot to act as pilot in command of the flight
Refer to CAO 48.1 Instrument 2019 appendix 2.
A FCM is to operate a flight consisting of 4 sectors for an AC holder engaged in multi pilot public
transport service operations. The operation is not augmented crew. For an acclimatised time at the
start of an FDP of 0815, an acclimatised FM must not be assigned a flight time longer than ?
11.5 hours
12.5 hours
10.5 hours
13 hours
10.5 hours
