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Dash 8 Q300/200 > OM 1 > Flashcards

OM 1 Flashcards

1
Q

How Much control of the rudder from the rudder pedals ?

A

7 degrees either side of centre

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2
Q

If doing an instrument App when do instrument procedures commence ?

A

Passing IAF or when intercepting inbound leg when vectored.

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3
Q

White flashes ?

A

In flight = No significance. On Ground= Return to the starting point on aerodrome.

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4
Q

Maximum cabin differential for T/O and LDG ?

A

+0.5 and -0.1psi

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5
Q

Where does Take Off Distance finish ?

A

35ft above runway @V2

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6
Q

MDA for app at aerodrome with no terminal forecast ?

A

Area QNH is to be used and MDA +50ft

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7
Q

Detection methods for water in fuel ?

A

Cloudiness and chemical

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8
Q

What speed can you not go below before FAP ?

A

160kts

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9
Q

When does a HIRO need to be submitted ?

A

24hrs after incident

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10
Q

Can we accept wake turbulence waivers ?

A

No

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11
Q

Alert order cancel ?

A

“Ladies and gentlemen thankyou for your co-operation please remain seated, cabin crew resume normal duties”

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12
Q

Whats NEF and CDL ?

A

Non essential furnishings and Configuration deviation list.

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13
Q

Normal speed for decent ?

A

VMO-10kts (230kts)

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14
Q

OFP ?

A

Operational flight plan

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15
Q

Whats MCR ?

A

Maximum cruise rating

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16
Q

TQ setting for the start of stage 1 ?

A

10%

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17
Q

All RAs are inhibited below what height ?

A

1100ft on climb and 900ft on descent.

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18
Q

What must you do if you lose your anti collision light or position light in flight?

A

Contact ATC services as soon as possible or land as soon as possible.

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19
Q

When will the terrain fail light illuminate ?

A

If the internal GPS/terrain displays are inoperative.

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20
Q

What things constitute a stable call ?

A

Correct flight path, Small changes to HDG and Pitch, Vapp +10 to -5 with Vref being the absolute min, A/C in the planned configuration, sink rate less than 1000ft/min when below 1000 HAA, Power setting appropriate, All briefings and checklists complete, ILS flown within 1 dot of glideslope and localiser, Can deviate from above if special briefing is used.

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21
Q

Pax are not able to disembark until what ?

A

Props have stopped spinning, fasten belts sign is off and red anti collision light is off

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22
Q

TQ setting configured flap 15 ?

A

15% 400

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23
Q

When will you not get a “descend ,descend”?

A

Below 1200ft on climb and 1000ft on descent.

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24
Q

Margin rate ?

A

1200 kg/ hr 400

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25
Q

Stage 1 speeds ?

A

190- 160kts 400

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26
Q

When will you get the “too low flap” Caution ?

A

passing 200ft with less than 15 degrees flap.

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27
Q

Flight and duty limitations are found where ?

A

FRMS Chapter 9

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28
Q

Whats PIREP and MAREP ?

A

Pilot reported and Maintenance reported

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29
Q

What times can we depart given our COBT/SOBT ?

A

-5mins and +15mins

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30
Q

What must you do before calling nose high or nose low ?

A

Check all 3 Attitude indicators

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31
Q

first call in stage 1 ?

A

“flap 5”

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32
Q

Actual fuel burn should not exceed expected fuel burn by how much ?

A

4%

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33
Q

TQ setting descending stable at 160kts ?

A

15% TQ

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34
Q

At FLT IDLE how fast does the A/C slow down on a 3 degrees flight path ?

A

10kts/NM

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35
Q

TQ and attitude required OEI F15 final ?

A

25% TQ 3 Degrees nose up

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36
Q

When to start configuration from 190kts to be stable at 1000ft HAA or 500ft HAA ?

A

6 nm prior so 9 nm if IMC and 8 nm if VMC

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37
Q

What to do when you have a TCAS defect ?

A

Look in the OM 1 It says to record specific information in the QL-3
Must press the ATC button for 10s and record defect/s

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38
Q

TQ setting for 275kts on descent ?

A

35-40%

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39
Q

Steady green light in flight and on aerodrome ?

A

In flight = Cleared to land. On Ground = Authorised to T/O

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40
Q

Can you have the nose-wheel steering on during reverse taxi ?

A

Yes it must be on

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41
Q

The TCAS assumes how long before corrective action takes place during a reversal ?

A

2.5s

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42
Q

rates of descent when operating between 3000-1000ft ?

A

descent rate is restricted to less than the A/C current altitude eg at 2000ft max ROD = 2000fpm

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43
Q

Maximum speed inbound or on descent below 3000ft HAA is what ?

A

210kts

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44
Q

Fixed fuel reserve ?

A

450 kg

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45
Q

what speed until passing final fix ?

A

160kts

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46
Q

Whats INTAP stand for ?

A

Internal notice to all pilots

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47
Q

How do we know if the incident is ATSB notable ?

A

Check the list in the OM1

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48
Q

How much does Tq reduce when condition levers go through to max ?

A

15- 20 %

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49
Q

What to add to our brief if we think a diversion may occur due to weather at our destination ?

A

Intended app and or holding, Actions to take if app is unsuccessful, The alternate aerodrome, intended route and altitude/level, Min fuel required for the diversion.

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50
Q

When will you not get a “increase descent, Increase descent “?

A

below 1450ft

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51
Q

when inbound to a CTAF Comm 1 and Comm2 are on what ?

A

Comm1 is ATS frequency and Comm2 is on the CTAF

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52
Q

Can we descend below 1000ft before 5nm final visual app ?

A

No

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53
Q

Is NTOP a minumum or a maximum ?

A

Minimum

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54
Q

How much fuel for instrument App?

A

150 kg

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55
Q

Alert order ?

A

“Attention all passengers remain seated and await further instructions”

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56
Q

stage 2 speeds ?

A

160kts -Vapp

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57
Q

TQ setting configured flap 35 ?

A

25-30%

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58
Q

Variable reserve ?

A

10%

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59
Q

Steady red light ?

A

In flight= Give way and continue circling. On Ground= Stop

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60
Q

TQ and attitude required OEI F35 final ?

A

50% TQ -1 Degrees nose down.

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61
Q

During a breakout what does the PM do ?

A

Standby the flight director - Set PF heading bug and AAS- Conduct configuration as called by the PF- Read back instructions from the tower.

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62
Q

What’s TIBA ?

A

Traffic information broadcast by aircraft

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63
Q

Primary instrument to determine which engine has failed ?

A

The TQ gauge

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64
Q

Change in attitude required for an RA ?

A

Climb 1 degree per 500fpm descent 2 degrees per 500fpm

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65
Q

Evacuation order ?

A

“Attention, Evacuate, Evacuate”

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66
Q

How do we remove the terrain fail light ?

A

Press the terrain inhibit switch, which will make it an conventional GPWS

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67
Q

Holding rate ?

A

910 kg/ Hr

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68
Q

Wheres the de-icing procedures found ?

A

FCOM supplemental procedures

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69
Q

When are TAs inhibited ?

A

600ft on climb and 400ft on descent.

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70
Q

Green flashes ?

A

In flight= Return for landing. On ground= Authorised for taxi if pilot is satisfied no collision risk exists

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71
Q

How much power required to stabilise at 125kts with flap 15 and gear out ?

A

20% Tq

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72
Q

How much ballon from flap 10 to flap 15 ?

A

1-2 Degrees

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73
Q

During a breakout call what does the PF do ?

A

Listen to the call - Disconnect the A/P- Commence the turn-climb- Call for configuration changes.

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74
Q

How many applications of the emergency brake available ?

A

8

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75
Q

VASIS ?

A

Visual approach slope indicator system

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76
Q

How is a traffic alert heard ?

A

” Traffic, Traffic”

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77
Q

How much ballon from flap 15 to flap 35 ?

A

2-3 Degrees

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78
Q

Hydraulic pressures ?

A

3000psi Normal pumps Stdby pumps 2750psi

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79
Q

For a departure turn that opposes the circuit direction, What height do we climb to before the turn ?

A

Climb to circuit height plus 500ft (2000ftAGL)

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80
Q

Red Flashes ?

A

In flight= Aerodrome unsafe do not land. On ground= taxi clear of the landing runway.

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81
Q

Approximate Tq and attitude required for flap 0 ?

A

20-25% TQ and 3-5 degrees nose up

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82
Q

SCN ?

A

Software control number

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83
Q

In controlled airspace diversions of how much in app speeds before you must contact ATC ?

A

> 10kts from specified

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84
Q

required CTAF calls on arrival ?

A

at 30nm prior to destination and immediately prior to entering the circuit.

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85
Q

When can you terminate the Engine failure procedure ?

A

Above MSA or on radar vectors

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86
Q

Pre flight briefing pneumonic ?

A

ISTOP Introduction, Status of the crew and A/C, Turbulence/weather, Operational considerations, Password, Threats

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87
Q

Fixed reserve ?

A

600lbs 30 mins

190lbs 10mins OEI

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88
Q

What are we checking when we turn the STBY HYD press pumps on ?

A

Pressure indicates 2900 psi

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89
Q

Touchdown area commences where ?

A

1000ft past the threshold

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90
Q

What does M and O indicate on a MEL ?

A

M indicates requirement for specific maintenance to be carried out prior to listing component inoperative. O indicates planning or change to operation.

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91
Q

Who is responsible for cancelling flights ?

A

ROC With advice from flight crew

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92
Q

once configured flap 15 what is the usual attitude required ?

A

1 to 2 degrees

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93
Q

When departing a CTAF who do we call first prior to taxi ?

A

Taxi call to ATS ( Brisbane Centre) prior to releasing the park brake. Then CTAF after that.

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94
Q

What must you do if the APU is being used for starting the engines ?

A

Turn the bleed air off

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95
Q

Where would you notice severe icing ?

A

side windows

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96
Q

Emergency or Non Normal control handover ?

A

“taking over”

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97
Q

Power setting once below 140kts approx ?

A

20%TQ

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98
Q

When does the captain remove there hand from the power levers during the T/O ?

A

At V1

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99
Q

Once configured flap 35 what is the usual attitude required ?

A

-3 to -1 degrees

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100
Q

How to easily set MCP ?

A

740 ITT

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101
Q

Maximum required ROD for a descending breakout call ?

A

1000ft/min

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102
Q

When must you conduct a ISTOP briefing?

A

Before the first flight and whenever a new crew member joins the crew. Must be conducted with all crew present.

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103
Q

Are we allowed to switch off the FDR ?

A

No OM 1 3.3.1 use of recording systems

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104
Q

What’s FOQA ?

A

Flight operations Quality Assurance program

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105
Q

Do we have to where high vis best when on the apron ?

A

High visibility vests and hearing
protection must always be worn when using the tarmac walkways.

OM1 3.6.3 Tarmac safety

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106
Q

If you are injured at work when should you notify management?

A

Immediately notify management to ensure, where appropriate,
early referral to the injury management program. If immediate
notification is reasonably impracticable, the employee is to
notify management within 24 hours of the occurrence;

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107
Q

What’s a HIRO ?

A

Hazard identification reporting online

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108
Q

When must a HIRO be submitted?

A

Within 24 hours following an incident

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109
Q

Definition - Immediately Reportable Matter (IRM) ?

A

Immediately Reportable Matters (IRM) for Category A operations
generally relate to safety occurrences causing death, serious injury,
aircraft damage, property damage, loss of separation standards,
declaration of an emergency and events that have seriously affected
the conduct of the flight.

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110
Q

The Pilot in Command will contact ROC by the most expedient
method as soon as possible in the event of an aircraft accident or an
incident, which ?

A

Threatens the safety and wellbeing of customers,
employees, operations or infrastructure; or
Presents a significant threat to the public image of
QantasLink: or
Presents a threat to the commercial viability of QantasLink;
or
Is likely to generate a public expectation for QantasLink to
respond; or is
An event that constitutes an IRM according to the Transport
Safety Investigation

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111
Q

When Flight Crew are experiencing disruptions and/or delays, they are to ensure that all ?

A

that all relevant operational areas are made aware of the problem.
The ROC, central to all operational areas, should be considered as the primary communication point of contact that will then oversee the disruption recovery.

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112
Q

For any outbound aircraft, at any location, with an engineering/mechanical related disruption, the Flight Crew are advised to ?

A

to contact Maintenance Watch via mobile phone (or radio if in Sydney) in the first instance, as a simple ‘ground reset’ may be applicable (with advice provided from Maintenance Watch) which may prevent a ground return.

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113
Q

Where does it talk about minimum amount of cabin crew ?

A

Om1 4.4 (4-6)

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114
Q

Except in an emergency, aerodromes used for Scheduled Air Transport operations must be ?

A

Certified

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115
Q

Flight Crew are authorised to conduct flights on company aircraft in accordance with the ?

A

Published roster

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116
Q

Flight Crew are also allowed to conduct flights in company aircraft when ?

A

Verbally authorised by the chief pilot or delegate

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117
Q

Who has operational control over a flight ?

A

Within Australian FIRs, operational control is a shared responsibility between the Pilot in Command and the company. This does not override the final authority vested in the Pilot in Command under
CASR 91.215.

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118
Q

Do we need to operate under IFR ?

A

In accordance with CASR 121.025, all flights conducted by company aircraft will be conducted under Instrument Flight Rules (IR) unless otherwise approved by CASA.

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119
Q

An aircraft operating under IF may be flown below the lowest safe altitude as follows ?

A

During takeoff and landing
• In VMC by day,
• When conducting an approved instrument approach, or
• When as directed by ATC.

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120
Q

When navigating under IF, a positive fix is required at intervals not exceeding ?

A

2 hours

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121
Q

Visual departures and approach’s
During the conduct of the procedure, the Flight Crew must ?

A

Maintain the track(s) or heading(s) authorised by ATC,
Climb to (departure) and remain not less than 500ft above the lower limit of the Control Area (CTA), and
Visually maintain obstacle clearance.

122
Q

Approach and Landing Publications ?

A

Only instrument approach and landing procedures produced by
Jeppesen are approved for company use.

123
Q

When selecting a Grid LSALT appropriate to off-track operations, Flight Crew are required to ?

A

to apply the higher Grid LSALT of either their current position or that of the projected flight path.

124
Q

The circling approach minima must be maintained at night while the aircraft ?

A

is circled to a position within the traffic pattern that intercepts a normal downwind, base or final approach.

125
Q

A company aircraft shall not be flown below 500’ AGL in day VMC, below LSALT at night or in IMC, or below 1000’ over a built up area, unless it is ?

A

An emergency,
To takeoff or land,
Part of a published instrument approach,
In accordance with ATC instructions, or
Specifically authorised.

126
Q

4.4.4.1 Minimum Turn Altitude ?

A

FLT 3.11.48
Turns will not normally be made below 500’ unless dictated by special or supplemental procedures or required for circling approaches.

127
Q

Aerobatics/Spins ?

A

Aerobatics or spins are not permitted in company aircraft.

128
Q

4.6.5.3 Duties During Flight
FLT 3.2.1
The Pilot in Command is responsible for ?

A

• Aircraft safety, operation, navigation and communications,
• Ensuring that the Flight Log is completed in a timely and accurate manner,
Ensure that position reports are given, at times and at places as documented in Jeppesen,
• Safety of passengers, Crew and cargo carried, The conduct and discipline of all Aircrew, and
• Compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.

129
Q

4.6.5.4 Immediate Post Flight Duties
The Pilot in Command is responsible for correct completion of ?

A

Flight Record Book,
Discrepancy Log, and
Appropriate written reports.

130
Q

What to do if you catch someone smoking on a flight ?

A

Name of offender,
• Seat number and ticket number,
• Flight details, including time of offence and sector being travelled,
• Name, address and telephone number of Crew member(s) who witnessed the offence and details of what warnings were given, and by whom, and
• Name, address and telephone numbers of other passengers (if any) willing to act as possible witnesses.

131
Q

Are we allowed to take photos from the jumpseat ?

A

Yes with the permission of the captain.

132
Q

Take off minima for junior FO ?

A

300ft ceiling and 2km visibility or as per runway/ airport limits which ever is higher.

133
Q

Landing minima for junior FO ?

A

MDA/DH +200 ft and visibility greater than 4km

134
Q

Junior and first officer crosswind limits for takeoff and landing ?

A

Junior 15kts
First officer 30kts

135
Q

Max tailwind first officer ?

A

5 kts

136
Q

Minimum runway length junior first officer ?

A

1300 m

137
Q

Note: If weather conditions are forecast to exceed the First Officer’s limit, the transfer of control should be conducted at an appropriate time ?

A

prior to top of descent.

138
Q

With respect to the QantasLink Dash 8 operation, standard takeoff minima are ?

A

550m
Zero feet ceiling

Permission and limitation
1. Any operation when Tower active
2. Day only operations at non-controlled locations (or when location Tower inactive), and/or
3. Locations with light spacing not exceeding 60m and with centreline lighting or centreline marking.
4. As prescribed in Part 139 MoS - Airports;
the airport has secondary power supply for runway lighting with a switchover capability of one second or less for runway centreline lights or runway edge lights where centreline lighting is not provided.

139
Q

What’s the Route and Airport qualifications?

A

Captains shall maintain route qualification and recency at those ports to which they could reasonably be expected to operate. Before operating a company aircraft engaged in Air Transport Operations over a particular route, Flight Crew must be qualified in accordance with company procedures for Airport and Route Qualification.

140
Q

What are the two categories of routes ?

A

Category R1 and Category R2

The only R2 route is mainland to lord Howe island.

141
Q

Who determines the Airport category?

A

Airline operations standards and safety committee.

142
Q

What are the different Airport categories and what does that mean ?

A

Category A: No compliance

Category C/A:
Aerodromes which require compliance with CAR 121.515 for initial qualification only. For operations by Flight Crew who have met initial qualification requirements,
the aerodrome may then be categorised as Category A.

Category C:
Aerodromes which require compliance with CAR 121.515.
Flight Crew will require requalification if aerodrome is not operated to for a period of 12 months or more.

Category X:
Aerodromes that require compliance with CASR 121.515, and for which additional company qualification apply.
Route qualification information will include knowledge of the items referenced in the paragraphs above.

143
Q

For Non-Scheduled Air Transport Operations, does the company require and route qualifications?

A

No

144
Q

In circumstances where training or operational requirements result in a delay to rostered sign off, Flight Crew must ?

A

Contact crewing personnel

145
Q

Security Advice ?

A

Security control centre will be staffed by a Senior Duty Security Controller who is available to provide professional security advice, support, and assistance to all Company staff.

146
Q

During and concurrent with the pre-flight checks, Aircrew must conduct a pre-flight security check on boarding an originating aircraft. What does that mean ?

A

Flight Crew must conduct a visual inspection of reasonably accessible parts of the exterior of the aircraft, including wheel wells, for any obvious anomalies, foreign objects or signs of tampering. It is not necessary to open any panels or use specialised tools, equipment or lighting.

147
Q

Incidents where the flight deck door opens in-flight, must be reported when ?

A

as soon as practicable (24 hours) to the Qantas Duty Security Controller (DSC) on
Within Australia: 02 9691 1818

148
Q

What would we do if we didn’t know whether someone was authorised to be in the flight deck during flight ?

A

OM1 5.6.3 Authorised persons

149
Q

When do we need to make an assessment of the landing minima?

A

Assessment of ceiling and visibility is determined by observation from the flight deck window when at or above the published minima.
Continuation below the DA/DA/MDA is not permitted unless the weather conditions are greater than or equal to the minima specified on the chart.
OM 1 4.8.2
Landing - Meteorological Minima

150
Q

What happens to a passengers bag due to illness when you have diverted?

A

6.14.6.1 In circumstances where a flight diverts due to passenger illness and that passenger disembarks, it is a legal requirement that the baggage belonging to the passenger is off- loaded before the flight can proceed.

151
Q

Alternate planning requirements are determined with respect to the alternate minima criteria specified in the ?

A

Aircraft Performance Manual for the airport concerned. OM1 4.8.4

152
Q

Is there any low visibility information in the OM 1 ?

A

It’s reserved

OM1 4.11

153
Q

4.12 Route and Airport Qualifications ?

A

Captains shall maintain route qualification and recency at those ports to which they could reasonably be expected to operate.

The company assigns a route/airport category for all primary network destinations, each with a specific qualification requirement.

154
Q

What’s the category R1 mean for a Qantas Link route ?

A

The Pilot in Command requires no in-flight familiarisation over
Category R1 routes nor are there any recency requirements.
Familiarisation with the route is achieved by means of company documentation and/or instruction.
Category R1 routes are:
• All Mainland network routes, with the exception of those listed below under Category R2 routes.

155
Q

Company aircraft standard descent and approach speeds?

A

6.14.7
- not be operated at an airspeed greater than 250 knots below 10,000 feet.
- standard aircraft type descent speeds until 3000ft HAA or AGL
- maximum speed inbound or on descent below 3000ft HAA or
AGL whichever is higher is 210KIAS.
- published speeds may be in place in accordance with SIDs, STARs and lAL Charts.

156
Q

What’s category R2 route ?

A

The Pilot in Command requires specific in-flight familiarisation over
Category R2 routes and a 12-month recency requirement also applies.
Familiarisation with the route may be supported by means of company documentation and/or instruction.
Category R2 routes are:
• Between Mainland ports and Lord Howe Island (LDH)

157
Q

What’s category R2 route ?

A

The Pilot in Command requires specific in-flight familiarisation over
Category R2 routes and a 12-month recency requirement also applies.
Familiarisation with the route may be supported by means of company documentation and/or instruction.
Category R2 routes are:
• Between Mainland ports and Lord Howe Island (LDH)

158
Q

Rates of descent between 3,000ft and 1,000ft AGL?

A

6.14.8
aircraft descent rate in feet per minute is restricted to less than the aircraft altitude in feet AGL. For example, passing 2,000 ft AGL, rate of descent is limited to less than 2,000 fpm.

159
Q

If you are current on the SYD-LDH route does that make you current on the CFS- LDH route ?

A

Yes. Approval to operate between Sydney and/or Brisbane and LDH is deemed sufficient qualification to operate between any mainland port and the Island, provided the Flight Crew member is current on that mainland port.

160
Q

What are the four AirPort categories?

A

Category A
Category C/A
Category C
Category X

161
Q

Do we need to route qualifications for a Charter ?

A

For Non-Scheduled Air Transport Operations, the company requires no specific route qualifications. However, Flight Crew rostered for these flights shall familiarise themselves with the route, aerodromes, enroute and terminal area terrain.

162
Q

How to get ATC code when no VHF & HF on bay, what can you do?

A

6.14.10
taxi report to ATS should be made prior to releasing the park
aircraft are permitted to move to an alternative location where communications can be established, however IF traffic and code must be obtained from ATS before runway entry

163
Q

If you are not certain about your route recency what can you do ?

A

Flight Crew not certain of currency on a particular route, are to contact the Crew Rostering section, in order to confirm eligibility to operate on that route.

164
Q

A Route Qualified Flight Crew member, can only be a ?

A

Captain who is current on a particular route.

OM1 4.18 Route and Airport Qualification

165
Q

Procedures and policy for route qualification training are located ?

A

In the TACM

166
Q

AFRU inop can we go?

A

6.14.10
period of seven days commencing on the day the system became unserviceable
Alternate procedures for greater then 7 days U/S. Ground agent or ARO to confirms correct freq selections by responding on the CTAF freq to the initial transmission from the aircraft inbound and outbound

167
Q

Where does it detail the policy and procedures to comply with all recency elements mandated by the CASRs ?

A

TACM

168
Q

When should you log Instrument time ?

A

Flight Crew should record in the QL-2 all Instrument Flight (IF) time when operating as Pilot Flying under IF conditions, such as during the conduct of an instrument approach, in IMC and at night.

4.20.3 Instrument Flight

169
Q

Approach type order?

A

ILS
RNP
LOC
RWY ALIGNED VOR
RWY ALIGNED NDB
Radar vector to visual approach
DME OR GNSS TO CCT
CCT
CIRCLING

170
Q

Flight and Duty Limitations are specified in the ?

A

the CASA approved FRMS. The limitations applicable to all QantasLink (Sunstate and Eastern) flight crew are contained in Chapter 9 of the FRMS Manual.

4.22 Flight and Duty Time Limitations

171
Q

Following an overnight, the sign on time is applicable ?

A

applicable airside at each airport not kerbside.

4.23 Reporting for Duty

172
Q

Protocols for Simulator Duties are contained in the ?

A

TACM

173
Q

Cat D performance category can be used when?

A

Category D circling area and MDA at Canberra avoids a steep descent when making a night visual approach to runway 30. It can also be used on an ILS approach to permit a higher than normal speed to be maintained to the FAP, if necessary to fit in with ATC requests.
All the criteria for the higher category must be adopted, mixing performance criteria is not permitted.

174
Q

Acceptable approach procedure turns?

A

45/180degrees
80/260 degrees

175
Q

Where can we get security advice from ?

A

Qantas operates a Security Control Centre on a 24-hour, 7 days a week basis.
The Security Control Centre will be staffed by a Senior Duty Security Controller who is available to provide professional security advice, support, and assistance to all Company staff.

5.3
Security Advice

176
Q

Australia has an Airport Tier Model system to classify airports and reflect the operational diversity and range of security risks faced by
Australian airports.
Under the model, a security-controlled airport may be categorised as either a Designated ?

A

TIER 1,2,3

177
Q

Approach ban at an airport with ATC and RVR reporting when?

A

6.15.14
TDZ RV is reported to be continuously below the specified minima, the approach must not be continued below 1,000ft height above aerodrome (HAA).
Should the TDZ RVR be reported as below the minima after the aircraft has descended below 1,000ft HAA, the approach may be continued at the PIC discretion.

178
Q

Which Airport Tiers need security?

A

Tier 1 and 2

Security screening is required for passengers and baggage departing on aircraft with 40 or more seats and if it departs from a Tier 2 airport or above.

179
Q

Approaches with no slope guidance?

A

Requires approval from Chief Pilot
Unless specifically approved in Route Manual or INTAP
If it happens after departure the decision to land rests with PIC

180
Q

Do aircraft departing a Tier 3 airport require passenger screening?

A

No they do not. Regardless of aircraft size.

5.4
Airport Security

181
Q

How to do MAP when cleared visual approach in controlled airspace?

A

maintain runway heading, remain visual and await ATC instructions. At Sydney, visual go-arounds are conducted in accordance with the missed approach procedure for the primary instrument approach to the runway concerned or as directed by ATC.

182
Q

When must you conduct a preflight security check ?

A

On boarding an originating aircraft.

183
Q

How many MAP can be done?

A

Weather related missed approaches 2
3rd approach may be attempted provided PIC believes there is a high probability of a successful approach and landing, or greater emergency or operational requirement exists.

184
Q

Reverse taxi operations

A

approval of the Chief Pilot or delegate and must be conducted in accordance with the AFM.
If an aircraft reversing manoeuvre is conducted, the Captain is required to submit a HIRO detailing the reasons that generated the manoeuvre.

185
Q

If there is any evidence of tampering or an item is located during such inspections by Aircrew and which cannot be identified as normal aircraft equipment or passenger’s property, must be treated as ?

A

suspect and reported to the Pilot in Command immediately, who in turn will immediately report the occurrence to Qantas Security.

5.5.2
Doubtful and Unattended Objects

186
Q

Who has the authority to board the aircraft whilst in preparation for flight ?

A

Only authorised representatives of the company or its designated contractors, displaying appropriate identification, will be allowed to board an aircraft whilst it is in preparation for flight, during transit or after arrival at the terminal.

5.5.3
Authorised Access

187
Q

Pax door during rain

A

Pax door left shut in rainy conditions and can be left closed with crew on board until just prior to passenger boarding commences

188
Q

Aircraft key

A

6.16.9
Misplaced keys contact duty pilot and make QL-3 entry
Spare key kept at each outport

189
Q

Whenever an aircrew member leaves the flight deck what do you need to do ?

A

Whenever an aircrew member leaves the flight deck, the area outside the cockpit should be viewed and assessed as secure prior to leaving, the door shall be closed and locked immediately after.

5.6.2
Flight Deck Door Security

190
Q

What’s the door code ?

A

2467#

191
Q

How to declare min fuel and what does it result in?

A

6.18.1.2
‘MINIMUM FUEL’ may result in landing with less than the planned fixed reserve fuel
PIC shall request information on any expected airborne delays from ATC. This declaration will not result in increased priority for landing but indicated to ATC that an emergency situation could occur should there be any further delay

192
Q

Hot to declare emergency fuel?

A

‘MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, FUEL’ when the predicted fuel available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome available for a safe landing will be less than the planned fixed reserve.

193
Q

Where can we find who we can take in the flight deck ?

A

OM 1 5.6.3
Authorised Persons

194
Q

Unpressurised flight when, how to conduct?

A

Planned with approval of chief pilot or delegate, in accordance with AFM supplement
Flight crew must review the relevant procedures and/or precautions listed in the AFM supplement and Aircraft Performance Manual, and consult the Duty Pilot for any further guidance.

195
Q

Gear down Ferry Flight

A

planned with the approval of the Chief Pilot or delegate. Flight crew must review the relevant procedures and/or precautions listed in the AFM and Aircraft Performance Manual and consult the Duty Pilot for any further guidance.

196
Q

Severe windshear

A

Delay takeoff or do not continue an approach

197
Q

Volcanic ash what to do?

A

Remain well clear of area, upwind side of volcanic dust
If a/c enters volcanic ash cloud accomplish 180degree turn

198
Q

When do we have to carry CASA inspectors/Examiners?

A

• On immediate demand by the officer of his or her intention to travel, if his or her carriage in the aircraft does not mean the off-loading of a passenger or of cargo being carried in the aircraft on the particular flight concerned,
• On immediate demand from the officer of his or her intention to travel irrespective of whether his or her carriage in the aircraft means the off-loading of a passenger or of goods, if the officer considers the circumstances of the case so warrant, and
• On receipt of seven days notice prior to a flight from the officer of his or her intention to travel on a flight.

199
Q

When do we have to carry CASA inspectors/Examiners?

A

• On immediate demand by the officer of his or her intention to travel, if his or her carriage in the aircraft does not mean the off-loading of a passenger or of cargo being carried in the aircraft on the particular flight concerned,
• On immediate demand from the officer of his or her intention to travel irrespective of whether his or her carriage in the aircraft means the off-loading of a passenger or of goods, if the officer considers the circumstances of the case so warrant, and
• On receipt of seven days notice prior to a flight from the officer of his or her intention to travel on a flight.

200
Q

Thunderstorm avoidance

A

A take-off or landing should not be attempted when a thunderstorm is within 5nm and moving towards the aerodrome.
During climb and descent thunderstorms should be avoided by a distance of 5nm below the freezing level and 10nm above the freezing level.
cruise, 20nm. In flight, an avoidance action plan should be determined early and, where possible, at least 40nm before the thunderstorm will be encountered.

201
Q

5.6.7
Identification of Authorised Persons ?

A

All persons accessing the flight deck, other than Aircrew in uniform, must be accompanied by a member of the operating Aircrew and shall display a valid form of identification.

202
Q

A jump seat passenger not operating as crew should be included on the ?

A

the Adjustments page of the app, not in the crew complement.

203
Q

Jump seat Crew members should be accounted for as part of the ?

A

Crew Complement

204
Q

If Cabin crew find any missing or unserviceable equipment, what must they do ?

A

Report it to the captain immediately

5.6.11 Unserviceable/Missing Equipment

205
Q

Storm warning system - 4 phases

A

Phase 1 watch - airport warning issued several hrs before
Phase 2 Alert - TS within 10nm white lights and horn for 15seconds
Phase 3 Alert operations shutdown - TS within 5nm going to impact airport, blue lights and or continuous repeating horn
Phase 4 Cancellation - TS outside 5nm can now be cancelled or downgraded. Reactivation of white lights

206
Q

Taxi to bay during Storm ops shutdown

A

If tarmac is shutdown, then at PIC discretion the aircraft may be taxiied onto the bay without the need for marshalling

207
Q

Where to find pilot approved maintenance?

A

FDEM

208
Q

What must you do if you have your ASIC lost or stolen ?

A

immediately report the matter by submitting a HR Query via the
HRHQ self-service portal on the Terminal or by contacting ID Services

Statutory Declaration which can be printed from the replacement application.
The statutory declaration should detail the conditions surrounding the loss or theft.

if an ASIC has been stolen, the employee must provide a Police Report.

5.7.1.2 Lost and Stolen ASIC Cards

209
Q

What maintenance can we do?

A

7.2
Flight crew 21yrs and older can
Ramp service checks;
• Engine oil level check and replenishment;
• Light bulb replacement;
• Conduct of system resets as contained in the Technical Supplements sections in the FDEM;
Application of MEL, CDL and DWL items;
Tripping and resetting of circuit breakers as detailed in the
MEL, FDEM Technical Supplements or SPGRG;
• Clipping or collaring of circuit breakers as detailed in the
MEL, FDEM Technical Supplements or SPGRG; and
Resetting of circuit breakers in accordance with the company
Circuit Breaker Policy as outlined in this manual.

210
Q

Can we conduct a repeat test of 24hr checks?

A

Yes one repeat following the failure of the initial test

211
Q

Can we do engine runs?

A

Yes to assess system operation before or after maintenance action by an attending engineer at a main or outport

212
Q

Can we store our overnight bags in the forward coat locker ?

A

No.

Screening of Aircrew Overnight Baggage OM 1 5.7.2.7

213
Q

CCT Breaker policy

A

Where no specific guidance is provided by the QRH, MEL, FDEM a CCT breaker may be reset once only provided that
A/c is in the ground and no recent history of reported defects and no anomalies with these systems.
Prior to resetting must check QL-3 that there is no recent history of reported defects with system

214
Q

The only items allowed for removal from the aircraft are those contained in ?

A

are those contained in personal meal boxes or trays.

5.7.3.3 Removal of Aircraft Stores

215
Q

What must you do after damage to an aircraft on ground?

A

Maintenance watch
HIRO
QL-3

216
Q

Acceptance/ Check Flight procedure

A

Ramp service check
Duty Pilot for authorisation

217
Q

Where would you find information on reporting flight parameters for lightning strike, bird strike, overspeed, hard landing etc?

A

OM 7.3.2

218
Q

When to record a bird strike in the QL-3?

A

A bird strike shall be recorded in the QL-3 only if the suspected bird strike has resulted in any of the following:
• Visible damage to the aircraft or engine intake,
• Possible ingestion into the engine, and
• Possible impact to the propeller.

219
Q

Passengers, baggage or freight, which for security reasons have been refused carriage by another carrier, are not to be carried on a company aircraft unless ?

A

The Pilot in Command has been fully informed of the reasons why the other carrier refused carriage; and
• The Pilot in Command is satisfied that no threat exists to the safety or security of the aircraft.

5.8.3 Refusal by Another Carrier

220
Q

If the Pilot in Command refuses to uplift the passenger, baggage or freight because of security concerns, what do you do ?

A

Duty Pilot is to be informed who will liaise with the Duty Security Controller.

5.8.3 Refusal by Another Carrier

221
Q

APU failures QL-3 info?

A

OM 7.3.12

222
Q

A passenger shall not enter or remain on an aircraft while their mental condition / behaviour ?

A

• Threatens their own safety or that of other passengers, or
• Would impede the egress of themselves or others in an evacuation.

5.8.4
Refusal of Passenger Carriage

223
Q

Persons shall be denied boarding if they ?

A

• Are suspected of being under the influence of alcohol or drugs;
• Conduct themselves in an improper manner;
• Do not comply with the instructions of authorised Company officials;

Are apparently of unsound mind;
Are known or suspected to be in possession of unauthorised firearms; or
• Are likely to constitute an annoyance to other passengers or
Crew or a potential danger to the safety of the aircraft or its occupants.

5.8.4.1 Denied Boarding

224
Q

If there is any concern as to the advisability of carrying a passenger already boarded, the decision to offload rests solely with the ?

A

Pilot in Command. Cabin Crew will advise the Pilot in Command of the situation. The Pilot in Command shall take into account their recommendations as well as those from Security and/or airport personnel (if applicable or available).

225
Q

suggested disruptive passenger handling procedures are found where ?

A

CCOM

226
Q

Where do we find information about inflight violence ?

A

In all cases of in-flight violence ROC are to be notified, either by the Pilot in Command of the service or by the Airport Manager or agent at the destination.

In the event of inflight violence, the operating Pilot in Command is referred to the procedures in “Inflight Emergencies Section” of the AEPM.

5.8.5 In-Flight Violence

227
Q

Passengers whose actions are disruptive to the degree that they cause discomfort to other passengers shall be ?

A

offloaded at the next port of call.

5.8.6
Restraint of Passengers during Flight

228
Q

Aircrew facing a situation of impending trouble due to passenger behaviour may remind the passenger to the appropriate Clause in the Conditions of Carriage which is ?

A

11.(c) The passenger will comply with all reasonable requests of the Carrier or its servants relating to safety and conduct.
Advise that legal action will result at the next port in the event of non-compliance.

5.8.6 Restraint of Passengers during Flight

229
Q

Can you restrain a passenger without telling the PIC?

A

Flexicuffs may be used without prior approval but PIC must be informed as soon as possible and subsequent approval given

230
Q

Can you restrain a passenger without telling the PIC?

A

Flexicuffs may be used without prior approval but PIC must be informed as soon as possible and subsequent approval given

231
Q

Where are the restraints packs and how many?

A

2
One in the forward cupboard
One on the flight deck

232
Q

After disruptive passenger at arrival at port what happens?

A

PIC and crew will report nature and details of incident to authorities, duty pilot, Qantas Group Security (number in OM 5.8.6.4).
HIRO

233
Q

Disruptive passenger - police involvement how?

A

Via ROC or company agent request that police meet the a/c on arrival
Senior management must be advised immediately
OM 5.8.6.5

234
Q

Where to find when Qantas can keep a bag onboard after a pax has left the aircraft after a diversion?

A

OM5.8.7

235
Q

If a passenger requests and item or medication from their checked in bag what can we do?

A

Not possible due safety reasons. Must offload pax and reunite them with their bag in a non sterile area. Only exception is PHL

236
Q

the Pilot in Command is to ensure that passengers are orally briefed, before takeoff, on the following items ?

A

• No smoking in the aircraft, including toilet,
The use and adjustment of seat belts,
• The locations and operation of emergency exits,
• The use of flotation devices where applicable,
• Stowage of hand luggage, and
• The presence on board of special survival equipment where applicable.

6.7.3.1 Requirements

237
Q

Do you have to give a sick, injured, handicapped or incapacitated passenger a individual brief ?

A

Yes and it must specify

How to get out,
• When to get out (normally, this would be after the main body of passengers has evacuated), and
• Where to get out.

6.7.3.3 Briefing Disabled Passengers - Special
Requirements

238
Q

Where would we find information about who can sit in an exit row ?

A

OM1 6.7.3.4 Exit Row Seat Restrictions

239
Q

What can the department of infrastructure and regional development do?

A

Direct aircraft in the air and on the ground in relation to and aviation security incident
OM 5.9

240
Q

When must we where a seatbelt?

A

Notwithstanding, seat belts shall be worn by all Aircrew and passengers during takeoff and landing, during an instrument approach, in turbulent conditions and when the aircraft is flying at a height less than 1,000 feet above the terrain.

OM1
6.7.3.5 Seat Belts and Seat Belt Signs

241
Q

All aisles and exits must be kept clear of obstructions when the aircraft with passengers on board is ?

A

is In-flight below 1,000 feet or is on the ground, except during the process of embarkation and disembarkation of passengers.

OM1 6.7.3.6 Aisles and Exits

242
Q

A welcome onboard PA may be given on the ground prior to engine start. This is important whenever there is a ?

A

an unexpected delay such as awaiting tranship passengers, ATC or weather. Regular updates to passengers are important. A PA should be made every 10 minutes during extended delays.

OM 1 6.7.4.1 Initial Welcome Onboard PA

243
Q

Where to find information about Air Security Officer (ASO)?

A

OM 5.10

244
Q

Where to find information about Air Security Officer (ASO)?

A

OM 5.10

245
Q

Can ASO come to the flight deck?

A

No they must only talk on the inter phone

246
Q

What section is SOPs found?

A

OM1 6.1

247
Q

Can we combine the cabin prepare PA with any other PA ?

A

No

OM 1 6.7.4.4 Cabin Preparation PA

248
Q

What does RAISE stand for?

A

Relay information
Ask if they are aware
Indicate concern
Solution offered
Emergency language

249
Q

3 stages of RAISE

A

Inquire stage (Relay & Ask)
Concern stage (Indicate & Solution)
Emergency Language

250
Q

Where do we find the thunderstorm delay PA ?

A

OM 1 6.7.4.7 Thunderstorm Delay Announcements

251
Q

If emergency language is used what must you do after?

A

Report to duty pilot and HIRO by all crew within 24hrs

252
Q

To maintain an appropriate cabin temperature on ground the priority of air-conditioning sources will be as follows ?

A
  1. Aircraft APU;
  2. Ground Air-Conditioning Unit (GAU) (one available in MEL, CBR, SYD, BNE, CNS and ADL) - on request if APU Bleed Air is U/S and air-conditioning is required to maintain an appropriate cabin temperature;
  3. GAU for aircraft with an extended turn-around time and nil available APU oversight; or
  4. Ground engine runs to cool cabin prior to passenger boarding.

6.7.8.1 Thermal Discomfort

253
Q

Who can cancel a flight?

A

6.2.5.1 the ROC after considering all operational factors including advice from flight crew and wx reports (actual and forecast) and info from QMet and Pax disruption considerations

254
Q

How much prior notice to get the GAU out ?

A

20mins

255
Q

How much prior notice to get the GAU out ?

A

20mins

256
Q

COBT compliance?

A

-5 to +15 mins
Outside this time the crew must attempt to gain a new slot. If no slot is available then ROC will advise to go non compliant

257
Q

Where is the definitive Dry operating Weight and index data found ?

A

Load Data Sheet (LDS) that is published on the Flight Crew iPad in the Load Data Sheet (LDS) folder.

OM 1 6.8.2 Load Control

258
Q

Where to find TIBA and contingency airspace info?

A

6.3.8 and ICAO ATS Airspace Classifications

259
Q

Who’s responsible for submitting the load sheet ?

A

The Captain or delegate

OM 1 6.8.2.1 iPad Load Sheet Application

260
Q

Inflight emergency squawk code

A

7700

261
Q

Who do we have to give the Manual Load Statement too ?

A

ground agent/check-in staff who will ensure it is locally stored for the mandatory 3 month period.

OM 1 6.8.2.2 Manual Load Statement

262
Q

Where is the fuel policy found?

A

APM

263
Q

Where would you find information about the breakdown of the Flight Management final load sheet?

A

APM

264
Q

Refuelling hazards

A

No engines running
• The aircraft radar must not be operated.
Ground power units must not be connected or disconnected from the aircraft.
• The APU shall not be started or shutdown unless in accordance with FCOM procedures.
•The HF radios shall not be tuned.
The refuelling equipment and the aircraft must be connected such that the same electrical potential exists.
• The PIC shall ensure no person:
Smokes or uses a naked flame within 15 m (50 ft) of the aircraft and fuelling equipment;
• Operates engines, generators or electrical apparatus within 15 m (50 ft) of the aircraft fuel tank filling points or vent outlets and ground fuelling equipment unless the engines, generators or electrical apparatus are required to service the aircraft.

265
Q

Where can we find information regarding the carriage of seat occupied cabin cargo ?

A

OM1 6.8.2.7 Seat Occupied Cabin Cargo

266
Q

Where can we find information regarding the carriage of seat occupied cabin cargo ?

A

OM1 6.8.2.7 Seat Occupied Cabin Cargo

267
Q

Maximal permissible weight of seat cargo ?

A

15kg

268
Q

Fuel spillage

A

Suspend fuelling
Notify ARO or Airport Fire Service if 2m x 2m path or greater or within 15m of the aircraft.
Pax 15m from spill
Vehicles within 15m shutdown
APU not started and APU shutdown must be completed

269
Q

What must crew due after overwing refuelling?

A

Ensure wing fuel cap is secure

270
Q

Can you use your Mobile phone during aircraft loading to contact RLC ?

A

is permitted. Limitations apply to their usage - e.g. not in the vicinity of passengers and while alc is refuelling providing the use is outside a 3 metre radius of any filling and venting points, fuelling equipment or hydrant valve in use.

271
Q

Refuelling with pax onboard

A

No overwing
Stop if fuel Vapour detected inside aircraft
Flight crew advise FA
One cabin member at the main exit door
Seat belts off
Aisle and exists must be unobstructed
Non-ambulatory pax can remain onboard in such numbers that would not significantly delay the rapid disembarkation of all persons if required

272
Q

An infant must be restrained at all times while the seat belt sign is illuminated which may be achieved either by being ?

A

Restrained under a seat belt provided this can be achieved satisfactorily. This requires that the infant is able to support themselves in an upright position with the passenger seatbelt

securely fastened, when required to be worn. In this instance the infant must be at least 6 months old, or
• Seated on an adult passenger’s lap and restrained by an infant seat belt. When an infant is carried in this manner the adult passenger travelling with the nursed infant must be issued with an infant seat belt and instructed on its use, or In an approved Child Restraint System (car seat). Refer CCOM.

6.8.4 Carriage of Infants and Children

273
Q

Can an infant be seated in an exit row ?

A

No

274
Q

What is ISTOP?

A

Introduction
Status of Crew and Aircraft
Turbulence/ Weather conditions
Operational considerations
Password
Threats

275
Q

Operational debrief what to include?

A

Factual, technical and operationally relevant info

276
Q

Are we allowed baby capsules, booster seats and collapsible strollers in the cabin ?

A

No

OM 1 6.8.4.2 Bassinettes and Car Capsules

277
Q

Operational debrief acronym? And info where to find it?

A

6.6.3.1
APPROACH
ASAP
PARTICIPATE
PURPOSE
REVIEW facts
OPERATIONAL factors
ASK if there are any questions
CHECK fitness to fly
HELP see if any further help is required

278
Q

Where to find information on the carriage of personal Oxygen?

A

OM1 6.8.5.1 Carriage of Personal Oxygen

279
Q

Persons in custody definition, where to find it ?

A

OM1 6.8.6 Persons in Custody

280
Q

Sterile flight deck

A

Closure main door until enroute PA
Cabin crew acknowledged prep cabin for landing PA to main entry door opening after landing

281
Q

Do you have to carry a person in Custody?

A

The Pilot in Command is under no obligation to carry a person in custody and if they believe that it is necessary, additional restrictions may be imposed on the carriage of the person in custody.

OM1 6.8.6.2 Refusal of Carriage

282
Q

Critical phase

A

Application of power for takeoff until landing gear is up
Landing gear down until aircraft turns off runway

283
Q

Age of child and infant

A

Child 2 to 13 yrs
Infant less than 2 years

284
Q

Can you serve alcohol to the PIC or Escort ?

A

No

OM1 6.8.6.6 Restrictions

285
Q

How many crew must be onboard for boarding?

A

At least one cabin crew and one flight crew

286
Q

Auto boarding start times?

A

-17mins Sydney
-15mins otherports

287
Q

Where can we find information regarding carriage of Cargo ?

A

OM 1 6.8.7.4 Cargo Handling

6.8.7.5 Cargo Restraints and Precautions

288
Q

What manual does Qantas use for dangerous goods ?

A

The acceptance and carriage of dangerous goods will be in strict accordance with the IATA Dangerous Goods Manual and the Qantas
Group Dangerous Goods Manual.

289
Q

What things should be said over company frequencies on the radio?

A

6.10.6.1
Use pax seat numbers rather than names
Specific maintenance issue details unless you are inbound to an airport with maintenance facilities and may be required
Health and well-being of aircrew unless safety of the aircrew member will be compromised if not done

290
Q

What is PTS?

A

Precision Timing Schedule

291
Q

What time should crew arrive to the aircraft?

A

Not less than 25mins or 30 for first flight

292
Q

Where to find the rules for the carriage of firearms and Ammunition?

A

OM 1 6.8.9
Firearms, Weapons and Ammunition

293
Q

Do we have to report departure delays?

A

They are mandatory

294
Q

How do we know what to do if we have a service dog on board ?

A

OM 1 6.8.10.2 Carriage of Service Animals

295
Q

Min taxi distance

A

At or below normal slow taxiing thrust
15m turbo prop
30m jet

At thrust used to initiate movement of a stationary aircraft
23m
46m

296
Q

• When a single or multi-sector flight has commenced with serviceable TCAS equipment and the equipment subsequently fails what happens ?

A

the flight or series of flights may continue on normal revenue service in any airspace until the flight concludes in a port where maintenance is available.

OM 1 Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System
(TCAS) 6.9.1

297
Q

Do you have to tell ATC that your TCAS Is unserviceable?

A

Yes

298
Q

Can we accept a wake turbulence waiver?

A

No

299
Q

Any on-ground TA or RA indications must be ?

A

in the QL-3 as a NEF for tracking of the affected aircraft.

OM 1 6.9.1.3 TA or RA Alerts on the Ground

300
Q

When operating under an EGPWS/GPWS MEL, the following
conditions apply ?

A

• The aircraft shall not depart with that equipment unserviceable from an aerodrome where facilities are available to repair or replace the ground proximity warning system;
• For a total GPS failure, the destination must be serviced by radar-controlled airspace;
• A Baro-VNAV or RNP-AR approach may only be conducted in any airspace with terrain alerting functions serviceable;
and
• Flight crew are to identify and brief the required risk

6.9.2 Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System
(EGPWS)

301
Q

Radio Failure procedures

A

Emergency Procedures listed in Jepps manual or jepps chart

302
Q

Crew shall seek clarification in the event either crew member expresses ?

A

doubt surrounding an ATC instruction or aircraft intention.

Dash 8 Q300/200 (74 decks)

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