NAVEDTRA 14325 Flashcards
NAVEDTRA 14325
MILITARY REQUIREMENTS, BASIC (BMR)
Which type of plan contains general goals and broad guidelines?
Policy
What is a plan or system under which action may be taken towards a goal?
Program
What is the altering of the natural environment in an adverse way called?
Environmental pollution
Which type of pollutants include insecticides, herbicides, pesticides, natural and chemical fertilizers, drainage from animal feedlots, salts from field irrigation, and silts from uncontrolled soil erosion?
Agricultural
Which type of pollutants include acids from mines and factories, thermal discharges from power plants, and radioactive wastes from mining and processing certain ores?
Industrial
Which type of pollutants include refuse, storm-water overflows, and salts used on streets in wintertime?
Municipal
Which type of pollutants include emissions from aircraft, trains, waterborne vessels, and cars and trucks?
Transportation
What are the unburned fuel vapors called that motor vehicles release into the air?
Hydrocarbons
Vessels may not discharge pulped trash within how many nautical miles of the U.S. coastline?
12
How many fathoms under the sea must submarines be before compacted trash can be discharged?
1,000
How many nautical miles away from any foreign coastline must vessels be before discharging any trash?
25
Which program directs federal facilities, including naval shore stations, to comply with all substantive or procedural requirements applying to environmental noise reduction?
Noise Prevention
What type of fuel do most of the Navy’s ships and all of its aircraft use?
Petroleum
Who set up the Navy Sponsor Program to ease the relocation of naval personnel and their families when transferred on permanent change of station (PCS) orders?
CNO
Which form can personnel use to request a sponsor?
NAVPERS 1330/2
What program provides information and support to help personnel who are guests in foreign lands?
Overseas Duty Support Program (ODSP)
What gives up-to-date information of the country personnel will be visiting?
SITES
Which program was designed to find new ideas to effectively increase performance within the Department of the Navy?
Military Cash Awards Program (MILCAP)
What is the maximum MILCAP award?
$25,000
Servicewoman may not be assigned overseas or travel overseas after the beginning of what week of pregnancy?
28th
How many months after the expected delivery date may pregnant servicewomen be transferred to a deploying unit?
4
Pregnant servicewomen must be able to be medically evacuated to a treatment facility within how many
hours if they are to remain aboard the ship?
6
How many days of convalescent leave do Commanding Officers normally grant after the servicewoman has delivered the baby?
42
Service members in a single or dual military status with children or dependents under what age are required to have a formalized family care plan?
19
Which program carries out the Department of the Navy’s policy to detect, deter, and eliminate fraud, waste, abuse, and mismanagement?
Integrity and Efficiency (I & E)
What is intentional misleading or deceitful conduct called that deprives the government of its resources or rights?
Fraud
What is extravagant, careless, or needless expenditure of government resources defined as?
Waste
What is the intentional wrongful or improper use of government resources referred to as?
Abuse
What naval office inquiries into and reports on any matter that affects the discipline or military efficiency of the DoN?
Inspector General (IG)
What protects the rights of personal privacy of people about whom records are maintained by agencies of the federal government?
Privacy Act
Which Navy Regulations Article defines Equal Opportunity?
Article 1164
What program allows Commanding Officers (COs) to create and maintain a positive Equal Opportunity (EO) environment?
CMEO
What is behavior called that is prejudicial to another person because of that person’s race, religion, creed, color, sex, or national origin?
Insensitive practice
What provides information about government housing and the type, cost, and availability of private housing?
HRO
Which Amendment of the Constitution guarantees freedom of speech and assembly?
First Amendment
What is defined as any conduct whereby a military member or members, regardless of service or rank, without proper authority causes another military member or members, regardless of service or rank, to suffer or be exposed to any activity which is cruel, abusive, humiliating, oppressive, demeaning, or harmful?
Hazing
What is unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct that is sexual in nature called?
Sexual harassment
Sexual in nature, occurs in or impacts the work environment, along with what else are the three criterias for a person’s behavior to be considered sexual harassment?
Unwelcome
Which type of sexual harassment are personnel being subjected to when they are offered or denied something that is work-connected in return for submitting to or rejecting unwelcome sexual behavior?
Quid pro quo
Which type of behaviors are always considered to be sexual harassment?
Red zone
What type of behaviors would many people find unacceptable that could be considered to be sexual harassment?
Yellow zone
Which U.S. Navy Regulations Article states “No person in the Navy is to enter a personal relationship that is unduly familiar, does not respect differences in rank, and is prejudicial to good order and discipline.”?
Article 1165
What volunteer liaises between command and families?
Command ombudsman
Which reenlistment code indicates personnel are recommended for preferred reenlistment?
RE-R1
Which reenlistment code indicates personnel are eligible for reenlistment?
RE-1
Which reenlistment code indicates personnel are eligible for probationary reenlistment?
RE-R3
Which reenlistment code means that personnel are not eligible for reenlistment?
RE-4
Who directs and supervises the Navy’s voting program?
Chief of Naval Personnel
In what year did President Dwight D. Eisenhower prescribe a Code of Conduct for members of the armed forces?
1955
How many articles does the Code of Conduct contain?
6
Which Code of Conduct article states that “When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I am required to give my Name, rank, service number and date of birth”?
V
What are Naval personnel called when they are assigned military police duties?
Shore Patrol (SP)
Who is in charge of the master-at-arms force headed by the CMAA?
Executive Officer
What type of training is designed to develop self-control, character, and efficiency?
Discipline
Which punishment theory teaches the wrongdoer and others that offenses must not be repeated?
Deterrent
The UCMJ, Navy Regulations, along with what else are the three official sources that set forth the basic disciplinary laws for the Navy?
SORN
What describes Navy members rights and responsibilities?
U.S. Navy Regulations
Who ensures U.S. Navy Regulations conform to the current needs of the Department of the Navy?
Chief of Naval Operations
Who issues U.S. Navy Regulation changes after they are approved by the President?
Secretary of the Navy
Which UCMJ article subjects offenders to charges for failing to obey Navy regulations?
Article 92
Which Navy Regulations article discusses officer precedence?
Article 1002
Which Navy Regulations article describes the proper manner of addressing officers orally and in writing?
Article 1010
Which Navy Regulations article gives officers the authority necessary to perform their duties?
Article 1021
Tyrannical/Capricious conduct along with what other method are persons in authority forbidden from using to injure their subordinates?
Abusive language
Which Navy Regulations article provides the senior line officer eligible for command at sea the authority over all persons embarked in a boat?
Article 1033
Which Navy Regulations article grants sentry authority?
Article 1038
Personnel may not be ordered to active service without permission of whom?
Chief of Naval Personnel
What is the minimum interval that personnel in confinement have to be visited to have their condition checked on and needs cared for?
4
What is the maximum interest rate that naval personnel can impose on loans to other armed service members?
18
Which Navy Regulations article governs duty exchanges?
Article 1134
Which Navy Regulations article governs Leave and Liberty?
Article 1157
Which instruction provides regulations and guidance governing the conduct of all Navy members?
OPNAVINST 3120.32
Until what year did the various branches of the armed forces operate under different military codes?
1951
What year did the UCMJ become effective?
1951
Which UCMJ article states that certain UCMJ articles must be carefully explained at certain intervals to every enlisted person?
Article 137
What is the restraint of a person by an order not imposed as a punishment for an offense which directs them to remain within certain specified limits?
Arrest
What is the physical restraint of a person called?
Confinement
Which UCMJ Article explains commanding officers’ non-judicial punishment?
Article 15
In a special court-martial, the accused must be afforded the opportunity to be represented by counsel qualified under what article of the UCMJ unless such counsel cannot be obtained because of the geographical location or pressing military requirements?
Article 27
Which UCMJ Article explains servicemembers rights to not provide evidence against themselves (self- incrimination)?
Article 31
Which UCMJ Article was designed to ensure that every court, its members, and its officers are completely free to fulfill their functions without fear of reprisal?
Article 37
Which UCMJ Article prohibits any cruel or unusual punishment?
Article 55
What are the UCMJ punitive articles?
77-134
What is defined as an agreement between two or more persons to commit a crime?
Conspiracy
What are members of the armed forces who, without permission, leave their place of duty or organization with the intent to remain away permanently guilty of?
Desertion
How many days of absence, or sooner if the intent to desert is apparent, does the status of an absentee change to that of a deserter?
30
Which UCMJ article covers missing ships movement?
Article 87
What word designated by the principal headquarters of a command aids guards and sentinels in their scrutiny of persons who apply to pass the lines?
Countersign
What word is used as a countersign check which is imparted only to those who are entitled to inspect guards and to commanders of guards?
Parole
What is a detachment, guard, or detail posted by a commander which protects persons, places, or property of the enemy or of a neutral affected by the relationship of the opposing forces in their prosecution of war or during a state of conflict?
Safeguard
What term means inattention to duty or failure to take action that, under the circumstances, should have been taken to prevent the loss, destruction, or damage of any military property?
Neglect
Which UCMJ article covers personnel drunk on duty?
Article 112
What is the maximum punishment that may be imposed on a sentinel on post who is found asleep or drunk in time of war?
Death
What type of offense is defined as any act to avoid duty by feigning (pretending) to be ill or physically/mentally disabled?
Malingering
How many or more persons must be engaged against anyone who may oppose them to be classified as a riot?
3
What is the unlawful killing of another called?
Manslaughter
What is the unlawful killing of another committed without intent to kill or inflict great bodily harm?
Involuntary manslaughter
What is any person guilty of who engages in unnatural carnal copulation with another person of the same or opposite sex or with an animal?
Sodomy
Which UCMJ article allows for punishable acts or omissions not specifically mentioned in other articles?
Article 134
What is Commanding officer’s NJP often referred to as?
Captain’s mast
What requires personnel to remain within certain specified limits (ship, station, etc.)?
Restriction
What is the physical restraint (confinement) of a person during duty or non-duty hours, or both called?
Correctional custody
Confinement on bread and water or diminished rations may be imposed only on enlisted persons in what pay- grade and below aboard ship?
E-3
What is the maximum amount of time per day that extra duty can be assigned?
2 hours
How many days do personnel who consider their article 15 punishment to be unjust or disproportionate to the offense have to appeal the decision to the next superior in the chain of command?
5
Which UCMJ article prohibits compulsory self-incrimination?
Article 31
Which Navy Regulations article grants the right for any person to communicate with the commanding officer?
Article 1107
Summary, Special, along with what else are court martial types based on article 16 of the UCMJ?
General
What is the minimum amount of members that special court-martials can be made up of?
3
A general court-martial consists of a military judge and not less than how many members?
5
What is probably the most important log that personnel maintain onboard ships?
Deck log
Who keeps the ship’s deck log while at sea?
Quartermaster Of the Watch (QOOW)
Which bill contains lists of stations that must be manned during battle and at other specified times?
Battle
Which bill displays in one place personnel duties for each emergency and watch condition?
WQS
Which condition sets general quarters?
Condition I
What special watch is used by gunfire support ships for situations such as extended periods of shore bombardment?
Condition II
What is the normal wartime cruising watch?
Condition III
What provides the capability for reacting to emergency security situations aboard ship and at pierside to protect the ship, its sensitive equipment, and its personnel?
Self-defense force
How many hours in duration are most Navy watches?
4
How many minutes prior to the start of watches should personnel arrive on station to receive any pertinent information from the person you are relieving?
15
What is the 0000 to 0400 watch named?
Midwatch
What is the 0400 to 0800 watch named?
Morning watch
What is the 0800 to 1200 watch named?
Forenoon watch
What is the 1200 to 1600 watch named?
Afternoon watch
What is the 1600 to 1800 watch named?
First dog watch
What is the 1800 to 2000 watch named?
Second dog watch
What is the 2000 to 2400 watch named?
Evening watch
How long past reveille are late sleepers normally permitted to sleep?
1 hour
Which type of watches are stood to prevent sabotage, protect property from damage or theft, prevent access to restricted areas by unauthorized persons, or protect personnel?
Security
Who is eligible for command at sea and is designated and empowered by the captain to advise, supervise, and direct the officer of the deck (OOD) in matters concerning the general operation and safety of the ship or station?
CDO
Who is responsible to the commanding officer (CO) for the safe and proper operation of the ship or station?
Officer Of the Deck (OOD)
Who maintains the ship’s deck log and assists the OOD in navigational matters while underway?
QMOW
Who ensures all deck watch stations are manned with qualified personnel and all watch standers in previous watch sections are relieved?
BMOW
At least how often should lookouts be rotated?
Hourly
Who steers the courses prescribed by the conning officer?
Helmsman
Who stands watch at the engine order telegraph on the bridge ringing up the conning officer’s orders to the engine room ensuring all bells are correctly answered?
Lee helmsman
What are the two types of orders that govern sentries?
General and special
How many general orders are there that sentries must follow?
11
How many methods are used for relieving armed sentries?
2
Deadly force may only be authorized by whom?
CO
How many degrees above the horizon is monitored by low sky lookouts?
5
What is the direction of an object relative to the ship referred to as?
Bearing
How many types of bearings are there?
3
Which bearing type uses the ship’s bow as a reference point?
Relative
What is the relative bearing of your ship from another ship referred to as?
Target angle
What metric are ranges always reported in?
Yards
How many minutes does it take personnel to reach their best night vision called dark adaptation?
30
How many miles away in good weather can lookouts easily spot planes with the naked eye?
15
What step-by-step eye search technique do lookouts use?
Scanning
What are the two basic categories of communications?
Interior and exterior
What was adopted by NATO nations armed forces to overcome language barriers?
Phonetic alphabet
Which type of phones require no batteries or external electrical power source as they operate on the power of your voice?
Sound powered
How far should the sound-powered phone transmitter be held from the mouth when speaking into it?
.5” to 1”
Primary, Auxiliary, along with what else are the three sound powered telephone circuit categories aboard ships?
Supplementary
What word is used to identify your station and acknowledge messages?
Aye
How are sound-powered phone system communications phrased?
Declarative (statement)
What combines into one system the features of sound-powered telephones, dial telephones, and intercommunications units?
IVCS
What are the two types of terminal devices used with the IVCS?
Network and dial
What is the heart of the IVCS?
ICSC
What is defined as the protective measures taken to deny unauthorized persons information derived from telecommunications of the United States government that are related to national security and to ensure the authenticity of each telecommunication?
Communications security
What general announcing system can pass word to every space on the ship?
1MC
Who is in charge of the 1MC?
OOD
What is the primary means of DCC within the repair locker area?
DC WIFCOM
Which international flag means “I have a diver(s) down; keep well clear at slow speed.”?
ALFA
Which international flag means “I am taking in, discharging, or carrying dangerous materials.”?
BRAVO
Which international flag means “Personnel working aloft.”?
KILO
Which international flag means “Man Overboard.”?
OSCAR
Which international flag means “Preparing to come alongside in-port or at anchor.”?
INDIA
Which international flag means “I have a semaphore message to transmit.”?
JULIETT
Which international flag means “General recall; all personnel return to the ship.”?
PAPA
Which international flag means “Boat recall; all boats return to the ship.”?
QUEBEC
What time is colors held in the morning while not underway?
0800
What is the Ensign normally flown from while underway?
Gaff
What is the national ensign along with the union jack referred to as?
Colors
How is the ensign flown for the internationally recognized symbol of mourning?
Half mast
What is the rectangular blue part of the United States flag containing the stars called?
Union jack
What year did the President, on the recommendation of the Secretary of the Navy, establish an official flag for the United States Navy?
1959
Which flag is regarded as an international guarantee of amnesty from attack?
Red Cross
Substitute pennants are flown when certain officers are absent while in port for a period of up to how many hours?
72
Which flag is hoisted whenever the ship is taking aboard, transferring, or handling dangerous commodities, such as ammunition and fuel?
Bravo
What special device will boat flagstaffs be marked with for any civilian official or flag officer whose official salute is 19 or more guns?
Spread eagle
What special device will boat flagstaffs be marked with for a flag or general officer whose official salute is less than 19 guns or for a civil official whose salute is 11 or more guns but less than 19?
Halbert
What special device will boat flagstaffs be marked with for an officer of the grade, or relative grade, of Captain in the Navy, or for certain diplomatic officials?
Ball
What special device will boat flagstaff be marked with for an officer of the grade, or relative grade, of Commander?
Star
What are informal courtesy visits that require no special ceremonies known as?
Call
What date did the Second Continental Congress create the United States Navy by authorizing the purchase of two vessels?
October 13, 1775
Ships-of-the-line, Frigates, along with what else were the three major classes of vessels during the Revolutionary war and into the 19th century?
Sloops-of-War
Which ships were the largest of all the sailing warships carrying 64 to over 100 guns of various sizes during the revolutionary war and into the 19th century?
Ships-of-the-line
How many guns were generally carried by Frigates during the revolutionary war and into the 19th century?
28 to 44
Which type of vessel was characterized as a small, fast, flexible, flush-deck ship that carried smooth-bore cannons?
Schooner
What was the name of the first warfare submarine?
Turtle
What was the first U.S. Navy flagship that is said to be the first U.S. naval vessel where the “Flag of Freedom” was hoisted by John Paul Jones?
USS Alfred
What year was the first Continental Navy squadron put to sea by Esek Hopkins?
1776
Who is the father of our highest naval traditions?
John Paul Jones
What became one of the first foreign powers to recognize the struggling government of the American Colonies?
France
At the end of the Revolutionary War, a new federal government was established. In 1783, the Navy was down to five ships. The Navy was disbanded, and the last frigate, the USS Alliance, was sold in what year?
1785
What year was the Department of the Navy established by John Adams?
1798
What war was the origin of the famous expression “Millions for defense, but not one cent for tribute”?
Quasi War
What nickname was earned by the USS Constitution when Captain Isaac Hull defeated the British frigate Guerriere with it on August 19, 1812?
Old Ironsides
Who defeated a British squadron on Lake Erie on September 10, 1813, and wrote his dispatch “We have met the enemy and they are ours.”?
Captain Oliver Hazard Perry
Who was the first to successfully power a commercial steamboat with steam?
Robert Fulton
What was the first Navy warship to use steam?
USS Demologos
What year did the Navy launch the USS Pennsylvania which was the largest of ship-of-the-line vessel?
1837
What year did the Navy launch the USS Missouri and the USS Mississippi which were our first ocean-going, steam-driven capital ships?
1841
What year did the Navy launch the USS Michigan which was the first iron-hulled warship?
1843
Who is referred to as the “Father of the Steam Navy”?
Commander Matthew Calbraith Perry
What year was the USS Princeton which was the Navy’s first successful steamship launched?
1843
What year was USS New Ironsides, that had armor allowing it to survive 50 hits in one battle, launched by the Union?
1862
Which war saw the most changes and advances made in ship design than during any period since the Navy originated in 1775?
Civil War
Which submarine was a jinx to the Confederate Navy?
CSS Hunley
What gave the famous order “Damn the torpedoes! Full speed ahead!” on August 5th, 1864?
David Farragut
Who defined sea power, showed the importance of understanding naval needs, and advocated a large, powerful Navy capable of assembling an overwhelming force to defeat the enemy’s Navy?
Alfred T. Mahan
How many Navy ships were in active service a year and a half after the Civil War?
56
Which vessel has been labeled as the first modern cruiser in the U.S. Fleet?
USS Newark
What year did the USS Cushing which was one of the Navy’s first torpedo boats join the fleet?
1890
What year did the periscope start being replaced as the submarine’s basic visual aid?
1958
What was the name of the first operational submarine in the Navy?
USS Holland
The USS Skipjack (SS 24) along with what else were the first vessels to have diesel engines installed?
USS Sturgeon (SS 25)
What year did construction begin on the first United States Navy Destroyer?
1899
How many destroyers were ordered during World War I?
273
The USS Texas along with which other vessel were the first two commissioned battleships?
USS Maine
Who was the U.S. Navy’s first officer in charge of aviation?
Captain Washington Irving Chambers
Who successfully took off from and landed a biplane on a platform rigged aboard USS Pennsylvania (ACR 4) demonstrating the practical use of naval aircraft?
Eugene Ely
Who was the first Naval Aviator?
Lieutenant T. G. Ellyson
What was the first battleship to use oil?
USS Nevada (BB 36)
What year did the Great White Fleet depart Hampton Roads, Virginia for a round-the-world cruise to display the flag?
1907
What was the main German U-boats defense?
Destroyers
The USS Nicholson along with what other destroyer were the first U.S. ships to sink an enemy submarine on November 17, 1917?
USS Fanning
What year was the recommendation given by a Navy surgeon to employ women in hospitals in order to care for the Navy’s sick and wounded?
1811
What year were the Nurse Corps officially established?
1908
Who piloted the NC-4 which became the first airplane to fly across the Atlantic?
LCDR Albert C. Read
What year did the USS Ranger join the fleet?
1934
What year did the Japanese attack Pearl Harbor?
1941
Which battle was fought entirely with aircraft launched from carriers?
Coral Sea
Which battle was the turning point of the war in the Pacific?
Midway
What year was the invasion of Normandy?
1944
Which war did radar and sonar came into full use?
World War II
What year did Congress authorize the Women’s Reserve establishment with an estimated goal of 10,000 enlisted women and 1,000 officers?
1942
What was the first Reserve classification for female officers?
W-V(S)
What year did a squadron of FH-1 Phantoms qualify for carrier operations aboard the USS Saipan (CVL-48)?
1948
What year did the Korean Conflict end?
1953
What was the first nuclear submarine put to sea on January 17, 1955?
USS Nautilus
Who made America’s first suborbital flight on May 5, 1961?
Commander Alan B. Shepard, Jr.
What year did America enter the Vietnam conflict?
1965
What was the first nuclear-powered carrier in the world?
USS Enterprise (CVN 65)
Former Navy pilot Neil Armstrong became the first man to set foot on the moon on what date?
July 20, 1969
What was the Navy’s first deep diving vehicle?
USS Alvin
What was the first Trident submarine which was a nuclear powered fleet ballistic missile submarine?
USS Ohio (SSBN-726)
What year was the Department of Defense (DoD) created by the United States?
1947
Who heads the DoD?
Secretary of Defense (SECDEF)
What year was the Department of the Navy established?
1798
Which series is used for guiding unit organization?
OPNAVINST 3120.32
Battle along with what other organization comprise the two ship organization elements?
Administrative
Which department collects and evaluates combat and operational information as well as conducts electronic warfare?
Operations
Which department operates, cares for, and maintains all propulsion and auxiliary machinery?
Engineering
Who directly represents the Commanding Officer in maintaining shipboard general efficiency?
XO
Who is the voice of all enlisted personnel having direct access to the Commanding Officer?
CMC
What is the basic unit of shipboard organization?
Division
Which department is responsible for official correspondence, personnel records, and directives?
Administrative
What is the relationship of juniors and seniors within an organization called?
Chain of Command
What requires individuals to be accountable for the performance of their assigned tasks within an organization?
Responsibility
What is the ability of personnel to report, explain, or justify every action taken?
Accountability
The chain of command extends from nonrated personnel all the way to whom?
President of the United States
What is the general work that goes on about the ship’s deck and the equipment used called?
Deck Seamanship
What concerns the use and care of line consisting of forming knots, making splices, and fashioning useful and decorative articles from small stuff and twine?
Marlinespike seamanship
Which equipment is used for anchoring and mooring with anchors?
Ground tackle
How many feet make up a standard shot of anchor chain?
90
What is the opening in a bulwark or life rail that gives access to a brow or an accommodation ladder?
Gangway
What types of ramps are used between ships or between the ship and a pier?
Brows
What are often placed between the pier and the ship to provide protection to the side of the ship while it is alongside a pier?
Camels
What are swung over the side of the ship to give bumper support against damage whenever a ship lies alongside another ship or a pier?
Fenders
What are the main thing used aboard ships and boats to secure mooring lines?
Deck fittings
Which method of securing boats are used by ships that are at anchor or moored to a buoy to rig out their boat booms for the purpose of mooring their boats well clear of the side?
Hauling out to the boom
What is a noncommissioned waterborne vessel that is not designated as a service craft called?
Boat
What are boats carried aboard ship that can be hoisted from and lowered into the water known as?
Ship’s boats
What are waterborne craft designed for special use called?
Service craft
What is the halfway point between the bow and stern and the sides of the boat called?
Amidships
What is usually used to describe the area inside the boat or an object nearer the centerline of the boat?
Inboard
What describes the furthermost area from the boat’s centerline or beyond the side of a boat?
Outboard
What is the art of handling and working all kinds of fiber and wire rope?
Marlinespike seamanship
What is fiber rope in the Navy generally referred to as?
Line
How many times stronger is nylon compared to manila?
2.5
What is used for mooring lines, particularly at the bow and stern?
Spring lay
How many strands make up most of the line used in the Navy?
3
Line up to what circumference size is referred to as small stuff?
1 3/4 inches
Line from 1 3/4 inches to about 4 inches is manufactured in what size graduations?
1/4-inch
Up to what percent can nylon be stretched before it breaks?
50
What are the bindings on the ends of rope that keep the rope from un-laying called?
Whippings
What form eyes, secure cords, or lines around objects?
Knots
What bend lines to or around objects?
Hitches
What are used to secure two lines together?
Bends
What permanently join two lines or form eyes or loops in the end of a line?
Splices
What can be used to permanently join two lines as long as a slight enlargement of the diameter is not important?
Short splice
What is the crosswise direction of a ship called?
Athwartship
What is the supporting body of a ship called?
Hull
What is the backbone of the ship referred to as?
Keel
What are frames running parallel with the keel called?
Longitudinals
What are the vertical walls called that divide the ship interior into compartments?
Bulkheads
What are the plates that form the ship’s hull called?
Strakes
What is the vertical distance from the bottom of the keel to the waterline known as?
Ship’s draft
What is the distance from the waterline to the main deck referred to as?
Freeboard
What are ship floors referred to as?
Decks
What are rooms on ships called?
Compartments
What are installed to provide working or walking surfaces above bilges?
Flats
What are ships called that don’t have raised forecastles?
Flush-deckers
What is the first half deck or partial deck below the flight deck called?
Gallery deck
What are partial decks between complete decks called?
Half deck
What general term designates deck heights above the main deck?
Level
What are partial decks below the lowest complete deck called?
Platforms
What is a partial deck above the main deck located all the way aft?
Poop deck
What is an area designated by the Commanding Officer to conduct official functions?
Quarterdeck
What are horizontal openings for access through decks called?
Hatches
What is the solid part of a ship above the main deck called?
Superstructure
Pole, tripod, along with what else are the three general mast designs?
Cage
What are the large pipes that carry off smoke and gases from the boilers called?
Stacks
What is a light spar suspended at an angle abaft the upper part of the mainmast called?
Gaff
Which station controls the engineering functions of a ship?
Main control
What term describes the offensive weapons a ship carries?
Armament
How many statute miles per hour is one knot equal to?
1 1/8
How many feet are there in one nautical mile?
6,080
How many categories are U.S. Navy ships divided into?
4
What speeds are cruisers capable of in knots?
30+
What type of ships are fast and have a variety of armaments but have little to no armor?
Destroyers
How many tons of water are displaced by Spruance class destroyers when fully loaded?
7,800
What class of DDG’s are the most powerful and survivable class ever put to sea?
Arleigh Burke
What resemble destroyers in appearance, but are slower, have only a single screw, and carry less armament?
Frigates
What are used to locate and destroy enemy ships and submarines?
SSNs
What is the largest undersea craft developed by the Navy?
Ohio class
Which class of submarine possesses stealth characteristics that make it the world’s quietest submarine?
Seawolf’s
What were early submarines named after?
Marine life
What is the fastest means of landing large numbers of personnel, equipment, and supplies on enemy-held territory?
Amphibious assault
What class of ships are the largest amphibious ships in the world?
Wasp-class
What ships provide amphibious command and control for major amphibious operations?
LCCs
What ships were designed to clear mines from vital waterways?
MCM’s
What ships are capable of supplying fuel, ammunition, dry stores and refrigerated stores?
AOE
What term is applied to the transfer of fuel, munitions, supplies, and personnel from one vessel to another while ships are under way?
Replenishment at sea
What type of ships operate with replenishment groups to deliver ammunition and missiles to the fleet at sea?
AE’s
What is the largest and most powerful auxiliary ship in the Navy?
AOE
How many feet of separation are AOE fuel hoses designed to permit on average?
200
Which letter, with a few exceptions, is used to designate support crafts?
Y
What year does naval aviation history go back to when the Navy acquired its first aircraft which was a pusher-type biplane with no cockpit?
1911
Fuselage, wings, along with what else are the three basic parts that fixed-wing aircrafts can be divided into?
Empennage
What is the main body of the aircraft that contains the cockpit and, if there is one, the cabin?
Fuselage
What type of aircraft is an all-weather tactical electronic warfare aircraft that was based on the A-6 airframe?
Prowler
What is the western world’s only operational fixed-wing vertical short takeoff or landing (V/STOL) strike aircraft?
Harrier
Which type of aircraft are land-based, long-range, multiengine that are used primarily for antisubmarine warfare (ASW) patrol?
Patrol craft
What is the Navy’s primary ASW patrol aircraft?
P-3 Orion
How many personnel make up the Hawkeye crew?
5
Which aircraft provides logistical support to aircraft carriers?
C-2A Greyhound
Which aircraft has twin-engines that carries passengers and cargo between military installations?
C-12 Huron
Which aircraft is used for intermediate and advanced portions of the Navy/Marine Corps pilot training program for jet carrier aviation and tactical strike missions?
T-45A Goshawk
Which aircraft is used to provide primary flight training for student pilots attached to the Chief of Naval Air Training?
T-34C
How many pounds of cargo is the CH-46 Sea Knight capable of carrying?
4,000
Which aircraft tows and operates various mine countermeasure devices that are designed to detect and neutralize submerged naval mines?
Sea Stallion
Which type of aircraft is a joint-service, multimission aircraft that has vertical take-off and landing (VTOL) capabilities?
V-22 Osprey
What are practices called that have been established for so long that they now have the force of law?
Customs
What are acts or verbal expressions of consideration or respect for others referred to as?
Courtesies
What are the salutes that are rendered to individuals of merit called?
Honors
Within how many yards from the ship must boats pass to be considered “close aboard”?
400
Which day of the week are Side boys not paraded?
Sunday
How many gun salutes are warranted for the President of the United States?
21
Military officers below what rank are not entitled to gun salutes?
Commodore
What are the formal acts that are performed on public occasions called?
Ceremonies
What is the largest national ensign in the ship or station’s allowance referred to as that is flown on Sundays, authorized holidays, or other days the President proclaims?
Holiday colors
Which part of the ship contains officers staterooms and wardrooms?
Officers’ country
Which publication provides basic Naval uniform policy?
NAVPERS 15665
What is the size of the neckerchief square?
36”
What are the fields of work or occupations called in the enlisted branch of the Navy?
Rating
What are the various levels within ratings called?
Rates
What are rating specialty marks worn by E-1, E-2, or E-3 personnel who have qualified to wear them called?
Striker mark
How many years of service are indicated by one service stripe?
4
How many years of good conduct are required for personnel to wear gold rating badges and service stripes?
12
Who is the most senior enlisted person in the U.S. Navy?
MCPON
Which type of officers are specifically designated for engineering, communications, naval intelligence, photography, or other types of technical fields?
Restricted line
What type of officers are specialists in certain areas such as supply or medicine?
Staff corps
What type of officers fill the gaps between enlisted and commissioned personnel?
Chief warrant
What paygrade are all warrant officers commissioned as?
W-2
What is given to individuals for specific personal acts of gallantry or meritorious service?
Military decoration
What year was the Purple Heart founded by George Washington?
1782
How many people were awarded the original Purple Heart?
3
Up to how many medals can be worn side by side?
3
What is the maximum length permitted for mens hair?
4”
What is the approximate diameter size that braids should be when females have hairstyles consisting of multiple braids?
0.25”
How many inches below the top of the white jumper uniform collar may females hair extend?
1.5”
No more than how many inches should be exceeded by any portion of the bulk of the hair on females as measured from the scalp?
2
What length measured from the tip of the finger must fingernails not exceed?
1/4 inch
What color earrings must E-6 and below wear?
Silver
What is the basic military position?
Attention
What is any .60-caliber, 15-mm, or smaller bore firearm referred to as?
Small arm
What is the M-14’s maximum range?
4,075 yards
What is the maximum effective range of the M-16A1/A2?
460 meters
What is the maximum effective range of the .45-caliber service pistol?
50 yards
What is the magazine capacity of the 9mm pistol?
15
What are the weapons of choice for short-range work?
Shotguns
What makes the opening (peep) of the rear sight appear larger or smaller, depending on the firing position?
Eye relief
What is the point on the target where weapon sights are brought to bear?
Aiming point
What is the single most important factor in marksmanship?
Trigger control
Who does the Administrative organization need help from in order to establish and maintain material readiness conditions?
All hands
Who is responsible for maintaining compartment checkoff lists?
DCPO
Who is responsible for maintaining properly trained DCPOs, repair parties, and repair locker personnel?
Engineer officer
Who is responsible for keeping the command informed on the ship’s survivability readiness?
Executive Officer (XO)
Which team is responsible for conducting all shipboard drills and exercises in the area of damage control?
DCTT
Who is designated as the ship’s damage control officer?
Engineer officer
Who is responsible for the overall administration and training of the ship’s DC organization?
DCA
How many months do DCPOs normally serve for?
6
What, generally, is the minimum paygrade that Gas Free Engineers will hold?
E-7
What is the DCA’s battle station?
DCC
What is the nerve center and directing force of the entire damage control organization?
DCC
What is the ships highest state of readiness?
General Quarters
What is the emergency damage control communication system employed in the event of primary, auxiliary, and supplementary communications circuit failure?
X40J
Which signal is sounded by the OOD to notify the crew of a battle condition (GQ)?
General alarm
If all methods of communications have failed, what are used to relay orders and information?
Messengers
XRAY, YOKE, along with what else are the three material conditions of readiness?
ZEBRA
Which material condition is set during working hours when the ship is in port, when there is no danger of attack, and when there is no threat from bad weather?
XRAY
What are used by repair party personnel to find damage control fittings and closures in each compartment?
CCOLs
Which fittings are vital sea suctions, ventilation fittings valves serving vital equipment, and valves that must be open to maintain mobility and fire protection?
WILLIAM
How many minutes of breathable air does the EEBD provide the wearer with?
15
Approximately how many minutes will the SCBA last after it is activated?
30
Fuel, Heat, along with what else comprise the fire triangle?
Oxygen
What is the lowest temperature called that flammable materials give off vapors that will burn when a flame or spark is applied?
Flash point
What is the temperature called that fuel will continue to burn after it has been ignited?
Fire point
What is the lowest temperature called that material must be heated to give off vapors that will burn without the aid of a spark or flame?
Self-ignition point
Conduction, Convection, or what other method can transfer heat from fires?
Radiation
Which heat transfer method transfers heat through a body or from one body to another by direct physical contact?
Conduction
Which heat transfer method transfers heat through the motion of circulating gases or liquids?
Convection
Which heat transfer method transfers heat from a source across an intervening space?
Radiation
How many classifications are fires divided into?
4
What protect firefighters from short duration flame (flash) exposure, heat, and falling debris?
Firefighter’s ensemble
What protect personnel from high temperatures resulting from the use of explosive weapons and from burns caused by fire?
Anti-flash clothing
What size are the fireplugs in fire hose stations aboard ships larger than frigates?
1 1/2-inch
What defensive measures are taken against chemical, biological, or nuclear weapons attack effects?
CBR-D
Which type of agents include microorganisms, fungi, toxins, and microtoxins that cause diseases that kill or produce other types of casualties?
Biological warfare (BW)
Which type of agents cause death, injury, temporary incapacitation, or irritation effects?
CW
What are the two broad types of antipersonnel agents?
Casualty and Incapacitating
Which type of antidote must be immediately administered to counteract the rapid action of nerve agents?
2-PAM Cl
Which type of agents effect the eyes, mucous membranes, lungs, and skin?
Blister
Which type of agents inhibit enzyme actions responsible for transferring oxygen from the blood to the cells of the body?
Blood
Which type of warfare uses living organisms, toxins, and microtoxins to disable or to destroy people and domestic animals, damage crops, or deteriorate supplies?
Biological warfare (BW)
What is the casualty rate of pulmonary anthrax?
90%
What can the mortality rate be reduced to if plague pneumonia victims are treated early?
5%
What is a feeling of bodily discomfort and weakness?
Malaise
What is caused by the reaction of body tissues combating and sealing off an infection?
Inflammation
How many feet above the surface does a nuclear blast have to detonate to be considered a high altitude blast?
100,000
What is an intense electrical surge that affects electronic or electrical equipment in a burnout that’s equivalent (equal) to that caused by a lightning strike?
EMP
What are the two types of nuclear radiation?
Initial and residual
How many categories are Nuclear weapons effects divided into?
3
Second-degree burns may be received at over what distance from nuclear weapons?
25
How many minutes can it take to recover from flash blindness at night?
45
Alpha and beta particles, gamma rays, along with what else are the different types of nuclear radiation hazards?
Neutrons
What has the greatest penetrating power of all the nuclear radiation hazards?
Neutrons
What is the pressure pulse created in water by an explosion on or below the surface called?
Underwater shock
What occurs in electronics systems as a result of exposure to gamma or neutron radiation?
TREE
What is the prolonged disturbance of an underwater nuclear detonation caused by ocean basin shock reverberations that interfere with passive sonar systems?
Blueout
What is the interference of radio transmissions through ion fields formed in a detonation caused by an atmospheric nuclear explosion?
Blackout
What determines the effectiveness of decontamination measures?
Detailed survey
What are dose rates expressed in?
Roentgens
Which protective mask was designed to provide full protection against tactical concentrations of chemical and biological agents, toxins, and radiological fallout particles?
MCU-2/P
What is the shelf life of the unopened chemical-protective overgarment?
5 years
What is the shelf life of the chemical-protective overgarment in nonchemical environments once it is removed from its protective envelope?
14
How many hours of continuous protection do chemical-protective overgarments provide after exposure to chemical contamination?
6
What flexible system protects against chemical agents that is used in CW defense to help accomplish the mission?
MOPP
How many MOPP levels are there?
4
Which MOPP level offers the most protection?
4
How many people do decontamination teams usually consist of?
6
What protects specific areas of the ship from the effects of CBR contamination by filtering the air supply and maintaining an overpressure to prevent the penetration of contaminants?
Collective Protection System (CPS)
What is the emergency care given to sick or injured persons until medical care is available?
First aid
Saving lives, preventing further injury, along with what else are the main first aid objectives?
Limiting infection
What state is a person in who’s stopped breathing but is still alive?
Respiratory failure
What condition occurs when air enters the stomach instead of the lungs during artificial ventilation?
Gastric distention
What is the complete stoppage of heart function referred to as?
Cardiac arrest
How many minutes of the onset of cardiac arrest must CPR be started within to be effective?
4
Which condition occurs whenever there is a break in the wall of one or more blood vessels?
Hemorrhage
How many quarts of blood does the average adult body contain?
5
How many pints of blood loss will usually cause shock?
2
Arterial blood is usually what color?
Bright red
What is a combination compress and bandage that a sterile gauze pad is fastened to a gauze, muslin, or adhesive bandage?
Battle dressing
What is a point on the body where an artery can be pressed against a bone to stop bleeding?
Pressure point
How many principal points are there on each side of the body where hand or finger pressure can be used to stop hemorrhage?
10
What type of band is used to cut off the supply of blood to an injured limb?
Constricting
Which condition occurs when blood circulation is seriously disturbed?
Shock
Approximately what percent of the Navy’s non-hostile active-duty deaths are caused by suicide?
10%
How long does depression typically last?
2 weeks
Shock can be expected from burns involving at least what percent of the body?
15%
Life is endangered when at least what percent of the body is burned?
20%
Burns covering what percent of the body are usually fatal without adequate treatment?
30%
What is the most mild type of burn?
First-degree
Which type of burn destroys the skin and possibly the tissue and muscle beneath it?
Third-degree
What is the most common condition caused by working or exercising in hot spaces?
Heat exhaustion
Which type of injuries occur when the ligaments and soft tissues are damaged that support joints?
Sprains
What type of injury is caused by the forcible over stretching or tearing of a muscle or tendon?
Strain
What is the most commonly used Navy service litter used for transporting sick or injured persons?
Stokes stretcher
Which type of stretcher was designed for removing an injured person from engine-room spaces, holds, and other compartments where access hatches are too small to permit the use of regular stretchers?
Neil Robertson
What are the two most common sexually transmitted diseases in the United States?
Syphilis and gonorrhea
What is the painless sore called that is the first sign of syphilis?
Chancre
How many days after sexual contact with an infected partner do signs of gonorrhea in males usually appear?
3 to 5
Which increasingly common viral infection produces recurrent, painful genital sores similar to cold sores that occur around the mouth?
Genital herpes
What year was Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) first reported in the United States?
1981
How many yards should personnel abandoning ship be away from the ship before they rest?
150 to 200
How many days on regular rations can the survival kits in large life boats sustain 15 to 20 people?
5
How many days can personnel go without water before they die?
8 to 12
How many ounces of water per day can personnel survive on in a lifeboat?
6
How many weeks, or longer, can a person survive without food as long as they have water?
4
What water temperature, or lower, puts personnel at risk for hypothermia?
75° F
Which condition is characterized by swelling of the foot accompanied by numbness and pallor (lack of color) or discoloration?
Immersion foot
How many basic devices for recovering a person in the water do helicopters use?
3
Which mneumonic device can aid personnel to reduce or even avoid the shock of being isolated behind the enemy lines, in a desolate area, or in enemy hands?
SURVIVAL
How many varieties of plants are edible?
120,000
How long should scavenger birds be boiled before they are cooked in order to kill any parasites?
20 minutes
What is the process of traveling through enemy-held territory without being captured?
Evasion
What directs personnel to begin planning their escape the minute they are taken prisoner?
Code of Conduct
Which instruction contains Naval advancement system information?
BUPERSINST 1430.16
What are the two categories that ratings are divided into?
Service and General
What are the military requirements for a paygrade?
NAVSTDs
What contains the minimum occupational requirements of a particular rate?
OCCSTDs
Which skills and abilities can best be demonstrated (shown) by actual performance?
PARS
What are developed by exam writers to help Sailors study for advancement-in-rate examinations?
BIB
- What is the maximum number of days that members serving on code 1 shore duty are required to be absent from the corporate limits of their duty stations?
99
Personnel serving at code 2 sea duty stations can expect to be away from their home port/home base in excess of how many days per year?
150
School assignments of less than how many months are classified as code 5 neutral duty?
18
Duty performed in commissioned vessels or activities in an active status that operate away from their home port/home base in excess of how many days per year are credited as double sea credited because of the nature of the mission?
50
Who is the senior enlisted person who matches personnel within a particular rate or specialty with the available Navy wide billets?
Enlisted detailer
How long after being stationed at their first duty station should personnel submit a duty preference form?
6 months
What is the most significant personnel management tool in the service record?
Evaluation Report and Counseling Record
Which eval trait is not required unless abilities are clearly demonstrated for personnel in paygrades E-1 through E-3?
Leadership
How often is the Evaluation Report and Counseling Record for E-3 and below submitted?
Biannually
What form is used to document the official history of a person’s Naval career?
NAVPERS 1070/600
What form is used to document dependents and emergency data in the service record?
NAVPERS 1070/602W
Which service record form documents the Enlisted Qualifications History?
NAVPERS 1070/604
What words are used to show that the CO has authorized a person to sign the document?
By direction
What systems are used to improve fleet material readiness?
3-M
How many years are performance marks averaged to arrive at the merit rating? (Page 16-7)
?? look it up
Fundamentals, Systems, along with what else are the three sections that PQS standards are divided into?
Watch Stations
Which PQS section deals with the major working parts of the installation, organization, or equipment that the PQS is concerned with?
Systems
What is it called when personnel are taught skills that are directed toward specific tasks?
Training
What is it called when personnel are taught broad, general, or specific knowledge?
Education
Who is the point of contact for all Navy training and education programs?
Educational Services Officer (ESO)
What type of training teaches personnel how to perform a duty or task by actually doing it?
OJT
What type of non-occupational training are all naval personnel required to take on a periodic basis?
General Military Training (GMT)
Which type of schools provide general indoctrination and teach basic military skills and knowledge?
Class “R”
Which type of schools provide the basic technical knowledge and skills required to prepare personnel for a Navy rating as well as further specialized training?
Class “A”
Which type of schools provide personnel with the advanced knowledge, skills, and techniques required to perform a particular job in a billet?
Class “C”
Which type of schools provide team training to officer and enlisted fleet personnel who are normally ship company members?
Class “F”
Which type of schools provide training in the skills that lead to the designation of naval aviator or naval flight officer?
Class “V”
Which command publishes TRAMANs?
NETPDTC
What name is given to the in-service voluntary educational programs and the supporting services provided by the Navy to help you with your education?
Navy Campus
Which program provides undergraduate courses from accredited colleges or universities to shipboard personnel?
Program for Afloat College Education (PACE)
What provides a wide range of examination and certification programs, operates an independent study support system, and provides other support and developmental activities?
DANTES
Up to how many months does the Enlisted Education Advancement Program (EEAP) allow career-motivated individuals to earn an associate of arts/sciences degree?
24
How many enlisted men and women from the Regular Navy or Regular Marine Corps may be appointed by the Secretary of the Navy to the Naval Academy at Annapolis, Maryland?
85
Which program is intended to help people who have been educationally deprived but have demonstrated they have the basic qualities and desires needed to earn a commission?
BOOST
How many years do personnel have to complete a baccalaureate degree when they are enrolled in the ECP?
2
How many programs are there for enlisted personnel who possess a baccalaureate degree or higher that lead to U.S. Naval Reserve commissions?
6
Which commissioning program selects senior enlisted personnel to become commissioned officers without requiring a degree?
LDOs
Who convenes the Seaman to Admiral board to select eligible applicants?
Chief of Naval Personnel (CNP)
If personnel separate from the Navy at their EAOS but have not completed at least how many years of service they will not receive a discharge but will be “separated” from active naval service?
8
How many types of discharges from Naval Service are there?
5
Which type of discharge indicates satisfactory service by personnel but not to the standards established by the Navy?
General
Commanding Officers can recommend personnel for a Navy Good Conduct Medal as a reward for how many years of good conduct?
3
What is the money paid to personnel for services they render?
Pay
Basic, Incentive, along with what else are the three types of Navy pay?
Special
Which type of pay is based upon the members paygrade and length of service?
Basic
How many years of service are E-3’s eligible to receive longevity raises?
4
What type of money is used to reimburse personnel for expenses necessary to perform their job?
Allowance
Which type of allowance is used to help personnel pay for suitable living quarters when government quarters are unavailable or not assigned?
BAQ
What is the single allowance called that incorporates both basic allowance for quarters and the variable housing allowance?
Basic Allowance for Housing (BAH)
What are designated amounts of money that are to be withheld from pay and paid directly to someone else?
Allotments
What is the computerized pay and leave accounting system located at the Defense Finance and Accounting Service, Cleveland, Ohio?
JUMPS
How many days of leave can personnel earn in each year of active duty?
30
What is an authorized absence from work or duty for a short period called?
Liberty
Which type of leave is not charged to your earned, advance, or excess leave account?
Convalescent
What booklet is used to record transactions involving checking accounts?
Check register
What is a plan to spend money or a plan of money management?
Budget
What is the total amount of pay before any deductions are taken out called?
Gross income
What is the money paid after all deductions and allotments are paid called?
Net income
What is an easy method for estimating the number of years it will take for an investment’s value to double at a specific interest rate or rate of return?
Rule of 72
What is the rent paid for using borrowed money or credit known as?
Interest
How many days after personnel separate from the Navy does SGLI coverage continue for?
120
What is an individual who is abused or whose welfare is harmed or threatened by acts of omission or commission by another individual or individuals known as?
Victim
What establishes the education, support, and awareness programs so that families and their command understand the risk factors of child and spouse abuse?
FAP
What occurs when there is an imbalance between the demands of our lives and the resources we have to deal with those demands?
Stress
What term generally applies to persons who are assigned to clean living or berthing compartments or spaces?
Compartment cleaner
Which type of materials have the ability to remove contamination and soil?
Detergents
What are held to improve ship appearance and sanitary conditions, aid in ship preservation by extending paint life, and reduce the dirt intake caused by operating equipment?
Field days
Which term means to exhaust the areas and provide fresh air in spaces which personnel are working with solvents?
Ventilation
When a spill involves more than how many gallons of solvent it must be immediately reported to supervisors, DCC, or the OOD?
5
Personnel should inspect the contents of any paint or solvent container that is older than how many years?
2
What lists solvent storage requirements?
Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs)
How many minutes between air changes are recommended when working with chlorinated cleaning solvents in enclosed spaces?
3
Inhaling vapors of how many ppm or greater will cause dizziness or narcosis?
4,500
How many gallons of paint could be required for one coat on an aircraft carrier?
950
What are the grade ranges of sandpaper?
12-600
How many ways are used by the Navy to apply paint?
3
Which technical bulletins contain information about hazardous material?
Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs)
What are the safety barriers called that are designed to prevent personnel from falling or being washed over the side?
Lifelines
Lifelines and safety belts must be used when working on a boatswain’s chair or on unguarded scaffolds that are over how many feet above the deck?
10
Who must permission be obtained from prior to working aloft?
OOD
What type of fuel oil was developed by the Navy to reduce sulfur oxide problems on ships?
Navy distillate fuel
How often must spaces be recertified by Gas Free Engineers while personnel are working in a space that was previously ventilated for 24 hours and certified safe to work in?
Every 8 hours
How many minutes would it take for personnel to lose the ability to walk straight after breathing in air where the petroleum vapors have a concentration of only 0.1 percent by volume?
4
Which term identifies any and all forms of fuel or gas lanterns, lighted candles, matches, cigarette lighters, and so on?
Open flame
Which term identifies any unprotected electrical lighting device?
Naked lights
What are the specially constructed compartments aboard ships called where ammunition is stowed?
Magazines
Projectiles greater than or equal to what size in diameter are color-coded to indicate the projectile type and the kind of bursting charge they contain?
3-inches
What level of voltage causes the most deaths?
115-volt
How many minutes before entry must compartments that contain compressed gases be ventilated for if the ventilation has been secured?
15
Up to how many years after exposure can it take for asbestos-related disease symptoms to manifest?
45
How many minutes after the job is completed must personnel assigned fire watch duties remain at the location to make sure that no fire hazards exist?
30
What is the mixture of all liquid domestic wastes, especially human body wastes (fecal matter and urine)? (Page 19-18)
Sewage
At what temperature does LOX boil into a gaseous oxygen that is capable of immediately freezing any object it contacts?
-297°F
How much pressure can LOX exert when it expands as a gas and is confined and allowed to warm?
12,000 psi
What is the combination of air temperature, thermal radiation, humidity, airflow, and workload called that places stress on the body?
Heat stress
Which condition results when body temperature reaches subnormal levels?
Hypothermia
Which instruction governs the Navy’s equipment tag-out bill?
OPNAVINST 3120.32
Who is responsible for knowing the material condition of a department and the state of readiness at all times?
DDO
Who monitors engineering plant statuses at all times and how tag-out bills will affect plant readiness?
EOOW
What is the process called of checking a tag or label?
Second-checking
Which tag color means that a certain DANGER exists if the valve or equipment lineup is changed?
Red
What color are CAUTION tags?
Yellow
What color are OUT-OF-CALIBRATION labels?
Orange
What are used to control the entire tag-out procedure?
Tag-out logs
Which instruction contains Navy safety information?
OPNAVINST 5100.19
What term describes a nation’s ability to protect its political, economic, and military interests through control of the sea?
Sea power
Who was the first person to use the term “sea power”?
Captain Alfred Thayer Mahan, USN
Which publication defines Naval strategy?
Naval Warfare Publication 3 (NWP-3)
What broad course of action is designed to achieve national objectives in support of national interests?
National strategy
What are those conditions that are advantageous for our nation to pursue or protect?
National interests
What are the specific goals our nation seeks to advance, support, or protect?
National objectives
What is the U.S. Navy’s primary function?
Sea control
What is the ability to use sea power throughout the world in the timely and precise manner needed to accomplish a given goal?
Power projection
What year did Congress authorize the first six frigates of the Continental Navy?
1794
What year was the Coast Guard established as the United States Revenue Marine?
1790
What year was the Military Sealift Command (MSC) established?
1949
Nearly what percent of all military cargo on privately owned U.S. flagships and other merchant marine vessels are shipped by MSC?
25
What does the Navy define as the art of influencing people to progress towards the accomplishment of a specific goal?
Leadership
Moral principles, personal example, along with what else are the three elements that make an effective Navy leader?
Administrative ability
What is immediate obedience an automatic response to?
Command
What is reasoned obedience the proper response to?
Order
What is the safeguarding of classified information in the interest of national security referred to as?
Security
Top Secret, Secret, along with what else are the only security classification levels?
Confidential
Which classification level is applied to information whose unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to the national security?
Top secret
Which classification level is applied to information whose unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to the national security?
Secret
Which classification level is applied to information whose unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause damage to the national security?
Confidential
Who determines personnel security clearance needs?
Commanding Officer (CO)
What are security clearances and access to classified information based on?
Need to know
What has the SECNAV designated as the single Department of the Navy security clearance granting authority?
Department of the Navy Central Adjudication Facility (DONCAF)
Once issued, a security clearance remains valid provided the Sailor continues compliance with personnel security standards and has no subsequent break in service exceeding how many months?
24
Which instruction provides guidance for classified material protection?
SECNAVINST 5510.36
Which agency sets and publishes the minimum standards, specifications, and supply schedules for containers, vault doors, modular vaults, alarm systems, and associated security devices suitable for the storage and destruction of classified information?
General Service Agency (GSA)
Which instruction contains classified material destruction procedures?
SECNAVINST 5510.36
Who is responsible for the physical security of each computer workstation?
ADPSO
How many levels of security are there for electronically processed data?
3
Which instruction contains electronic data security procedures?
OPNAVINST 5239.1
How many days after creating a working copy should it be retained before destruction?
180
Which instruction contains a complete description of ADP security policies and procedures?
OPNAVINST 5239.1
What is an unauthorized disclosure of classified information to one or more persons who do not possess a current valid security clearance referred to as?
Compromise
What is defined as any failure to comply with the regulations for the protection and security of classified material?
Security violation
What is the unlawful use or threatened use of force or violence against individuals or property referred to as?
Terrorism
Which type of bomb generates fire-producing heat without substantial explosion when ignited?
Incendiary
What is the detonation/ignition of a bomb, discovery of a bomb, or receipt of a bomb threat referred to as?
Bomb incident
What is used to clearly define the status of military personnel of one country stationed in the territory of another?
SOFA
What year were the Geneva Conventions established?
1949
How many hours of extra duty per day is allowed by the Geneva Convention as punishment for escape attempts?
2
What term identifies members of the military force and civilian personnel engaged in hostilities?
Lawful combatants
