Our Clues 4 Flashcards

1
Q

MEN 3 or 2b

A

Medullary carcinoma of thyroid (= incr calcitonin)

Pheochromocytoma

Marfanoid features, neuroma/ganglioneuroma

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2
Q

What are the 3 syndromes with Marfanoid features?

A

1) Marfan’s
2) MEN 3 or 2b
3) Homocystinuria

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3
Q

Drug cause of osteonecrosis (especially mandible)

A

Bisphosphonates (end in “-nate”)

MOA: inhibit osteoclastic activity
Bind Ca and Mg, causing Hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia

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4
Q

Foregut:
- Blood supply
- Innervation
- What organs?
- Rotation?

A

Blood supply: celiac trunk

Innervation: sympathetic = T5-9, parasympathetic = vagus

Organs: Lungs & GI tract = mouth to 2nd part of duodenum

Rotation: 90 degrees

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5
Q

Midgut:
- Blood supply
- Innervation
- What organs
- Rotation?

A

Blood supply: superior mesenteric artery

Innervation: sympathetic = T9-12, parasympathetic = vagus

Organs: 2nd part of duodenum to splenic flexure

Rotation? 270 degrees counterclockwise from yolk sac via dynein/kinesin

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6
Q

Hindgut:
- Blood supply
- Innervation
- What organs?
- Rotation?

A

Blood supply: inferior mesenteric artery

Innervation: sympathetic = L1-2, parasympathetic = splanchnic nerve

Organs: Splenic flexure to anus

No rotation, just septation

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7
Q

Causes of incr amniotic fluid (polyhydramnios)
- autonomic dysfunction
- neuromuscular disease
- unable to digest

A

Riley-Day Syndrome
- cannot swallow
- familial dysautonomia
- baby cries w/o tears

Werdnig-Hoffman Syndrome
- cannot swallow
- floppy baby with fasciculations

UGI atresia
- esophagus
- duodenal

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8
Q

Causes of decr amniotic fluid (= Oligohydramnios)

A

Fetus cannot pee

Renal agenesis
- associated with ACE inhibitor use in mom

Bladder obstruction

Metanephros did not develop -> Potter syndrome

Ureteric bud fails to make contact with metanephros -> Potter syndrome

Posterior urethral valves

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9
Q

What is the hunger center of hypothalamus?
What is the satiety center of hypothalamus?

A

Hunger center -> lateral nucleus
(Stimulated by decr glucose or NT (NE, serotonin) 20%)

Satiety center -> Ventromedial
(Stimulated by incr glucose, gastric stretch, or NT (NE, serotonin) 80%)

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10
Q

Dx with aggressive appetite, where they typically die from overeating?
(What is the genetic component?)

A

Prader-Willi
- Lesion of satiety center (= ventromedial nucleus of hypothalamus)
- uniparental disomy
- genomic imprinting
- trinucleotide repeats
- chromosome 15

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11
Q

DOC for ADHD
- MOA
- side effects

A

Methylphenidate

Amphetamine -> taken up presynaptically => causes release of catecholamines (incr DA, NE, 5-HT)

SE: vertical nystagmus (all amphetamines) and hypogognic hallucinations

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12
Q

How to differentiate amphetamines

A

All cause vertical/rotary nystagmus

Methylphenidate -> hypogognic hallucinations (go to sleep)

LSD -> colorful hallucinations

PCP -> violent, aggression, hallucinations from serotonin

Ecstasy -> excessive thirst, hallucinations from serotonin

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13
Q

Differentiate type (serous/mucus) and nerve:
Salivary Glands

  • parotid
  • lingual
  • sublingual
  • submandibular
A

Parotid: serous (CN IX)

Lingual: mixed, mostly serous (CN VII)

Sublingual: mixed, mostly mucus (CN VII)

Submandibular: mucus (CN VII)

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14
Q

MOA of Cimetidine

A

H2 blocker, w/ famotidine, nizatidine, ranitidine

MOA: block H2 to decr HCl secretion

Use: mild GERD, gastritis

SE: gas, nausea, vomiting

Cimetidine inhibits cyp450

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15
Q

MOA of lansoprazole

A

PPI = proton pump inhibitor
Ends in “-prazole”

MOA: block 90% production of acid in parietal cells

Use: PUD, severe GERD, H pylori

SE: bleeding, bloating, gas

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16
Q

What is the only pancreatic enzyme that cuts to the left?

A

Carboxypeptidases
(Cuts to the left of carboxy terminal)

17
Q

Cutting locations for Pancreatic Enzymes:
- trypsin
- elastase
- chymotrypsin
- amylase

A

Trypsin (trip to LA): to the right of Lys, Arg

Elastase (is GAS): to the right of Gly, Ala, Ser

Chymotrypsin (o for aromatic ring): to the right of Phe, Tyr, Trp

Amylase: breaks down alpha-1,4 bonds

18
Q

Which bilirubin causes jaundice?

A

Unconjugated (= Indirect)
-> It’s fat soluble, leading to distribution to tissues

(Conjugated (= Direct) is water soluble, therefore no jaundice)

19
Q

Dx with increased unconjugated bilirubin:

Crigler-Najjar Type 1

A
  • autosomal recessive
  • complete deficiency of UDP-glucuronyl transferase
20
Q

Dx with increased unconjugated bilirubin:

Crigler-Najjar type 2

A
  • partial deficiency of UDP-glucuronyl transferase
21
Q

Dx with increased unconjugated bilirubin:

Gilbert’s syndrome

A

In stress, glucuronyl transferase becomes saturated

22
Q

Dx with increased conjugated bilirubin:
Rotor’s syndrome

A
  • mild compared to Dubin-Johnson
  • defective bilirubin transport
  • Rotor = Regular liver, d/t absence of black pigment
23
Q

Dx with increased conjugated bilirubin:
Dubin-Johnson syndrome

A
  • defective bilirubin transport
  • Dublin = Dark liver b/c black pigment
24
Q

Dx with increased conjugated bilirubin:
Cholestatic Jaundice

A

D/t Post-hepatic obstruction

25
Name the gallstone: - white/yellow, radiolucent - black/green, radiopaque - brown
- cholesterol = white/yellow, radiolucent (80%) - calcium bilirubinate = black/green, radiopaque - infectious = brown -> salmonella, E. coli
26
Which fatty acid does not require lacteals for absorption?
Medium-chain FA - cross intestinal wall by binding to albumin - then transported to the liver (Short and long chain FA are absorbed through lacteals with chylomicrons)
27
MOA of cholestyramine
Bile-acid resin = cholestyramine, colestipol MOA: bind up bile salts and pulls out cholesterol for excretion. (With no cholesterol, the liver pulls more from the plasma) Use: hypercholesterolemia SE: steatorrhea, gallstones
28
MOA of Niacin
MOA: - inhibits lipolysis - major incr of HDL - decr TG - inhibits hepatic VLDL production SE: - flushed face (incr PGs) -> give with ASA - elev histamine - elev insulin resistance (incr gout)
29
MOA of Bortezomib Downregulates?
26S Proteasome inhibitor Downregulates MHC I Decr interaction with CD 8+ T lymphocytes Use: multiple myeloma