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Dash 8 Q300/200 > IFR Cheat Sheet > Flashcards

IFR Cheat Sheet Flashcards

1
Q

VMC conditions class G airspace ?

A 
5km vis 
8km vis if above 10,000ft 
1500ft horizontally COC
1000ft vertically COC
When below 3000ft AMSL or 1000ft AGL can remain COC and insight of the surface or water
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2
Q

VMC conditions class D airspace ?

A

5km vis
600ft horizontally COC
1000ft above cloud
500ft below cloud

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3
Q

VMC conditions class C airspace ?

A

5km vis
8km when above 10,000ft
1500ft horizontally COC
1000ft vertically COC

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4
Q

What’s the acronym for suitable alternates ?

A

Alternates could very well prove life savers

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5
Q

Aid requirements for alternate ?

A

Must provide for alternate unless destination Aerodrome has two seperate Nav aids in which can be used, or 1 ground based Nav aid of which the aircraft has two receivers eg VOR1, VOR2

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6
Q

If the destination Aerodrome doesn’t have a navigation aid eg VOR/ILS/ADF in what WX conditions do we not need an alternate ?

A

Not more than SCT cloud below the final route segment LSALT +500ft and forecast visibility is greater than 8km

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7
Q

Cloud, Visibility and Wind alternate requirements ?

A

When ETA and up to 30mins prior the forecasted WX is below the following
More than SCT Cloud below the alternate minima
Visibility less than the alternate minima
wind greater than maximum for aircraft

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8
Q

Provisional or probability Alternate aerodromes ?

A

When an aerodrome forecast is provisional then a suitable alternate must be planned for. Also if there isa forecasted probability of conditions being below minima

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9
Q

Lighting when it comes to alternates ?

A

When aerodrome lighting is required and PAL is not being used. Arrangements must be made so that lighting is available on departure: 10mins prior to departure and at least 30mins after T/O Arrival: 30mins prior to ETA and up until the A/C has landed and taxing has been completed.

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10
Q

portable lighting when do you need an alternate ?

A

When a flight is planned to land at night at an aerodrome that has portable lighting unless arrangements are made for a responsible person to be in attendance, during the specified time period.

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11
Q

What if there is no standby power for the lights ?

A

Must hold an alternate unless arrangements mad for a responsible person to be in attendance with portable lighting.

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12
Q

Do we have to hold an alternate if the lighting is pilot activated ?

A

Yes unless arrangements made for responsible person to be in attendance to turn on the lights manually.

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13
Q

what types of lighting system must it be if RPT ?

A

lighting system which is not pilot activated or

PAL with someone present who can manually turn it on.

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14
Q

When thunderstorms or their associated severe turbulence is forecast at the destination aerodrome what must you do ?

A

Sufficient fuel to hold an alternate or to hold for 30 mins if its a INTER or 60mins if its a TEMPO

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15
Q

Altimeter checks prior to T/O ?

A

with accurate QNH set the altimeter should read nominated alt to within 60ft if in excess of +or - 75ft then the altimeter must be considered U/S

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16
Q

T/O minima for a qualifying multi-engine aeroplane ?

A

A ceiling of zero ft and visibility of 800m can be reduced to 550m under certain conditions.

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17
Q

Max airspeed hold ?

A

Above FL140 240kts

Below FL140 230kts

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18
Q

Timing for holds ?

A

Above FL140 1.5mins
Below FL140 1 min
Or specified on chart

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19
Q

When can we fly below the LSALT ?

A 
Don’t vector in very close 
DME or GNSS arrival 
Vectors 
Instrument app or holding 
Visual 
Climb after T/O
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20
Q

Descent below straight in MDA ?

A

VMC
Visual reference can be maintained
Minima requirements are adhered to
Continuously in a position where a landing can be made with normal rates of descent and manoeuvres.

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21
Q

During circling, decent below circling MDA can only happen when ?

A

VMC day obstacle night MDA
Visibility along flight path not less than specified minima for circling
Maintain visual contact with the landing environment
Inside the circling area
By day not below the minimum obstacle clearance
By night not below MDA until a constant rate of decent can be made with normal rates and manoeuvres

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22
Q

Cat C circling distance and required obstacle clearance ?

A

4.2nm and 400ft

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23
Q

Initial and intermediate app speeds Cat B ?

A

180-120kts

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24
Q

Max speed for reversal procedure Cat B ?

A

140kts

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25
Q

Final App speeds Cat B ?

A

85-130kts

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26
Q

Max speeds for circling cat B ?

A

135kts

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27
Q

Max speeds for missed App Cat B?

A

150kts

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28
Q

Instrument APP tolerances 2D App lateral path tracking ?

A

5 degrees of nominated track when using azimuth guidance
-/+ 1/2 scale deflection when using CDI indications
Within RNP value specified for the published minimum altitude
+/- 2nm of DME or GNSS arc

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29
Q

3D App lateral path tracking tolerances ?

A

Same as 2D for the lateral App tracking being used.

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30
Q

3D App vertical App path tolerances ?

A

1/2 Scale deflection or +/- 75ft for RNP baro VNAV procedures

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31
Q

Minimum altitudes for instrument Approaches tolerances ?

A

+100ft and -0ft of published MDA

Missed App not initiated below the published DA

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32
Q

Instrument App tolerances ILS ?

A

Flown to half scale deflection to maintain obstacle clearance
If at any time past the FAP you get full scale deflection then a missed app should be commenced.

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33
Q

Visual Approaches can be issued by ATC when (Day) ?

A

Within 30nm
Can maintain visual reference with the ground or water
Greater than 5km visibility

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34
Q

ATC can issue a visual app at night when ?

A

Within 30nm
Visual reference with ground or water
>5km visibility
Receiving an ATS surveillance assigned MVA and HDG or track instructions to intercept final or to position in the circling area

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35
Q

For a visual App, you must maintain your track until when Day and night ?

A 
(Day) within 5nm 
(Night) Within the circling area
or 5Nm established on the PAPis 
or 7NM on PAPI thats equiped with ILS
or 10NM established on the Glide slope
or 14NM RWY 16/34L Sydney.
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36
Q

For a visual App you can descend as necessary to what height day and night ?

A

Day- Not below 500ft above the LL of the CTA, Operate not below CAR 157
Night- Not less than the LSALT/MSA, DGA step or 500ft above the LL of the CTA or if receiving ATS Surveillance not below the last assigned alt until within circling area, 5nm on PAPIs, 7nm on PAPIs ILS RWY, 10nm on glide slope.

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37
Q

When can we conduct a visual app as pilot by day ?

A

Within 30nm
>5km vis or Aerodrome insight
Clear of cloud and insight of the ground or water
Not less than minimum for VFR until within the circling area

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38
Q

When can we conduct a visual app as pilot by night ?

A

Clear of cloud insight of the surface
5km visibility
Within the circling area or
5nm on PAPIs,7nm on PAPIs ILS RWY, 10nm on glide slope or 14nm at Sydney

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39
Q

When to conduct a missed App IFR ?

A

So Not Visual ROFL ?
Straight in landing cannot be effected unless a circling app can be conducted and weather is above specified minimum
Not visual when you reach DA/RA height or MAP
RAIM warning or loss of RAIM past the IAF
Outside tolerances for the final segment
Failure of the aid and below MSA
Lost visual reference when circling

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40
Q

How to cancel a distress signal ?

A

“CANCEL DISTRESS”

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41
Q

Indications by aircraft of communications failure in flight ?

A

Rocking your wings during the day

Flashing your landing light or switching off and on twice your navigation lights

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42
Q

What do you do if you have a comms failure in controlled airspace ?

A

Maintain terrain clearance at all times
Squawk 7600
Listen out on the ATIS or Verbal NavAids
Transmit blind intentions
If in VMC stay in VMC and land at suitable aerodrome
If IMC or VMC but unsure of maintaining VMC
If no clearance limit has been given proceed as cleared
If received a cleared altitude limit climb to limit or MSA if limit below MSA then maintain for 3 mins then proceed as cleared.
If received a hold then maintain for 3 mins and proceed as cleared.
If radar vectors maintain last assigned heading for 2mins then proceed as cleared
If in a hold then complete one more complete lap then proceed as per flight plan.

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43
Q

Speechless technique when replying to transmissions ?

A

1 transmission is affirmative
2 transmission is negative
3 is say again
5 is further emergency has occured
Continuous pilot intends to abandon aircraft
Hold for two seconds if request has been completed.

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44
Q

Bank angle for IFR approaches ?

A

25degrees or rate one whichever is less

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45
Q

25 and 10nm Sector altitudes give you how much terrain clearance ?

A

1000ft

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46
Q

When sequencing onto an app how much of a turn can we make ?

A

30 degrees if it’s not a GNSS app

Within the capture region of GNSS

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47
Q

Assumed missed app bank angle ?

A

15 degrees

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48
Q

What must a pilot ensure when using take off minima ?

A

That if a return to land at the departure aerodrome would be required following an engine failure that the Wx must be suitable for an app
If an engine failure is to occur at V1 then terrain clearance is assured until LSALT or MSA
And if a return to the departure aerodrome is not possible then the aircrafts performance and fuel is such that it can divert to a suitable alternate

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49
Q

FL110 is not available when QNH is below what ?

A

1013

50
Q

Control area protection class D airspace ?

A

Maintain 500 feet above the lower limit of the control steps that will provide a vertical buffer with aircraft operating in the adjoining airspace.

51
Q

Aircraft separation class D Airspace?

A

IFR flights are separated from other IFR and special VFR are flights. IFR Flights receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights.

52
Q

When a clearance has been issued to deviate from a cleared route the pilot must do what ?

A

Advise ATC once the deviation is no longer required or has been completed and is established back on it’s cleared route.

53
Q

Subject to Subpart 61.E and regulations 61.860 to 61.880, the holder of an
instrument rating is authorised to ?

A

pilot an aircraft:

(a) under the IFR; or
(b) at night under the VFR.

54
Q

Note 2. The pilot should maintain the maximum practical obstacle clearance when circling The minimum obstacle clearance
requirements are:
C

A

Categories A and B - 300FT;

Categories C and D - 400FT;

55
Q

A landing aircraft will not be permitted to cross the threshold of the runway on its final approach until ?

A

Is airborne, and has commenced a turn; or
- is beyond the point on the runway at which the landing aircraft could be expected to complete its landing roll and there is sufficient distance to maneuver safely in the event of a missed approach

56
Q

What’s the wake turbulence separation required in time following a departing super ?

A

3 mins from full length
4 mins from intersection departure.

57
Q

What’s the wake turbulence separation required in time following a departing heavy ?

A

2 mins from full length
3 mins from intersection departure.

58
Q

What’s the weight changeover for a medium to heavy aircraft?

A

136 Tonne

59
Q

Distance wake turbulence separation required for a Super ?

A

7nm

60
Q

Distance wake turbulence separation required for a Heavy ?

A

5nm

61
Q

TAF are a statement of meteorological conditions expected for a specified period in the air-space within a radius of ?

A

8km

62
Q

Airport category Sydney?

A

Category A

63
Q

WIND SHEAR — REPORTING controlled and non controlled airport ?

A

Wind shear encountered by aircraft should be reported by pilots to ATS as aircraft follow-ing may not have the performance required to recover from the same wind shear encounter. The wind shear may also be increasing in intensity, making flight through the wind shear more danger-ous for following traffic.

64
Q

If unable to obtain a clearance for a deviation and the pilot considers there is no safer alternative course of action ?

A

1) select code 7700;

2) broadcast an urgency message specifying details of the deviation on the appropriate ATC and emergency frequencies

65
Q

Holding on Runway ?

A

2.4.4.1 The pilot in command must obtain a clearance before holding on the runway in use

66
Q

Establishment on Track?

A

Unless tracking via a SID or otherwise instructed by ATC, a pilot in command must remain within 5NM of the departure aerodrome to establish flight on the departure track as soon as practicable after take-off

67
Q

When frequency change instructions are issued immediately preceding the take-off clearance, pilots must transfer automatically from Tower as soon as practicable after take-off, preferably within ?

A

one mile of becoming airborne

68
Q

2.12.6.2 A landing aircraft will not be permitted to cross the threshold of the runway on its final approach until ?

A

a. a preceding departing aircraft using the same runway:

(1) is airborne, and

– has commenced a turn; or

– is beyond the point on the runway at which the landing aircraft could be expected to complete its landing roll and there is sufficient distance to manoeuvre safely in the event of a missed approach

69
Q

Except as specified in ERSA for specific locations, an aircraft that is required to go around from a visual approach in VMC must ?

A

initially climb on runway track, remain visual and await instructions from ATC. If the aircraft can not clear obstacles on runway track, the aircraft may turn

70
Q

In the event that an aircraft is unable, or does not wish, to land from an instrument approach in VMC, the aircraft must ?

A

carry out the published instrument missed approach procedure for the instrument approach being flown, unless ATC directs otherwise

71
Q

Change from the tower frequency to the ground frequency (where established) when ?

A

vacating the runway strip, and obtain an ATC taxi instruction.

72
Q

Aircraft Deviations in Controlled Airspace - Advice to ATC when ?

A

where route or track guidance is provided by a localiser or

VOR - half scale deflection or more of the Course Deviation

Indicator (CDI);

b. where route or track guidance is provided by NDB - ±5° or more from the specified bearing;

c. where route or track guidance is provided by DME - ±2NM or more from the required arc;

d. where route or track guidance is provided by an area navigation system - when the aircraft cannot be maintained on the desired track plus/minus the prescribed RNP/RNAV value; and

e. when navigating by visual reference to the ground or water -more than 1NM from the cleared track

73
Q

Pilots of IFR flights operating outside controlled airspace who desire to establish communication with a non-ATS station and who will not be able to maintain a listening watch on the ATS frequency must ?

A

advise ATS of their further SAR requirements before making the frequency change.

74
Q

Locations Where LAHSO are Used ?

A

LAHSO can be implemented at aerodromes controlled by ATC that have suitable runway configurations, together with taxi markings, signs, runway markings, and lights in accordance with the standards in AD 1.1 paras 4.8.4, 4.12.1e, 4.13.1d and 5.10.9

75
Q

LAHSO aerodromes are indicated in ?

A

ERSA Aerodrome and Facilities section and/or Runway Distance Supplement (RDS) section by the inclusion in the aerodrome information of a table titled “LDA FOR LAHSO

76
Q

LAHSO are to be considered dependent procedures, with participating aircraft classified as either ?

A

a. active - when an aircraft is issued a hold short requirement

and is alerted about traffic on a crossing runway; or

b. passive - when an aircraft has unrestricted use of the full runway length and is alerted about traffic on a crossing runway

77
Q

Active participation in LAHSO is available to QantasLink pilots how ?

A

. pilots of Australian registered aircraft of performance category A, B or C where the pilot has been assessed as competent to conduct LAHSO by a person authorised to conduct LAHSO training

78
Q

Active participation in LAHSO is available to QantasLink pilots how ?

A

. pilots of Australian registered aircraft of performance category A, B or C where the pilot has been assessed as competent to conduct LAHSO by a person authorised to conduct LAHSO training

79
Q

How does ATC classify us if we are doing passive LAHSO ?

A

All pilots of Australian civil and military aircraft categories A, B

and C at pilot discretion

80
Q

A pilot must not accept a requirement to “HOLD SHORT” unless ? LAHSO?

A

they are qualified, has situation awareness, and has determined that the LDA is adequate for the prevailing conditions and the status of the aircraft

81
Q

Conditions for LAHSO ?

A

AIP ENR1.1-41

a. The wind for either the active or passive runway, including

gusts, does not exceed:

(1) 20KT crosswind;

(2) 5KT tailwind on a dry runway;

(3) no tailwind when the runway is not dry.

b. A simultaneous take-off and landing is permitted by day only.

c. Simultaneous landings are permitted by day and night.

d. The ceiling is not less than the minimum vectoring altitude (MVA) for the location where LAHSO are being conducted and visibility is not less than 8KM.

e. Visibility may be reduced to 5,000M where ATC are assured of sighting the aircraft prior to a loss of the surveillance standard.

82
Q

Pilot Advise of LAHSO Approval ?

A

Pilots of civil aircraft operating under a flight number callsign as advised in flight notification, and pilots of Australian military aircraft, may omit the words “LAHSO APPROVED

Pilots who elect to participate actively in LAHSO must obtain the ATIS broadcast as early as possible and if within 200NM of a destination where LAHSO is in progress, immediately advise ATC “LAHSO APPROVED

83
Q

What to do if you experience wind shear during LAHSO ?

A

When crews experience wind shear early advice to ATC is essential to ensure timely information is passed to subsequent aircraft.

84
Q

For operations in the Australian FIR, flight crews must report all flight level deviations of ?

A

of 300FT or more from the aircraft’s assigned level, irrespective of the cause of the deviation

85
Q

An aircraft is considered in the vicinity of a non-controlled aerodrome if it is within?

A

10NM of the aerodrome and at a height above the aerodrome that could result in conflict with operations at the aerodrome

86
Q

RECOMMENDED CALLS IN ALL CIRCUMSTANCES ?

A

The pilot intends to take-off Immediately before, or during taxiing

The pilot is inbound to an aerodrome 10NM from the aerodrome, or earlier, commensurate with aeroplane performance and pilot workload, with an estimated time of arrival (ETA) for the aerodrome

The pilot intends to fly through the vicinity of, but not land at, a non-controlled aerodrome

10NM from the aerodrome, or earlier, commensurate with aeroplane performance and pilot workload, with an estimated time of arrival

113

ENR 1.1 - 53 01 DEC 2022

87
Q

Aircraft should not be operated in the circuit at an indicated airspeed of more than?

A

200KT

88
Q

During the initial climb-out the turn onto crosswind should be made appropriate to the performance of the aircraft, but in any case not less than ?

A

500FT so as to be at circuit height when turning downwind.

89
Q

Pilots may vary the size of the circuit depending on ?

A

a. the performance of the aircraft;

b. safety reasons; or

c. in accordance with the Aircraft Flight Manual, Pilot’s Operating Handbook, or company Standard Operating Procedures

90
Q

An aircraft must not commence take-off until ?

A

a preceding departing aircraft using the same runway has:

(1) crossed the upwind end of the runway; or

(2) commenced a turn; or

(3) if the runway is longer than 1,800M, become airborne and is at least 1,800M ahead; or

. a preceding landing aircraft using the same runway, has vacated it and is taxiing away from the runway; or

c. a preceding aircraft, using another runway, has crossed or stopped short of the take-off aircraft’s runway

91
Q

A pilot of an IFR flight must report when changing to the CTAF when ?

A

the ATS frequency will not, or cannot be monitored. This report must include the aerodrome location and frequency

92
Q

Pilots of IFR flights conducting local training, an instrument approach, or a holding pattern, may extend their SARWATCH by ?

A

an “OPERATIONS NORMAL” call at scheduled times

93
Q

For aircraft arriving and intending to join the circuit from overhead, the aircraft should?

A

descend on the non-active side of the circuit and be established at its circuit altitude as it crosses the runway centreline on crosswind, at between midfield and the departure end of the runway

94
Q

When arriving on the live side, the recommended method is to ?

113

ENR 1.1 - 61 01 DEC 202

A

arrive at the circuit altitude entering midfield at approximately 45 degrees to the downwind leg while giving way to the aircraft already established in the circuit.

95
Q

In any case, the turn onto final should be completed by not less than ?
113

ENR 1.1 - 62 01 DEC 20

A

500FT above aerodrome elevation. This should allow sufficient time for pilots to ensure the runway is clear for landing. It will also allow for the majority of aircraft to be stabilised for the approach and landing.

96
Q

Pilots who choose to adopt a straight-in approach should only do so when ?

A

it does not disrupt or conflict with the flow of circuit traffic. CASR 91.395 (2)(b) requires that the pilot conducting a straight-in approach give way to any other aircraft established and flying in the circuit pattern at the aerodrome.

97
Q

When conducting a straight-in approach, the aircraft must be established on final at not less than?

A

3NM from the landing runway’s threshold CASR 91.395 (2)(c)

98
Q

pilots who choose to join on base leg should only do so if they?

A

a. have determined the wind direction and speed;

b. have determined the runway in use;

c. give way to other circuit traffic and ensure the aircraft can safely (no traffic conflict likely) join the base leg applicable to the circuit direction in use at the standard height; and

d. broadcast their intentions

99
Q

An aircraft must not continue its approach to land beyond the threshold of the runway until ?

A

a. a preceding departing aircraft using the same runway is

airborne and:

(1) has commenced a turn; or

(2) is beyond the point on the runway at which the landing aircraft could be expected to complete its landing roll and there is sufficient distance to manoeuvre safely in the event of a missed approach;

b. a preceding landing aircraft using the same runway has vacated it and is taxiing away from the runway;

c. a preceding aircraft using another runway, has crossed or stopped short of the landing aircraft’s runway

100
Q

Taxiing After Landing?

A

10.1.1 After landing, the runway strip should be vacated as soon as practicable. Aircraft should not stop until clear of the runway strip.

101
Q

For determining requirements, the cumulative cloud amount is interpreted as follows?

A

FEW plus FEW is equivalent to SCT,

FEW plus SCT is equivalent to BKN,

SCT plus SCT is equivalent to BKN or OVC

102
Q

When weather conditions at the destination are forecast to be as specified at para 10.7.2.1, but are expected to improve at a specific time, provision for an alternate aerodrome need not be made if sufficient fuel is carried to allow the aircraft to hold until that specified time plus ?

A

30 minutes

103
Q

You need to carry an alternate if your visibility is greater than the alternate minimum, but the forecast is endorsed with at least a ?

A

a 30% percentage probability of fog, mist, dust or any other phenomenon restricting visibility below the alternate minimum; or

d. a thunderstorm or associated severe turbulence, or a forecast of at least a 30% probability of such an event

104
Q

You need to carry an alternate if your visibility is greater than the alternate minimum, but the forecast is endorsed with at least a ?

A

a 30% percentage probability of fog, mist, dust or any other phenomenon restricting visibility below the alternate minimum; or

d. a thunderstorm or associated severe turbulence, or a forecast of at least a 30% probability of such an event

105
Q

a. When the weather following the FM or BECMG is forecast to create an operational requirement, that operational requirement will become effective ?

A

30 minutes before the start

of the FM time, or 30 minutes before the start of the BECMG

period.

106
Q

b. When the weather following the FM or BECMG is forecast to remove an operational requirement, that operational requirement will remain effective until ?

A

30 minutes after the FM time or 30 minutes after the end of the BECMG period

107
Q

At aerodromes receiving a TAF3 service, and only during the first 3 hours of the TAF3 validity, not beyond the end time for the TAF3 service if such a time is specified, the following do not apply?

A

a. 30 minute buffers required by paras 10.7.2.7 and 10.7.2.8,

b. the alternate or holding fuel required by:

(i) para 10.7.2.1 (c) for reduction in visibility, or

(ii) para 10.7.2.5 for any PROB30 or PROB40 for TS or associated severe turbulence

108
Q

MINUMUM FUEL
1 The pilot in command shall advise ATC of a minimum fuel state by declaring?

A

MINIMUM FUEL when, having committed to land at a specific aerodrome, the pilot in command calculates that any change to the existing clearance to that aerodrome may result in landing with less than final reserve fuel.

109
Q

Emergency Fuel

10.9.3.1 The pilot in command must declare a situation of emergency fuel by broadcasting ?

A

MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL, when the calculated usable fuel predicted to be available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome where a safe landing can be made is less than the final reserve fuel

110
Q

Note 1: MAYDAY FUEL declaration is a distress message.

Note 2: In circumstances where a normal approach and landing is expected and the pilot assesses there is no requirement for emergency services, ATS should be so advised as early as possible e.g ?

A

“EXPECTING NORMAL APPROACH AND LANDING, EMERGENCY SERVICES NOT REQUIRED

111
Q

Where do we find information on TIBA ?

A

AIP ENR1.1-91

112
Q

For GPS (GNSS) approaches, RAIM must be available at the Final Approach Fix (FAF),
as indicated by the ?

A

GPS INTEG annunciator extinguished

113
Q

Default RNP values FMS ?

A
  1. Enroute: 2.00
  2. Terminal: 1.00
  3. Approach: 0.30
114
Q

Default RNP values FMS ?

A
  1. Enroute: 2.00
  2. Terminal: 1.00
  3. Approach: 0.30
115
Q

What must you do in controlled airspace if you get POSITION UNCERTAIN ?

A

The FMS position is unreasonable (not verified). ANP values
have reached or exceeded the RNP.
Note: If in controlled airspace, ATC must be advised
immediately: “UNABLE RNP (OR RNAV) DUE TO POSITION
UNCERTAIN

116
Q

What must you do in controlled airspace if you get NO SATELLITE INTEG” (Loss of RAIM) ?

A

If in controlled airspace, ATC must be advised if RAIM has
been unavailable for more than 5 minutes: “UNABLE RNP (OR
RNAV) DUE TO LOSS OF RAIM

117
Q

What must you do in controlled airspace if you get SATELLITE POS ALARM” (RAIM ALERT) ?

A

GNSS position error outside Integrity Alarm Limit (IAL). Level
of integrity known to be unacceptable.
Note: If in controlled airspace, ATC must be advised if a RAIM
Alert has exceeded 1 minute: “UNABLE RNP (OR RNAV) DUE
TO RAIM ALERT

118
Q

What must you do in controlled airspace if you get DEAD RECKONING MODE ?

A

True airspeed and heading are the only sensors being used
for navigation.
Note: If in controlled airspace, ATC must be advised if the GNSS
receiver is in dead-reckoning mode for more than 1 minute:
“UNABLE RNP (OR RNAV)

119
Q

Range of Speeds for Initial Approach Cat C ?

A

160/240kts

120
Q

Range of Final Approach Speeds CAT C ?

A

115/160kts

121
Q

Max Speeds for Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) ?

A

180kts

122
Q

Max Speeds for Missed Approach CAT C ?

A

240kts

Dash 8 Q300/200 (74 decks)

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