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Dash 8 Q300/200 > FCOM > Flashcards

FCOM Flashcards

1
Q

Min gate speeds 300 ?

A 
Holding and cruise : 160kts 
Flap 0 selected : 155kts
Flap 5: 145kts
Flap 10: 135kts
Flap 15: Vref or Vref ICE
Flap 15 selected for Flap 35 landing: Vref ice flap 35+15kts
Flap 35: Vref or Vref ice
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2
Q

Min gate speeds 200 ?

A 
Flap 0: 140kts
Flap 5: 130kts
Flap 15: Vref or Vref ice 
Flap 15 selected for flap 35 landing:  Vref ice flap 35 +15kts
Flap 35: Vref or Vref ice
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3
Q

Prior to initially selecting flaps what must the pilot monitoring do ?

A

Must visually confirm that the INCR REF SPEED switch and state if it’s on

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4
Q

Type one climb?

A

Hi speed 205 kts Up to 10,000 feet every 1000 feet after that it reduces by 5kts

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5
Q

Type 2 climb ?

A

170kts To 15,000 feet every 1000 feet after that it reduces by3 KTS

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6
Q

Type three climb?

A

135 kts

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7
Q

When do we use a climb speed of 150kts ?

A

Night or IMC operations until above MSA

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8
Q

When the cabin crew commence their duties The pitch attitude in the climb must be below what?

A

10°

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9
Q

Climb torque is scheduled for a given propeller RPM using what ?

A

Climb Torque cards

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10
Q

When can we turn the fasten belts sign off ?

A

Once clear of any anticipated turbulence and above 1000ft AGL

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11
Q

If climb checks and transition come at the same time what do you do first ?

A

Transition then climb checks

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12
Q

Reasonable indications of cabin pressurisation if we take off from sea level ?

A

Difference of 4PSI, Cabin Alt 2000ft, rate less than 500

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13
Q

Prior to setting 900np in the climb checks, what must the FO do ?

A

Syncrophase off and then on once condition levers have been set

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14
Q

When do we do a fuel check ?

A

Once established at cruise power. Then hourly and not less than once per flight.

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15
Q

What to brief with any hold ?

A

TSAFE

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16
Q

On completion of a hold the PF will direct the pilot monitoring to do what?

A

Proceed or DTO an appropriate waypoint

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17
Q

When do you get the cabin crew to prepare the cabin for landing?

A

Flight level 200 on decent Or two minutes prior to TOD

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18
Q

What do we say when preparing the cabin for landing ?

A

Cabin crew prepare cabin for landing

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19
Q

What must you do if you have a change to flap settings after the descent checks and checklist?

A

The change must be briefed, the speed bags must be reset, Decent checklist must be re-completed, Must be completed prior to IAF

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20
Q

What must be completed prior to doing the approach checklist?

A

Cabin preparation completed and fasten belts notices on.

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21
Q

How soon before starting an instrument app OCTA must you get an QNH ?

A

15mins

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22
Q

Company minima for 2D approaches with vertical guidance?

A

MDA +50 feet

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23
Q

Company minima 2D approach without vertical guidance?

A

MDA

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24
Q

Minimum altitude for circling?

A

1000ft HAA or MDA for circling which ever is greater.

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25
Q

Once received the landing clearance what must the pilot monitoring do?

A

Taxi light on and flare path light on

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26
Q

What’s the acceleration alt on a missed app, Instrument and Visual ?

A

Instrument: DA/CM/MDA
Visual: Runway elevation +1000ft

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27
Q

At below what speed can we not use reverse thrust ?

A

60kts

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28
Q

When can we start to do single engine taxi ?

A

On landing and below 25kts

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29
Q

Total number of occupants 300 and 200 ?

A

61 and 45

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30
Q

MZFW,MRW,MBRW,MLW 300 ?

A

17917, 19595,19505,19051

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31
Q

MRW,MBRW,MLW,MZFW 200 series ?

A

16556,16466,15650,14696

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32
Q

Manoeuvring limits ?

A

Flap retracted +2.5G And -1G

Flap extended +2.0G and -0.0G

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33
Q

Maximum operating altitude take off and landing?

A

10,000 feet

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34
Q

Ambient temperature limits?

A

+48.9° or ISA +35 Which ever is lower

-54°C

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35
Q

Maximum operating runway slope?

A

+/ -2%

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36
Q

Crosswind and tailwind Maximum components dry runway?

A

36 kts Crosswind

10 kts tailwind

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37
Q

Contaminated runway crosswind limit?

A

14 kts

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38
Q

Compacted snow crosswind limit?

A

20 kts

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39
Q

Narrow runway crosswind limit and tailwind limit?

A

20 kts crosswind limit and 10kt tailwind limit

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40
Q

Maximum taxi speeds wide runway?

A

25 kts in a straight line and 15 kts in turns

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41
Q

Taxi speed limit narrow runways?

A

15 kts in a straight line and 10 kts during turns

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42
Q

VMO 300 and 200?

A

300 equals 243 and the 200 equals 242

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43
Q

Maximum manoeuvering speed 300?

A

177 kts

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44
Q

Maximum manoeuvering speed 200 series?

A

164 kts

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45
Q

Turbulence penetration speed 200 and 300?

A

300 series equals 190 and the 200 series equals 180

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46
Q

Flap extension speeds limits 300 series?

A

163, 154, 150, 138

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47
Q

Maximum flap Extension speed 200 series?

A

148, 148, 130

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48
Q

VLO for 200 and 300 series?

A

163 for 300 and 158 for 200

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49
Q

Maximum landing gear extended speed?

A

173 for the 300 series and 172 for the 200 series.

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50
Q

Alternate gear extension speed?

A

140 kts

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51
Q

Maximum tire speed?

A

165kts

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52
Q

Maximum air start altitude?

A

20,000 feet

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53
Q

MTOP Torque limit 300 ?

A

105.5%

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54
Q

NTOP Torque limit 300 ?

A

92.0%

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55
Q

MCP torque limit 300 ?

A

90% for 1212np and 96% for <1125np

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56
Q

Maximum starting temps for 300 ?

A

840 -900 is 12 seconds 900-950 is 5 seconds.

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57
Q

Maximum reverse torque 300 ?

A

90%

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58
Q

MTOP max 200 ?

A

111%

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59
Q

NTOP 200 ?

A

99.5%

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60
Q

MCP 200 ?

A

97.5% for 1212np and 114.2% for <1024np

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61
Q

Maximum propeller rpm?

A

1212

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62
Q

Maximum fuel temperature?

A

+57° and + 11°

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63
Q

Auxiliary tank usable capacity?

A

4566 lbs

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64
Q

Flight crew oxygen Dispatch pressure?

A

1300 psi

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65
Q

First aid bottle dispatch pressure?

A

1100 psi

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66
Q

Passenger supplemental oxygen bottle dispatch?

A

1800 psi

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67
Q

Normal cabin pressure differential?

A

5.5 +/-,0.3

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68
Q

Maximum Cabin differential?

A

5.95

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69
Q

Maximum cabin altitude pressurised flight?

A

8000 feet

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70
Q

APU temperature limits?

A

+48.9°C or ISA +35 which ever is lower

-43°C

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71
Q

Minimum height auto pilot on approach?

A

200 feet all engines operating and 1000 feet single engine.

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72
Q

Minimum auto pilot engagement height?

A

1000 feet AGL

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73
Q

DC generators max load on the ground?

A

0.7

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74
Q

A.c. generators max load on the ground?

A

Below 10° it’s 1.0 above 10°it’s 0.33

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75
Q

When can you exceed the DC generator maximum load?

A

On the ground for battery starts less than one minute.

76
Q

Suggested flow for Fly the aircraft of FDODAR ?

A 
Auto pilot or hand fly
Speed gear flap
Power management 
Configuration required 
Automation
Icing 
Min speed and MSA 
Fuel
77
Q

Minimum height to conduct non-normal actions?

A

400 feet AGL

78
Q

What do we have to do prior to engaging the AP in a engine failure ?

A

Trim the aircraft

79
Q

The FD GA selection will provide what during OEI

A

Approximate pitch required for V2

80
Q

If a positive rate of climb cannot be achieved in a engine failure in the missed app what might you have to do ?

A

Feather the propeller prior to selecting gear up.

81
Q

What’s some examples of reasons to reject between 70kts and V1?

A

Master warning, engine failure, directional issues or any issues in which the captain deems the aircraft is unsafe to fly.

82
Q

Which EGPWS warnings must you conduct the terrain avoidance procedure?

A

Too low terrain
Terrain pull-up
Obstacle pull-up
Pull up

83
Q

What EGPWS call outs will make the crew perform an immediate go around to a safe altitude ?

A 
Too low flaps
Too low gear 
Sink rate 
Terrain terrain 
Caution terrain 
Caution obstacle
84
Q

“Don’t sink” action required from the crew ?

A

Immediate climb

85
Q

“Bank angle” action required from the crew ?

A

Take appropriate action to correct the unsafe condition.

86
Q

“Glide slop” action required by the crew ?

A

Acknowledge the alert, take appropriate action to correct and insure stable approach criteria is meet.

87
Q

When must you conduct the high angle of attack recovery ?

A 
Activation of the stick shaker 
Unusual airframe buffet
Uncommanded wing drop
Activation of the stick pusher
Fast/slow indicator at slow
88
Q

Examples of aircraft upset positions ?

A

Pitch attitude greater than 25° nose up
Pitch attitude greater than 10° nose down
Bank angle greater than 45 degrees
Anything if flown at an unsafe airspeed

89
Q

FMS entries or changes must be done by the PM when ?

A

Below 10,000ft
Manual flight
Whenever requested by the PF

90
Q

What precautions should you take if you think you may encounter wind shear on T/O ?

A

Use the longest RWY into wind
Don’t use RTOP
Use flap 5 if possible
Delay rotate until 1000ft before the end of the RWY

91
Q

Stabilised approach altitude if wind shear on App ?

A

700ft minimum

92
Q

When to initiate the wind shear recovery procedure ?

A 
Uncontrolled changes in excess of 
15kts indicated airspeed 
500ft vertical speed 
5 degrees of pitch change 
1 dot deviation of glide slope 
Unusual power lever position for extended period
93
Q

TCAS computer assumes that corrective action takes place how long after a RA ?

A

5 seconds

94
Q

The airframe de icing boots must be activated when ?

A

At the first sign of ice accumulation

Must be operated until ice formation is no longer visible (300) or clear of icing (200)and after 2 complete cycles

95
Q

Lowest altitude that you can turn on the de ice boots ?

A

400ft and at the first sign of ice accumulation.

96
Q

For PRM how should your comms be setup when asked to contact the tower ?

A

Tower on comm 1

PRM monitoring frequency comm2

97
Q

During a engine fire on the ground what do each of the pilots do ?

A

One who is assigned by the captain will run the on the ground engine fire immediate actions

The other will advise the need for emergencies services
Number of people on board
Amount of fuel onboard

98
Q

The return to land checklist must not be used when ?

A

The fasten belts sign has been turned off
Flight has continued above 10,000ft
Diversion to the departure point or alternate has been flown.

99
Q

When using external batteries to power the aircraft, what should be done With the main, Auxillary and battery master switch?

A

Turned off until ready to start the engine.To preserve battery life in the main and Auxillary batteries

100
Q

How do we start the aircraft using external batteries?

A

Start one engine first, once the propeller is unfeathered And after 30 seconds with also the battery load less than 0.4 you may start the second engine.

101
Q

If the external battery voltage is less than 24 V can we use it to start the engines?

A

No the external battery should be removed and the engine should be started using internal batteries.

102
Q

Where do we find information on doing an internal battery start?

A

FCOM Supplemental procedures

103
Q

What power source should be used when disembarking the aircraft?

A

The main power source used should be a ground power unit. If a ground power unit is not available then use APU or battery cart. Only if none of the sources of power are available should the passengers be disembarked using internal batteries alone.

104
Q

If an aircraft is left unattended with the ground power unit on what must you do?

A

Turn the main, Auxillary and battery master switch off. Also switch off the emergency lighting And battery bus lighting.

105
Q

Can we leave the aircraft unattended with the APU running?

A

No, the aircraft must be attended with the battery switches on.

106
Q

At night with the electrical system powered what lights must be on?

A

The position lights.

107
Q

How can we assist with avionics cooling?

A

Leave the re circulating fans on If the electrical system is on.

108
Q

Minimum voltage requirement for starting the engines?

A

There is no minimum voltage specified for starting the engines. But if the voltage is below 23.0 Then the start should be closely monitored for any signs of a Hung start

109
Q

What must you do if the starter motor stays engaged?

A

Main buses must be De powered by turn off all DC and A/C generators including the APU, external power and the main battery. Essential power will remain to disembark the passengers.

110
Q

Failure of the ECU will results in what?

A

1 or 2 engine manual caution light illuminates. An increase in engine TQ as much as 10% but usually around 4-5% will be seen.

111
Q

When taxing FMS entries are done by who?

A

The first officer after being confirmed by the captain.

112
Q

Data entries or changes to the flight plan must be conducted by the PM when ?

A

Below 10,000 feet, in manual flight and whenever the pilot flying says so

113
Q

When below MSA or ROUTE LSA, FMS entries are limited to what?

A

In IMC conditions or when visual circling below the VMC conditions – Procedures necessary for the conduction of visual approaches i.e. activate approach

In Day VMC DTO function to a waypoint that is already in the flight plan.

114
Q

Can the pilot flying use the DTO function above 10,000 feet?

A

Yes once confirmation from the pilot monitoring has occurred.

115
Q

VNAV Maximum descent angles?

A

En route and terminal modes equals 6° approach mode equals 4° maximum

116
Q

When does the NAV data expire on the FMS?

A

1600 UTC the day prior to the date shown on the FMS start-up page.

117
Q

En-route lateral deviation scale EHSI?

A

5nm for two dots

118
Q

Terminal deviation scale of the EHSI?

A

One nautical mile per two dots

119
Q

Approach EHSI lateral deviation scale sensitivity?

A

2 degrees for 2 dot CDI deflection until 2 dots becomes equal to 0.3nm then its 0.3 nm for two dot deflection.

120
Q

What must you input into the FMS if you have an engine failure ?

A

0 into the fuel flow for the failed engine. This will allow for more accurate fuel monitoring.

121
Q

Definition of Turbulence?

A

Air that produces significant changes in altitude and airspeed.

122
Q

Aircraft preparation for severe turbulence?

A

Secure loose items,Switch the ignition to auto or manual,Turn the seatbelt sign on and use the passenger address system to warn passengers and crew.

123
Q

Minimum recommended speed in turbulence?

A

150 kts

124
Q

Can we use the auto pilot for severe turbulence?

A

No.

125
Q

Representative surface for ice accumulation?

A

Outboard roll spoiler left wing.

126
Q

Can we de ice with the APU running?

A

Yes as long as the APU bleed it is turned off.

127
Q

Severe icing maybe determined by what?

A

Ice accumulation on areas of the aircraft that usually don’t Accrue ice or on areas of the side windows aft of the Forward Edge.

128
Q

When the ice protection is on during taxi,when must the ice protection be turned off?

A

Once the aircraft has come to a stop but before the propellers are feathered.

129
Q

Severe Icing encounter procedure?

A 
Auto pilot disconnect
Condition leavers Max
Power levers adjust up to max continuous power
Minimum airspeed 160 kts
Exit icing conditions
130
Q

When can we assume that the aircraft is no longer in severe icing conditions?

A

When ice that has accumulated on the side windows is cleared.

131
Q

Airport requirements for LAHSO?

A

Taxi holding positions in accordance with Jepps ATC
Where the runway intersection is not clearly visible Distance to go Markings
Taxi and holding position signs Other than that at the taxiway and runway intersections
Hold short lights six bulbs

132
Q

If the APU fails to start how long between the starts should be waited?

A

Five minutes

133
Q

When in the vicinity of other traffic and levelling off what should we be thinking about ?

A

Reducing rate of climb or decent to less than 1500fpm in the last 1000ft of levelling off to avoid nuisance RAs

134
Q

With exception of spool up during start, oil pressure below what requires a shutdown ?

A

40Psi

135
Q

When you have a fuselage fire smoke or fumes incident and the autopilot is not engaged what happens ?

A

The PM will don their oxygen mask first and then the PF.

136
Q

If during an Engine failure the engine is still producing power, what must the PM ensure when moving the power lever ?

A

Move it slowly to prevent excessive yaw.

137
Q

During a emergency decent, the decent rate may be reduced once below what altitude?

A

FL140

138
Q

Maximum load of TRUs on ground and in flight ?

A

1.0 for both.

139
Q

When do we select the ignition to manual in the 200 and VH-SBB ?

A

In conditions of turbulence, icing, or heavy participation.

140
Q

How often does a tyre check need to be completed ?

A

Once every calendar day. It needs to have an ambient check done once every 12 days.

141
Q

Can we defer a tyre check ?

A

There is a one sector deferral that can be applied to get the aircraft back from an outport if the tyre check expires.

142
Q

Who puts in the flight plan and the flight number ?

A

The PF

143
Q

TRU output ?

A

25-29.5V

144
Q

TRU under/over volt relay ?

A

<18->29.5V

145
Q

INV output ?

A

115V fixed AC

146
Q

XFMR output ?

A

26V AC 400Hz

147
Q

When there is a TCAS data tag what does that mean ?

A

Rate of climb or decent greater than 500FPM

148
Q

When is the EGPWS RA Inhibited ?

A

> 2450

149
Q

How to EGPWS short test ?

A

Hold 2 seconds

150
Q

What does the rate knob at the detent mean ?

A

300fpm ROD 500FPM ROC

151
Q

What does the rate knob fully right give you ?

A

2500fpm climb and 1500fpm decent

152
Q

Flight crew decompression and emergency oxygen time ?

A

120 mins and 15 mins

153
Q

Boot cycle time ?

A

36 s

154
Q

When do the boot advisory lights switch on ?

A

> 15.5psi

155
Q

What triggers T/O Warning horn ?

A 
Park brake set 
Trim not in T/O range 
Power levers >50%tq
Condition levers not in max 
Flaps set to <5 or >15 
ECU not in top.
156
Q

RAS system what does Auto mean ?

A

The door is locked but the emergency unlock is still available.

157
Q

Once the code has been entered into the RAS system when does the door unlock ?

A

30s and stays unlocked for 15s

158
Q

What’s the RAS system powered by ?

A

R essential bus.

159
Q

If you lose power to the RAS what should you do ?

A

The system will automatically unlock the door. Should then use the deadbolt to lock the door.

160
Q

What happens if door jams ?

A

QRH checklist removes the hinges from door.

161
Q

If door is locked by ground key, can the RAS system unlock door ?

A

No.

162
Q

If the door shuts in the DENY position without anyone in the flight deck, how do you open the door ?

A

Only way to access the flight deck is to depower the aircraft.

163
Q

What connects the Right main bus to the main battery?

A

Main battery switch

164
Q

What does the Auxiliary battery switch do ?

A

Connect the Auxiliary battery to the left main bus.

165
Q

What’s the battery master switch do ?

A

Connects the batteries to the essential buses

166
Q

When are the DC starter generators inhibited ?

A

Whenever the GPU is connected. Or the BBPU senses a fault.

167
Q

Does the APU inhibit the DC generators ?

A

No

168
Q

Where are the AC generators located ?

A

Propeller reduction gearbox.

169
Q

How many Amps per phase AC GENs ?

A

87A per phase.

170
Q

If starting with the GPU can you leave the APU bleed air on ?

A

Yes.

171
Q

Once the appropriate approach and flap setting has been established between the crew, what is the PM approach planning from there ?

A 
Landing weight - check 
Landing performance (distance MA Performance ) -check 
Pressurisation - set for destination 
TOLD Card- Complete 
FMS- Program approach 
TCAS 6nm/Below
172
Q

As PF what do we need to do if we have done a Missed App and we can use the return to land checklist ?

A

New ATIS if required
FMS verify App
Briefing complete
“Return to land checklist”

173
Q

If you inadvertently enter the incorrect information into the QL-2 who do you contact to correct it ?

A

ROC for the takeoff and landing times

Fleet tech for the shutdown fuel.

174
Q

Do alternate airports require approach slope guidance ?

A

Yes the slope guidance policy is for Both the destination and alternate airports.

175
Q

When is the aeroplane considered aerodynamically clean ?

A

When all ice is removed from the visible leading edges and wing tips

176
Q

If your taking off into icing conditions when does the ice protection get turned on ?

A

After start by the captain.

177
Q

If ice forms on the pilots side window what do you do ?

A

PLT/WDO/HT - ON select off when the ice has been removed.

178
Q

When holding in icing conditions the flaps must be set to ?

A

0 degrees

179
Q

How close are proximate traffic ?

A

Within 6nm and +/- 1200ft vertically.

180
Q

When must you turn onto a special engine failure heading that’s a VIA ?

A

Above 50ft AAL and not before the departure end of the runway.

181
Q

What are the immediate actions ?

A

On ground non normal
Engine fire on ground
Evacuation
APU fire
Oil pressure below 40PSI or #1 or #2 Engine oil pressure warning light or unscheduled propeller feathering
Propeller ground range advisory lights cycling
Roll control malfunction
Propeller over speed
Aileron trim runaway
Rudder jam
RUD 1 or RUD 2 PUSH OFF (switch light on)
#1 RUD HYD or #2 RUD HYD (caution light)
Rudder trim Actuator runaway.

182
Q

What’s FRMS ?

A

Fatigue risk management system

183
Q

What’s ODP ?

A

Off duty period

184
Q

What’s FDP ?

A

Flight duty period

185
Q

What’s UPRT ?

A

Upset prevention and recovery training.

186
Q

What’s SFIS ?

A

Surveillance flight information service

Dash 8 Q300/200 (74 decks)

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