Our Clues 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the infections that cause cold agglutination?
(Elev IgM titers)

A

Cryoglobulinemia

I AM HE
- Influenza
- Adenovirus
- Mycoplasma
- Hepatitis B & C
- EBV

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2
Q

Most common viral cause of bronchiolitis/croup

Most severe viral cause of bronchiolitis/croup

Other viral causes of bronchiolitis/croup

A

Parainfluenza (80%) - mild

RSV (15%) - severe, hospitalized

Adenovirus & influenza

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3
Q

Most common causes of cystitis

A

Adenovirus
- virus always #1 cause

E. coli
Proteus
Klebsiella

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4
Q

Most common viral cause of gastroenteritis
- adults
- children
- recent travel

A

Adenovirus

Rotavirus (not immunized)
Norovirus (immunized)

Norwalk agent

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5
Q

Most common viral cause of myocarditis and pericarditis

A

Coxsackie B

Myo
- leads to loss of contractility (S3 murmur)
- diffuse ST depression

Peri
- causes friction or triphasic rub
- may lead to cardiac tamponade
- diffuse ST elevation

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6
Q

Which hepatitis is the only DNA virus?

A

Hepatitis B
- DNA hepadnavirus

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7
Q

Which hepatitis is associated with high mortality in pregnant women?

A

Hepatitis E
- RNA HepEvirus

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8
Q

Which hepatitis is associated with shellfish?

A

Hepatitis A
- RNA picornavirus
- Councilman bodies on liver biopsy

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9
Q

Why does hepatitis D require coinfection with hepatitis B?

A

Hep D uses Hep B surface antigen

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10
Q

How would you differentiate chronic hepatitis C from active vs persistent?
Treatment?

A

Chronic Active Hep C
- pos inflammation
- pos fibrosis
- incr risk cirrhosis & cancer

Treatment: Ledipsavir/sofosbuvir combo

Chronic Persistent Hep C
- elevated liver enzymes or persistent symptoms >6 mo
- neg inflammation
- neg fibrosis

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11
Q

What stage of hepatitis B?
- neg HBeAg
- pos anti-HBc
- neg active inflammation
- neg fibrosis
- pos elevated liver enzymes >6 mo

Transmission risk?

A

Chronic persistent hepatitis

Transmission: No, b/c no HBsAg or HBeAg

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12
Q

What stage of hepatitis B?
- pos anti-HBs
- pos HBsAg
- pos anti-HBc
- pos HBeAg
- pos symptoms >6 mo
- pos active inflammation
- pos fibrosis

Transmission risk?

A

Chronic active hepatitis

Transmission: yes, has both HBeAg and HBsAg

Incr risk of cancer & cirrhosis

Treatment: interferon & lamivudine

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13
Q

What stage of hepatitis B?
- pos HBsAg >6 mo
- neg active inflammation
- neg fibrosis

Transmission risk?

A

Chronic carrier state

Yes, still pose a threat to others
d/t pos HBsAg, which is the infective antigen

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14
Q

Which hepatitis B serum marker(s) indicate infectivity?
Abbreviation?

A

Hepatitis envelope antigen
(HBeAg)

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15
Q

Which hepatitis B serum marker(s) indicate a current infection?
Abbreviation?

A

Surface antiGEN (HBsAg)
- infective antigen

Core antiBODY (anti-HBc)

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16
Q

Which hepatitis B serum marker(s) indicate a previous infection?
Abbreviation?

A

Core antiBODY (anti-HBc)

Does it go away?
Once positive, it’s present for life, so it alone does NOT indicate a current infection, only previous infection

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17
Q

Which hepatitis B serum marker(s) indicate immunity?
Abbreviation?

A

Surface antiBODY (anti-HBs)

Core antiBODY (anti-HBc)

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18
Q

Which hepatitis B serum marker is indicative of vaccination?
Abbreviation?

A

Surface antibody (anti-HBs)

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19
Q

Which hepatitis B serum marker shows up first?
Abbreviation?

A

Core antigen (HBc)

Rises and falls before any symptoms arrive

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20
Q

DA-CEP
What are the bacteria that are ADP-ribosylaters?

A

EF 2
- Diphtheria
- Aeruginosa

G subunit
- Cholera (Gs)
- E. coli = ETEC (Gs)
- Pertussis (Gi)

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21
Q

What is the only Gram pos cocci in clusters?

A

Staphylococcus family
- aureus -> coag pos, gold pigment
- epidermitis -> white pigment
- saprophyticus -> no pigment

Enzymes
- catalase -> separates strep

22
Q

What bacteria looks like Chinese letters?

A

Corynebacterium Diphtheriae

23
Q

Dx of bacteria that has a toxin, allowing the ADP to ribosylate EF2

A
  • Corynebacterium diphtheriae
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
24
Q

What bacteria are spore farmers?

A

Be Careful (of spores)
- Bacillus
- Clostridium

25
Q

How do you remove spores?

A

Autoclave
(121 C vaporized heat for at least 15 minutes)

26
Q

Dx of Wool Sorters’ Disease
- membrane component?
- contains what toxins?

A

Bacillus anthracis (anthrax)
- membrane -> poly D-Glu
- toxins
1) lethal factor
2) edema factor
3) protective factor

27
Q

Dx of GI upset within 8 hours of eating fried rice

A

Bacillus cereus
- self-limiting
- hydration

28
Q

Dx of gas gangrene

A

Clostridium perfringens

(Associated w/ holiday ham or turkey)
(Increased risk in diabetics)

29
Q

What are the encapsulated bugs that have IgA protease?

A

Strep pneumo
H influenzae
Neisseria (Moraxella) catarrhalis
Influenza (virus)

30
Q

Dx of only Gram neg pleomorphic rods

A

Haemophilus
(Also described as a school of fish)

31
Q

What diseases affect the apex of the heart?

A

Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

Chagas’ disease

32
Q

What constipation meds promote peristalsis?

A

Bisacodyl
Dulcolax

33
Q

What is a gram pos anaerobe?

A

Propionibacterium acne

34
Q

What is the only bacteria that releases endotoxin while dividing?
What phase?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

Log phase
(b/c it has the largest capsule)

“Neisseria is not so nice”

35
Q

In what phase of bacterial life cycle is the most endotoxin released?
Except?

A

Decline phase

Except Neisseria meningitidis
- endotoxin released in log phase

36
Q

What are the important catalase positive bacteria?

A

Staph aureus
Pseudomonas
Neisseria
Listeria

37
Q

What bacteria stain with Ziehl-Neilson (acid-fast)?

A

Completely acid fast
- Mycobacterium

Partially acid fast
- gram pos -> Nocardia
- Protozoa -> cryptosporidium

38
Q

What is the most abundant granulocyte?

A

Neutrophils
- arrive: 4.5 hours
- predominate: 24 hours
- peak at: 3 days

Contains myeloperoxidase and NADPH oxidase

39
Q

Abscess culture bacteria?
Day 1-3
Day 3-7
After day 7

A

Staph aureus
Strep pyogenes
Anaerobes

40
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice…
- above the diaphragm?
- below the diaphragm?

A
  • Clindamycin
  • metronidazole
41
Q

Clues to anaerobic infections

A

Malodorous smell

Gas formation
-> on imaging: “fluid-gas levels” or “air-fluid levels”

42
Q

What does a CD4 marker indicate?

A

Monocytes

(Which are in circulation)

43
Q

What does a CD14 marker indicate?

A

Macrophages

(Which are monocytes that have now entered into tissues)
(Mediated by interferon gamma)

44
Q

Most common cause of monocytosis

A

Monocytosis >15%
- salmonella
- tuberculosis
- EBV (anti-heterophile pos)
- CMV (anti-heterophile neg)
- listeria
- syphilis

45
Q

What is the 1st antibody made by B cells?
In allergies?

A

IgM

Can only get IgE from IgM from class switching

46
Q

What is most severe bronchoconstrictor?
(What is drug to stop?)
(What is enzyme to stop?)

A

SRS-A = slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis

Most potent bronchoconstrictor and vasoconstrictor

Drug to stop? Steroids
Enzyme to stop? Arylsulfatase

47
Q

What enzyme is needed to make any fluid in body?
(And what is the drug that blocks it?)

A

Carbonic anhydrase

Acetazolamide

48
Q

Which H2 blocker blocks p450?

A

Cimetidine

(Incr estrogen causing gynecomastia)

49
Q

Which H2 blocker is associated with colon cancer?

A

Ranitidine

50
Q

Causes of eosinophilia

A

NAACP
- neoplasias, especially lymphoma
- allergies
- Addison’s disease
- collagen vascular diseases
- parasites