NAVPERS 15665I Flashcards

1
Q

NAVPERS 15665I

A

U.S. NAVY UNIFORM REGULATIONS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who issues the U.S. Navy Uniform Regulations?

A

CNO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Historically, uniforms have been the product of a sailor’s environment: Which included what three factors?

A

Physical, geographical, and technical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Historically, what were women’s uniforms designed to duplicate?

A

Civilian fashion trends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which type of headgear may be left on indoors?

A

Tiaras

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What type of uniforms must not be worn when operating in any operating fire room?

A

100% Polyester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which executive order delegated the authority to prescribe the quantity and kind of clothing or cash allowances in lieu of clothing, for enlisted personnel, to the Secretary of Defense?

A

10113

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which directive outlines uniform allowances policies and regulations?

A

DOD Directive 1338.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which manual is the authority for clothing allowance payments?

A

Department of Defense Military Pay and Allowances Entitlements Manual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What type of cash allowance is provided for replacing a minimum quantity of each required uniform that is paid over the estimated useful life of the articles?

A

CRA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring uniform policy compliance as issued by the prescribing authority regarding liberty parties and members of the command operating ashore?

A

SOPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which uniform may be worn during any season when traveling on leave, TAD or transfer?

A

Service Dress Blues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Who may authorize working uniforms in specific geographic regions or situations when warranted by local conditions?

A

Area coordinators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What should personnel traveling overseas consult for any particular uniform or civilian clothing requirements for their destination?

A

DoD Foreign Clearance Guide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which publication should Navy personnel in a duty, leave, or liberty status consult when traveling on commercial international flights to determine what appropriate uniform or civilian clothing is required?

A

USAF Foreign Clearance Guide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which uniform may not be worn when commuting to and from work?

A

Navy Blue Coveralls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the direct route from a place of residence to place of work by the means of a private vehicle including all travel aboard DOD-owned/controlled aircraft referred to as?

A

Commuting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are personnel not allowed to consume while wearing NWUs off base?

A

Alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Within the National Capital Region (NCR) the NWU is authorized for wear at all locations with the exception of inside the pentagon building, national mall area bounded by capitol hill and surrounding senate and house offices, the white house and executive office building, state department and all what?

A

Monuments and memorials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

hich uniform is not authorized for wear during commercial travel (e.g. airlines, railways, or bus, etc.) but is authorized on commuter transportation (e.g. Metrorail, metro bus, commuter bus, VRE, ferries)?

A

NWU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Who must authorize tan flight suits to be worn in CONUS in hot weather environments?

A

TYCOM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which U.S. Navy Regulations article states that no person in the Naval service shall have any article of wearing apparel belonging to any other person in the naval service without permission from proper authority?

A

Article 1161

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which section of Title 10, U.S. Code stipulates that no one person except members of the Army, Navy, Air Force, or Marine Corps, may wear uniform which has components similar to distinctive parts of Army, Navy, Air Force or Marine Corps uniforms?

A

771

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which medal, if awarded, allows personnel to wear their uniform at any time except under specific circumstances?

A

Medal of Honor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The Secretary of the Navy prescribed the following distinctive mark for members of military societies which are composed entirely of honorably discharged officers and enlisted personnel and the instructors and members of duly organized cadet corps. This distinctive mark is a diamond, how many inches long in the vertical axis, made of any fabric, white on blue, forestry green, or khaki clothing and blue on white clothing?

A

3.5”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What should the U.S. Flag never be used for?

A

Advertising

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the minimum items which must be worn on uniforms unless the prescribing authority directs otherwise?

A

Basic uniform components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which type of uniform items may be directed or authorized for wear with the basic uniform?

A

Prescribable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which type of uniform items are purchased at the wearer’s expense which may be worn with the basic uniform but are not prescribable?

A

Optional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a style called that is followed for a short period of time with exaggerated zeal?

A

Faddish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Who must authorize the fabrics to be used for manufacturing Naval uniforms?

A

Chief of Naval Operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Who ensures that specifications for all articles of uniform and insignia prescribed for naval personnel are prepared and maintained for approval of the Chief of Naval Operations?

A

Commander, Naval Supply Systems Command

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is charged by the CNO to continually review all Navy uniform matters?

A

Navy Uniform Board

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How many communication devices may be worn at the same time on uniforms which can only be worn on the belt of the working and service uniforms aft of the elbow?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which type of uniform does not permit the wear of communication devices?

A

Service dress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Black, matching NWU Type I pattern, along with what else are the authorized backpack colors that may be worn with uniforms?

A

Navy blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What situation prohibits personnel from wearing conservative sunglasses?

A

Military formations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What type of solution may be used to brighten embroidered insignia?

A

Diluted ammonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Hair above the ears and around the neck shall be tapered from the lower natural hairline upwards at least 3/4 inch and outward not greater than what length to blend with hair-style for men?

A

3/4 inch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How many inches is the maximum length for Men’s hair?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Approximately how many inches will the bulk of mens hair not exceed?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is defined as the distance that the mass of hair protrudes from the scalp?

A

Bulk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What part of the ear will sideburns not extend past?

A

Middle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When a womans hairstyle of multiple braids is worn, the braids shall be of uniform dimension, small in diameter (approx. what size), and tightly interwoven to present a neat, professional, well groomed appearance?

A

1/4 inch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the maximum length that womens hair may extend past the top of the jumper collar?

A

1.5”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the maximum length that the bulk of womens hair as measured from the scalp can be?

A

2”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the maximum number of small barrettes, combs, or clips that are similar to the members hair color that may be used in womens hair?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The face shall be clean shaven unless a shaving waiver is authorized by the Commanding Officer per what instruction?

A

BUPERSINST 1000.22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Mustaches shall not go beyond a horizontal line extending across the corners of the mouth and no more than what distance beyond a vertical line drawn from the corner of the mouth?

A

1/4 inch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the maximum length that an individual mustache hair that is fully extended can be?

A

1/2 inch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

If a shaving waiver is authorized, no facial/neck hair shall be shaved, manicured, styled or outlined nor exceed what length?

A

1/4 inch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What form shall Female Service Members submit to their Commanding Officer to express their desire to obtain permanent makeup?

A

NAVPERS 1336/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Fingernails shall not extend past what distance for males?

A

Fingertips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the maximum fingernail length measured from the fingertip that females can have?

A

1/4 inch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

While in uniform, only one ring per hand is authorized, plus a wedding/engagement ring set. Rings are not authorized to be worn on what fingers?

A

Thumbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

For women, one earring per ear (centered on earlobe) may be worn while in uniform. Earrings shall be what size ball, plain with shiny or brushed matte finish, screw on or with posts?

A

4-6 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Content, location, size, along with what else are the four criteria that will be used to determine whether tattoos/body art/brands are permitted for Navy personnel?

A

Cosmetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is defined as the intentional radical alteration of the body, head, face, or skin for the purpose of and or resulting in an abnormal appearance?

A

Mutilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Tattoos/body art/brands/mutilation/dental ornamentation may be waived if they existed prior to what date and are not prejudicial to good order, discipline, and morale or are of a nature to bring discredit upon the naval service?

A

January 24th, 2003

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

For men, no individual hair will measure more than how many inches in length?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

DoD Directive 1338.5 along with what other instruction contain the uniform requirements that the initial clothing articles issued to enlisted personnel must meet?

A

DoD Instruction 1338.18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Who is responsible for approving the fabrics used for Naval uniform manufacturing?

A

Chief of Naval Operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which personnel must have their seabags inspected at regular intervals to ensure that they possess the required items?

A

E1-E3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Approximately how high should stencil letters be?

A

3/8 inch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What should the size of the embroidered letters on Navy coveralls be?

A

3/4 inch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Coveralls shall be embroidered in gold for officers and CPOs and what color for E6 and below?

A

Silver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Navy coveralls and NWU’s are required to have U.S. NAVY tape of what size, worn centered side to side over the wearer’s left breast pocket?

A

1/4 inch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Who must authorize the transfer or exchange of an enlisted person’s uniform?

A

Commanding Officer (CO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

On the Dinner Dress Blue Jacket, how many 35-line, Navy eagle, buttons are there down each side of the front, with a front closure held in by buttons placed inside each front facing secured with an elastic closure (older style)?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The Newer style Dinner Dress Blue jacket is without buttons placed inside each front facing and is secured with how many 28-line Navy eagle gilt buttons with a link chain closure?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe will Male Trousers, Blue, Evening?

A

2

72
Q

Dress shoes shall be plain toed, oxford style black, brown, or white, low quarter, lace shoe, made of smooth leather or synthetic leather. The heel shall be an outside heel that is how high with a flat sole?

A

3/4 inch - 7/8 inch

73
Q

What should be the approximate thickness of the soles in womens dress heels?

A

1/4 inch

74
Q

The Male Necktie, Bow, Black shall be plain style with square ends between 2 inches and how many inches in vertical width?

A

2.75”

75
Q

The All-Weather Coat, Blue is a black, single-breasted, beltless, water repellent coat made of a poly/cotton poplin fabric mix of what percent poly what percent cotton poplin?

A

65/35

76
Q

Inside the All-Weather Coat, Blue lining, ownership markings must be 3 inches below collar seam, and inside on outer shell on manufacturer’s tag, how many inches from bottom left front?

A

5

77
Q

For Male Officers/CPOs, the overcoat, blue extends what amount of the distance from kneecap to ground, shaped at waist, held by a two section half-belt at back with the end of the belt overlapped and fastened with two 40-line Navy eagle, gilt buttons?

A

1/3

78
Q

The female version of the blue overcoat has a single row of how many 40-line Navy eagle, gilt buttons on each forefront?

A

4

79
Q

The white combination cap may be worn squarely on the head, with the bottom edge parallel to and how far above the eyebrows?

A

1.5 inch

80
Q

How many inches should the Male Officer/CPO boat cloak extend below the kneecap?

A

2

81
Q

On the all-weather coat, anodized metal shoulder rank insignias shall be worn by E4 through O-10 personnel on each epaulet, centered from side to side with the bottom edge of the device approximately what length from the squared end of the epaulet?

A

0.75”

82
Q

The cumberbund when worn shall be worn with pleats up, around the waist overlapping the skirt/trouser top by at least what length?

A

1”

83
Q

The male version of the white dinner dress coat jacket is semi-peaked with narrow lapels with the back tapered to a point, and loops for shoulder boards. There are two 35-line, Navy eagle, buttons down each side of the front, with a front closure held together by two 28-line Navy eagle buttons with a link approximately how long?

A

3/4”

84
Q

Warrant Officers shoulder insignia surface is black cloth. Stripe widths are as specified for sleeves of blue coats but what length are the blue break(s) rather than being 2 inches apart?

A

1/2”

85
Q

Collar points of the CPO/Officer males white dress shirt worn with the dinner dress uniform measure no more than how many inches with a medium spread?

A

3.25”

86
Q

Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe should dress blue trousers hang?

A

2”

87
Q

Which side of the buckle do women wear the belt with clip with the exception of the Navy Working Uniform (NWU) and Coveralls?

A

Right

88
Q

How many detachable 35-line Navy eagle gilt buttons on the right front are there on the service dress white officers/CPO coat?

A

5

89
Q

The male Officer Necktie, Black, Four-in-Hand is made of authorized fabric measuring no more than how many inches wide?

A

3.25”

90
Q

Within what distance of the top of the belt buckle does the bottom of the male Officer Necktie, Black, Four- in-Hand hang?

A

1”

91
Q

The sword worn with the ceremonial uniform for LCDR and above shall have a cut and thrust blade, from 22 inches to how many inches long, half basket hilt, and fit in a scabbard of plain black grain leather or synthetic material presenting the leather appearance?

A

36”

92
Q

The traditional sword belt is made of plain black grain leather, or synthetic material presenting the same appearance, 1-3/4 inch wide, with sling straps of the same material, 3/4 inch wide. The buckle and mounting are gold plated with the buckle how many inches in diameter?

A

2”

93
Q

What is the maximum width that tie clasps are authorized to be?

A

5/16 inch

94
Q

How far below the center of the tie in a horizontal position may tie clasps be worn on the four-in-hand tie?

A

1”

95
Q

The blue garrison cap will be worn squarely on the head, with fore and aft crease centered vertically between the eyebrows and the lowest point approximately what distance above the eyebrows?

A

1”

96
Q

The black jacket should be worn with the zipper closed at least what amount of the way up?

A

3/4

97
Q

Which personnel will not wear insignia on the sweater?

A

E6 and below

98
Q

hich uniform is miniature command insignia not worn with?

A

Full Dress

99
Q

Poly/cotton may be worn only as Working Khaki effective as of what year?

A

1999

100
Q

Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe shall service khaki trousers hang?

A

2 inches

101
Q

Which fabric makes up 100 percent of the dress white jumper?

A

Polyester

102
Q

Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe shall coveralls hang?

A

2 inches

103
Q

When authorized, coverall sleeves will be rolled with the inside out, forming a roll approximately how many inches wide, and terminating at a point approximately 2 inches above the elbow?

A

3

104
Q

The watch cap will worn with a single fold approximately 3.5 inches - 4 inches diagonally from the base of the back of the head, across the ears and on the forehead with the bottom of the fold what distance above the eyebrows?

A

1/4 inch

105
Q

The Navy ballcap shall be worn squarely on the head, with bottom edge parallel to and at least how far above the eyebrows?

A

1.5 inch

106
Q

What type of fabric is the optional gold long sleeve PTU shirt 100% made of with anti-microbial and moisture wicking materials and a crewneck collar?

A

Polyester

107
Q

When authorized, NWU sleeves will be rolled (cuff right-side out) forming a 3 inch wide band covered by the cuff of the shirt (the outside digital camouflage pattern of the NWU will show). Approximately how many inches above the elbow will the termination point of the roll be?

A

2

108
Q

How many of the top boot eyelets should be covered by the blouse from the NWU trouser legs?

A

3

109
Q

The appropriate embroidered rank/rate collar insignias will be worn on the NWU by E-4 to O-10 personnel. Except for flag officers, the center of the insignia will be placed at a point at approximately what distance from the front and lower edges of the collar and the vertical axis of the insignia will lie along an imaginary line bisecting the angle of the collar point?

A

1 inch

110
Q

NWU identification markings will be embroidered in approximately 3/4 inch block letters on approximately 1-1/4 inch wide fabric strips. Names exceedingly long can be embroidered in approximately what size letters?

A

1/2 inch

111
Q

Authorized (current assignment) Force or command/unit patch may be worn on the NWU wearer’s right breast pocket. The size of the patch shall not exceed how many inches in length/width/diameter?

A

3 to 3-1/2

112
Q

At least what percent of the way should the NWU Parka zipper be closed?

A

75%

113
Q

The tip end of the utility belt will pass through the buckle, feeding back around the locking bar to the wearer’s left, extending how many inches beyond the buckle?

A

2-4

114
Q

White hats shall be worn squarely on the head with the lower front edge approximately what distance above the eyebrows and not crushed, bent, or rolled?

A

1.5”

115
Q

Which type of dark blue fabric is the dress blue jumper made from?

A

Wool serge

116
Q

The dress blue jumper collar is trimmed with three stripes of white tape, each 3/16 inch wide and 3/16 inch apart with the outer stripe at what distance from the collar edge?

A

1/4 inch

117
Q

What size is the plain black silk or synthetic fabric square that the neckerchief is made from?

A

36”

118
Q

What percentage of the distance from the wrist to the knuckles should the pettycoat sleeves reach when the arms are hanging naturally at the sides?

A

75%

119
Q

Approximately how many inches above the floor at the back of the shoe should the black trousers for the E-6 and below service uniform hang?

A

1 to 2 inches

120
Q

What color are the ball earrings worn by E6 and below personnel?

A

Silver

121
Q

How many inches below the crease behind the knee can the Female Officer Formal and Dinner Dress Uniform Skirt Length be?

A

1.5 inches

122
Q

How deep must civilian handbags be when worn with the full dress uniform?

A

2-4”

123
Q

Approximately what distance from the forehead hairline tilted slightly to the right shall women wear the beret toward the front of the head?

A

3/4 inch

124
Q

What two leg length sizes do PTU shorts come in?

A

6”or 8”

125
Q

What shall athletic socks not extend past?

A

Mid-calf

126
Q

Sleeve insignia are gold stripes, black on green coats, in widths of either 2 inch, 1⁄2 inch, or what other size indicating the individual’s rank?

A

1/4 inch

127
Q

Sleeve insignia stripes encircle the sleeve with the lower edge of the first stripe how many inches from the edge of the sleeve?

A

2

128
Q

What is the interval between stripes for sleeves that have multiple insignia stripes?

A

1/4 inch

129
Q

Which officer rank is identified by one sleeve stripe that is 0.5”?

A

Ensign

130
Q

What officer rank wears a one 1⁄2 inch stripe with one 1/4 inch stripe above it?

A

Lieutenant Junior Grade (LTJG)

131
Q

Which officer rank is identified by two 1⁄2 inch stripes on their sleeve?

A

Lieutenant (LT)

132
Q

Which officer rank is identified by two 1⁄2 inch stripes with one 1⁄4 inch stripe in between on their sleeve?

A

Lieutenant Commander (LCDR)

133
Q

Which officer rank is identified by three 1⁄2 inch stripes on their sleeve?

A

Commander (CDR)

134
Q

Which officer rank is identified by four 1⁄2 inch stripes on their sleeve?

A

Captain (CPT)

135
Q

Which officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe on their sleeve?

A

Rear admiral lower half

136
Q

What officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe with one 1⁄2 inch stripe above it on their sleeve?

A

Rear admiral

137
Q

Which officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe with two 1⁄2 inch stripes above it on their sleeve?

A

Vice Admiral

138
Q

Which officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe with three 1⁄2 inch stripes above it on their sleeve?

A

Admiral

139
Q

Which officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe with four 1⁄2 inch stripes above it on their sleeve?

A

Fleet Admiral

140
Q

Which warrant officer rank is identified by one 1/4 inch stripe with breaks 2 inches apart, three breaks centered symmetrically on outer face of sleeve?

A

W-1

141
Q

Which warrant officer rank is identified by one 1⁄2 inch stripe with breaks 2 inches apart, three breaks centered symmetrically on outer face of sleeve?

A

W-2

142
Q

Which warrant officer rank is identified by one 1⁄2 inch stripe with breaks 2 inches apart, two breaks centered symmetrically on outer face of sleeve?

A

W-3

143
Q

Which warrant officer rank is identified by one 1⁄2 inch stripe with one break, centered on the outer face of the sleeve?

A

W-4

144
Q

Which warrant officer rank is identified by one 1/2 inch stripe with 1/8 inch bluestrip broken by one hash mark, centered on the outer face of the sleeve?

A

W-5

145
Q

What type of officer is identified by a five-pointed gold star placed on the sleeve with one ray pointing downward?

A

Line

146
Q

Which type of officers are identified by a gold embroidered spread oak leaf, surcharged with a silver embroidered acorn, placed on the sleeve, stem down?

A

Medical corps

147
Q

Which type of officers are designated by a gold embroidered spread oak leaf, placed on the sleeve, stem down?

A

Nurse corps

148
Q

Which type of officers are designated by a gold embroidered sprig of three oak leaves and three acorns, placed on the sleeve with the longer dimension parallel to the upper stripe, stem to the front (right and left)?

A

Supply corps

149
Q

How many inches wide are the rating badges for female CPO’s?

A

2.5

150
Q

Approximately what percent of the size of the men’s rating badges are womens rating insignia, chevrons and rockers?

A

75%

151
Q

Who wears three gold stars above the eagle and one gold star in place of the specialty mark on their rating badge?

A

Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy

152
Q

Who wear two gold stars above the eagle and one gold star in place of the specialty mark on their rating badge?

A

Fleet/Force Master Chief Petty Officers

153
Q

How many inches long are male CPO’s service stripes?

A

7

154
Q

How wide are male El-E6 service stripes?

A

3/8 inch

155
Q

How many inches long are female service stripes?

A

5.25

156
Q

How many inches from the end of the sleeve is the lower end of the first service stripe?

A

2

157
Q

How many inches above the upper edge of the cuff on jumpers having a buttoned cuff is the lower end of the first service stripe?

A

1.5

158
Q

How far are service stripes placed apart when more than one is authorized?

A

1/4 inch

159
Q

How many years of active duty service or reserve service in an active status in any of the armed services does it take for personnel to earn one service stripe?

A

4

160
Q

How many cumulative years of good conduct do personnel have to have served before wearing gold service stripes?

A

12

161
Q

How many months at a maximum after the effective completion date of a rating merger must personnel transition to the new rating badge?

A

24

162
Q

Security Badges will be metal or embroidered patches, gold in color, black lettering and approximately 2 1/2 inch in height by how many inches in width?

A

1.75

163
Q

Who must authorize Navy personnel assigned to Joint/Unified Commands to wear distinctive command identification badges?

A

Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)

164
Q

Only personnel permanently assigned to what ship may wear Navy-issued 1813 pattern uniforms?

A

USS Constitution

165
Q

There are two distinct 1813 officer uniforms: one worn by the Commanding Officer and the other worn by whom?

A

Lieutenants

166
Q

Who wears white leather gauntlet gloves, baldric, and tall bear skin hat when in Full Dress Blue or Whites in the Navy Band?

A

Drum Major

167
Q

Which instruction establishes burial uniform policy?

A

NAVMEDCOMINST 5360.1

168
Q

What is defined as articles of clothing worn as part of the doctrinal or traditional observance of the religious faith practiced by the member?

A

Religious apparel

169
Q

Up to how many months from the date of delivery based on medical officer diagnosis/recommendation may the Commanding Officer approve the wear of maternity uniforms?

A

6

170
Q

What is defined as any clothing loaned to an individual by a naval activity, for which there is a requirement above and beyond authorized Navy uniforms?

A

Organizational clothing

171
Q

Which type of clothing provides increased protection from flash fire situations which have been prevalent with the threat of Improvised Explosive Devices and other safety hazards?

A

Flame-Resistant Organization Clothing/Gear (FROG)

172
Q

Flight suits shall be clean and well kept. Sleeves will be worn full length with hook and pile (Velcro) sleeve cuffs closed or with a maximum of how many outward rolls when not engaged in flight operations?

A

2

173
Q

What is defined as Summer Whites without ribbons for both male and female medical personnel?

A

Indoor Duty White

174
Q

Reserve officers, on active duty for periods less than how many months, need not have a sword, sword accessories, or Dinner Dress Jackets?

A

6

175
Q

Four Criteria will be used to determine whether tattoos/body art/brands are permitted for Navy personnel: content, location, size and what else?

A

Cosmetic

176
Q

What is defined as the intentional radical alteration of the body, head, face, or skin for the purpose of and or resulting in an abnormal appearance?

A

Mutilation

177
Q

Who establishes the requirement for enlisted personnel to wear civilian clothing in the performance of their official duties?

A

Chief of Naval Operations (N131U)