Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

What is a neutrophil?

A

The Phagocyte
(Has anti-microbials, most abundant)

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2
Q

What is an Eosinophil?

A

The Parasite Destroyer
Also, an allergy inducer

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3
Q

What is a Basophil?

A

The Allergy Helper
(IgE receptor => histamine release)

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4
Q

What is a Monocyte?

A

The Destroyer = the MP
(Hydrolytic enzymes, coffee-bean nucleus)

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5
Q

What is a Lymphocyte?

A

The Warrior
= T, B, NK cells

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6
Q

What is a Platelet?

A

The Clotter
(No nuclei, smallest cells)

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7
Q

What is a Blast?

A

Baby hematopoietic cell

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8
Q

What is a Band?

A

Baby neutrophil

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9
Q

What does high WBC and high PMNs tell you?

A

Stress demargination

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10
Q

What does high WBC and <5% blasts tell you?

A

Leukemoid reaction
Seen in burn patients
(Extreme demargination, looks like leukemia)

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11
Q

What does high WBC and >5% blasts tell you?

A

Leukemia

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12
Q

What does high WBC and bands tell you?

A

Left shift => infection present

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13
Q

Hat does high WBC and B cells tell you?

A

Bacterial infection

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14
Q

What diseases have high eosinophils?

A

NAACP
- Neoplasm (lymphoma)
- Allergy/Asthma
- Addison’s disease (no cortisol -> relative eosinophilia)
- collagen vascular disease
- parasites

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15
Q

What disease have high monocytes? (>15%)

A

“STELS”
- syphilis: chancre, rash, warts
- TB: hemoptysis, night sweats
- EBV: teenager sick for a month
- Listeria: baby who is sick
- Salmonella: food

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16
Q

What do high reticulocytes (>1%) tell you?

A

RBC being destroyed peripherally

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17
Q

What is poikilocytosis?

A

Different shapes

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18
Q

What is anisocytosis?

A

Different sizes

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19
Q

What is the RBC lifespan?

A

120 days

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20
Q

What is the platelet lifespan?

A

7 days

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21
Q

What does “-penia” tell you?

A

Low levels
(Usually d/t virus or drugs)

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22
Q

What does “-cytosis” tell you?

A

High levels

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23
Q

What does “-cythemia” tell you?

A

High levels

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24
Q

What is the difference between plasma and serum?

A

Plasma: no RBC
Serum: no RBC or fibrinogen

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25
Q

What is a Chronic granulomatous disease?

A

NADPH oxidase deficiency
-> recurrent Staph/Aspergillus infections
(Nitro blue Tetrazolium stain negative)

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26
Q

What does MPO deficiency cause?

A

Catalase pos infections

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27
Q

What is Chediak-Higashi?

A

Lazy leukocyte syndrome
(Lysosomes are slow to fuse around bacteria)

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28
Q

What organ can make RBCs if the long bones are damaged?

A

Spleen
(Leading to splenomegaly)

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29
Q

What causes a shift to the right in the Hb curve?

A

“all CADETs face right”
- elevated CO2
- Acid/Altitude (= low pH)
- elevated 2,3-Dpg
- Exercise
- Temp

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30
Q

How does CO poison Hb?

A

Competitive inhibitor of O2 on Hb

Cherry-red lips
Pinkish skin hue

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31
Q

How does cyanide poison Hb?

A

Non-competitive inhibitor of O2 on Hb

Almond breath

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32
Q

What is MetHb?

A

Hb w/ Fe3+

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33
Q

What is acute intermittent porphyria?

A

Elevated porphyrin
Elevated urine d-ALA
Elevated porphobilinogen

Abdominal pain
Neuropathy
Red urine

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34
Q

What is porphyria cutanea tarda?

A

D/t sunlight

Skin blisters w/ porphyrin deposits
Wood’s

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35
Q

What is erythrocytic protoporphyria?

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda in a baby

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36
Q

What is sickle cell disease?

A

Homozygous HbS (beta chain mutation at position 6: Glu -> Val)

Vaso-occlusion
Necrosis
Dactylitis (painful fingers/toes) at 6 mo
Protects against malaria

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37
Q

What is Sickle cell trait?

A

Heterozygous HbS

Painless hematuria
Sickle with extreme hypoxia
(Cannot be pilot, fireman, diver)

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38
Q

What is HbC disease?

A

Hb mutation in beta chain at position 6 (Glu -> Lys)

Still charged => no sickling

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39
Q

What is alpha thalassemia?

A

1 deletion: normal
2 deletions “trait”: microcytic anemia
3 deletions: hemolytic anemia, HbH (= 4 beta chains)
4 deletions: hydrops fetalis, HbBart (= 4 gamma chains)

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40
Q

What is beta thalassemia?

A

1 deletion = “beta minor” = HbA2 + HbF
2 deletions = “trait/intermedia/major” = only HbA2 and HbF => hypoxia at 6 mo

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41
Q

What is Cooley’s anemia?

A

See w/ beta-thalassemia major (no HbA => excess RBC production)

Baby making blood from everywhere
=> frontal bossing, hepatosplenomegaly, long extremities

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42
Q

What is Virchow’s triad?

A

Thrombosis risk factors:
- turbulent blood flow “slow”
- hypercoaguable “sticky”
- vessel wall damage “escapes”

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43
Q

What does acute hypoxia cause?

A

Shortness of breath

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44
Q

What does chronic hypoxia cause?

A

Clubbing of fingers/toes

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45
Q

What is intravascular hemolysis?

A

RBC destroyed in blood vv.
-> low haptoglobin

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46
Q

What is extravascular hemolysis?

A

RBC destroyed in spleen (problem w/ RBC membrane)
=> splenomegaly

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47
Q

What enzymes need lead (Pb)?

A

d-ALA dehydratase
Ferrochelatase

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48
Q

What does EDTA bind?

A

Any heavy metals with 2+ charge
(Lead, Iron, Calcium, Magnesium)

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49
Q

What disease has a smooth philtrum?

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome

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50
Q

What disease has a long philtrum?

A

William’s Syndrome
(Deletion on chromosome 7)

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51
Q

What disease has sausage digits?

A

Pseudo-hypoparathyroidism
Psoriatic arthritis

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52
Q

What disease has 6 fingers?

A

Trisomy 13
(Patau Syndrome)

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53
Q

What disease has 2-jointed thumbs?

A

Diamond-Blackfan

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54
Q

What disease has painful fingers?
(= “dactylitis”)

A

Sickle cell disease

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55
Q

What are the Microcytic Hypochromic anemias?

A

“FASTT LEAD”
- Fe deficiency = elev TIBC, menses, GI bleed, koilonychia
- Anemia of chronic disease = decr TIBC
- Sideroblastic anemia = decr d-ALA synthase, blood transfusions
- alpha-Thalassemia = AA, Asians (Chr 16 deletion)
- beta-Thalassemia = Mediterraneans (Chr 11 point mutation)
- Lead poisoning = decr d-ALA dehydratase, decr ferrochelatase, blue line on x-ray, eating old paint chips

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56
Q

What are the megaloblastic anemias?

A

Vit B12 deficiency
Folate deficiency
Alcohol

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57
Q

Megaloblastic anemia:
Vit B12 deficiency

A

d/t tapeworms, vegans, Type A gastritis, pernicious anemia

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58
Q

Megaloblastic anemia:
Folate deficiency

A

d/t old food, glossitis

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59
Q

Megaloblastic anemia:
Alcohol

A

Seen w/ fetal alcohol syndrome
- smooth philtrum
- stuff doesn’t grow

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60
Q

What are the Intravascular Hemolytic anemias?

A

G6PD deficiency
Cold autoimmune

Problem w/ IgM

61
Q

Intravascular Hemolytic anemia:
G6PD deficiency

A

d/t sulfa drugs, moth balls, fava beans
See a sudden drop in Hb

62
Q

Intravascular Hemolytic anemia:
Cold autoimmune

A

Seen with:
- mononucleosis
- mycoplasma infections
- RBC agglutination

63
Q

What are the Extravascular Hemolytic anemias?

A

Spherocytosis
Warm autoimmune
Paroxysmal cold autoimmune
Sickle cell anemia

Problem w/ IgG

64
Q

Extravascular Hemolytic anemia:
Spherocytosis

A

Defective spherin or ankyrin
Pos osmotic fragility test

65
Q

Extravascular Hemolytic anemia:
Warm autoimmune

A

Anti-Rh Ab
Dapsone
PTU
Anti-malarials
Sulfa drugs

66
Q

Extravascular Hemolytic anemia:
Paroxysmal cold autoimmune

A

Bleeds after cold exposure
Donath-Landsteiner Ab

67
Q

Extravascular Hemolytic anemia:
Sickle cell anemia

A

Crew haircut on X-ray
Avascular necrosis of femur
Short fingers

68
Q

What are the Production Anemias?

A

Diamond-Blackfan
Aplastic anemia

69
Q

Production anemias:
Diamond-Blackfan

A

No RBCs
2-jointed thumbs

70
Q

Production anemias:
Aplastic anemias

A

Pancytopenia
Autoimmune
d/t benzene, AZT, CAM, radiation

71
Q

What is basophilic stippling?

A

Lots of immature cells
Incr mRNA
d/t lead poisoning

72
Q

What is a burr cell (=echinocyte)?

A

Seen in:
- Pyruvate kinase deficiency
- liver disease
- post-splenectomy

73
Q

What is a Bite cell (= basket cell)?

A

Seen in:
- unstable Hb inclusions (such as G6PD deficiency)

74
Q

What is Cabot’s ring body?

A

Seen in:
- vit B12 deficiency
- lead poisoning

75
Q

What is a Doehle body?

A

Seen in:
PMN leukocytosis
- infection
- steroids
- tumor

76
Q

What is a Drepanocyte?

A

Seen in:
Sickle cell anemia

77
Q

What is a Helmet cell?

A

Fragmented RBC

Seen in: hemolysis
- DIC
- HUS
- TTP

78
Q

What is a Heinz body?

A

Hb precipitates and sticks to cell membranes

Seen in G6PD deficiency

79
Q

What is a Howell-Jolly body?

A

Spleen or bone marrow should have removed nuclei fragments

  • hemolytic anemia
  • spleen trauma
  • cancer
80
Q

What is a Pappenheimer body?

A

Iron precipitated inside cell

Seen in: sideroblastic anemia

81
Q

What is a Pencil cell (= cigar cell)?

A

Seen in iron deficiency anemia

82
Q

What is a Rouleaux formation associated with?

A

Multiple myeloma

83
Q

What is a Schistocyte?

A

Broken RBC

Seen in: DIC & artificial heart valves

84
Q

What is a sideroblast?

A

Macrophages pregnant w/ Fe
(d/t genetic or multiple transfusions)

85
Q

What is a spherocyte?

86
Q

What is a spur cell (=acanthocytes)?

A

RBCs covered in lipids

(High serum lipids)

87
Q

What is a stomatocyte associated with?

A

Liver disease

88
Q

What does a target cell (= codocyte) indicate?

A

Less Hb
- thalassemias
- Fe deficiency

89
Q

What is a teardrop cell (= dacrocyte)?

A

RBCs squeezed out of bone marrow

Seen in hemolytic anemia, any diseases that make RBCs come out of bone marrow too fast)

90
Q

What is the purpose of the clotting cascade?

A

How the body stops bleeding

91
Q

What clotting factors use Vitamin K as a cofactor?

A

2, 7, 9, 10, protein C, protein S

92
Q

What do platelet problems cause?

A

Bleeding from skin and mucosa

93
Q

What do clotting factor problems cause?

A

Bleeding into cavities

94
Q

What causes increased PTT and bleeding time?

A

Von Willebrand disease
Lupus

95
Q

What is Bernard-Soulier?

A

Baby w/ bleeding from skin and mucosa
Big platelets

Low Gp 1b

96
Q

What is Glanzmann’s?

A

Baby w/ bleeding from skin and mucosa

Low Gp 2b/3a

97
Q

How does Factor 13 deficiency present?

A

Umbilical stump bleeding

(1st time baby has to stabilize a clot)

98
Q

What is Factor V Leiden?

A

Protein C can’t break down Factor V
=> more clots

99
Q

How does Von Willebrand disease present?

A

Heavy menstrual bleeding
Easy bruising
Petechiae
Bleeding of gums
Prolonged bleeding from minor injuries

100
Q

What are the types of vWD?

A

Type 1 (AD): decr vWF production
Type 2 (AD): decr vWF production (pos Ristocetin aggregation test)
Type 3 (AR): no vWF

101
Q

What is a hemophilia A?

A

Defective Factor VIII (<40% activity)
=> bleed into cavities (head, abdomen, etc.)

102
Q

What is Hemophilia B?

A

Factor IX deficiency
=> bleed into joints (knee, etc.)

103
Q

What diseases have low LAP?

104
Q

What has high LAP?

A

Leukemoid reaction

105
Q

What is the difference between acute and chronic leukemias?

A

Acute
- started in bone marrow
- squeezes RBC out of marrow

Chronic
- started in periphery
- not constrained => will expand

106
Q

What is the difference between myeloid and lymphoid leukemias?

A

Myeloid
- elev RBC
- elev WBC
- elev platelets
- elev macrophages
- decr lymphocytes
=> do bone marrow biopsy

Lymphoid
- elev NK cells
- elev T cells
- elev B cells
- decr myeloid cells
=> do lymph node biopsy

107
Q

What defines ALL?

A

<15 yo males
Bone pain
PAS stain positive
TdT stain positive

108
Q

What defines AML?

A

15-30 yo males
Sudan stain
Auer rods

109
Q

What defines CML?

A

30-50 yo females
t(9;22) “Philadelphia chromosome”
Bcr-abl
Decr LAP

110
Q

What defines CLL?

A

> 50 yo males w/ lymphadenopathy
“Soccer ball” nuclei
Smudge cells

111
Q

What defines Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

EBV
May have Reed-Sternberg cells

112
Q

What are the B-cell Non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas?

A

Follicular
- t(14;18)
- bcl

Burkitt
- t(8;14)
- c-myc
- starry sky MP
- American kids: abdominal mass
- African kids: jaw mass

113
Q

What are the T-cell Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphomas?

A

Mycosis fungoides
- total body rash

Sezary syndrome
- cerebreform nuclei

114
Q

What is polycythemia Vera?

A

Hct >60%
Decr Erythropoietin
Seen with Budd Chiari
Plethoric “pruritus after bathing

115
Q

What is essential thrombocythemia?

A

Very high platelets
Stainable Fe
Decr c-mpl

116
Q

What are characteristics of myelofibrosis?

A

Megakaryocytes
Fibrotic marrow => teardrop cells
Extramedullary hematopoiesis

117
Q

What are plasma cytomas?

A

Produce lots of Ab

118
Q

What are manifestations of Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia?

A

IgM
Hyperviscous

119
Q

How does monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS) present?

A

Old person w/ gamma spike

120
Q

What are manifestations of multiple myeloma?

A

Serum M protein (IgG)
Bence-Jones protein in urine
Rouleaux formation
Punched-out lesions

121
Q

What is heavy chain disease?

A

Increased IgA
Infiltration of bowel wall

122
Q

What are manifestations of histocytosis X?

A

Kid w/ eczema
Skull lesions
Diabetes insipidus
Exophthalmus

123
Q

What does the Coombs test tell you?

A

Ab involved against RBC

124
Q

What does the direct Coombs test tell you?

A

Ab on surface of RBCs => hemolytic anemias

125
Q

What does the indirect Coombs test tell you?

A

Ab in serum

126
Q

What is a “type and cross”?

A

So you know you can use that blood, and then save it for a specific patient

127
Q

What is a “type and match”?

A

Type it, and then wait

128
Q

What is forward typing?

A

“FABulous”
Uses Ab to detect Ag

129
Q

What is backward typing?

A

Uses Ag to detect Ab

130
Q

What does blood type A tell you?

A

Have the A antigen

131
Q

What does blood type O tell you?

A

Have no antigens
Universal donor

132
Q

What does blood type AB tell you?

A

Have both antigens
Universal recipient

133
Q

What does Rh+ tell you?

A

Has D antigen

134
Q

What does Rh- tell you?

A

Does not have D antigen

135
Q

What is Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn?

A

Rh neg mother
Placenta tears => 100cc baby’s blood sees mom/produces Ab => attacks fetus

136
Q

What is RHOGAM?

A

Anti-D IgG

137
Q

When do you give RHOGAM?

A

1st dose: after delivery of 1st baby
2nd dose: week 28 of any subsequent pregnancy

138
Q

What is the most common transplant?

139
Q

What is a syngenic transplant?

A

Twin-to-twin

140
Q

What is an autograft?

A

Self-to-self transplant

141
Q

What is an allograft?

A

Human-to-human transplant

142
Q

What is a xenograft?

A

1 species to another species

143
Q

What is hyperacute rejection?

A

Within 12 hours (d/t preformed Ab)

144
Q

What is acute rejection?

A

4 days to years later
(d/t T-cells and macrophages)

145
Q

What is chronic rejection?

A

> 7 days
(See fibroblasts)

146
Q

What is graft vs. host disease?

A

Bone marrow transplants reject
(d/t cytotoxic T cells, macrophages)

147
Q

What are immunoprivileged sites?

A

No lymphatic flow
=> no Ag
=> easy to transplant (brain, cornea, thymus, testes)

148
Q

What is INR?

A

Measured PT/Control PT