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Important > BUPERSINST 1430.16F (WITH CHANGE-1) > Flashcards

BUPERSINST 1430.16F (WITH CHANGE-1) Flashcards

1
Q

BUPERSINST 1430.16F (WITH CHANGE-1)

A

ADVANCEMENT MANUAL FOR THE

ADVANCEMENT OF ENLISTED PERSONNEL OF U.S. NAVY AND U.S. NAVAL RESERVE

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2
Q

Which ranks will personnel automatically advance to without local action so long as they meet the minimum time in rate (TIR) requirements?

A

E2 and E3

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3
Q

What are the competitive examinations used as a part of that E4 through E7 advancement candidates take?

A

FMS

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4
Q

What does advancement to E7, E8, and E9 require?

A

Selection board

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5
Q

Which advancement candidates are designated SBE on the basis of their CO/OIC recommendation and their TIR eligibility?

A

E8 and E9

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6
Q

What convenes the annual selection boards?

A

Chief of Naval Personnel (CHNAVPERS)

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7
Q

How often are Special Boards normally held, or as required, to consider any member who was eligible but not properly considered by the last regular board?

A

Annually

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8
Q

How many months after the regular board convened do applicants have to submit a request for a special enlisted selection board to NAVPERSCOM?

A

9

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9
Q

What is the sole approval authority for convening special enlisted selection boards?

A

CHNAVPERS

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10
Q

Which selection board requires E6 personnel to pass the E7 advancement-in-rate examination prior to submitting a package?

A

LDO

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11
Q

Which instruction provides information on the selection of senior enlisted personnel for promotion to commissioned officer status?

A

OPNAVINST 1420.1A

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12
Q

What is responsible for developing, publishing, and distributing Navy-wide advancement-in-rate examinations for the purpose of testing and rank-ordering personnel who are qualified for advancement?

A

NETPDTC

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13
Q

No later than how many days prior to the first AEDC will NETPDTC publish a quarterly schedule with the exact dates of upcoming AEDCs?

A

120

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14
Q

How many SME’s will usually be designated by NPDC to participate in the rating AEDC?

A

6

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15
Q

No later than how many days prior to the scheduled AEDC should SME nominations be received by NETPDTC?

A

45

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16
Q

Approximately how long prior to the commencement of the AEDC will NETPDTC provide accounting data and arrange lodging for the SME’s?

A

2 weeks

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17
Q

How many years for most ratings are Topic/Sub-topic Subject/Sub-Subject Matrixes planned out?

A

2

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18
Q

What is the most important advancement eligibility requirement?

A

CO/OIC recommendation

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19
Q

How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E1-E2?

A

9

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20
Q

How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E2-E3?

A

9

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21
Q

How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E3-E4?

A

6

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22
Q

How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E4-E5?

A

12

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23
Q

How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E5-E6?

A

36

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24
Q

How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E6-E7?

A

36

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25
Q

How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E7-E8?

A

36

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26
Q

How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E8-E9?

A

36

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27
Q

What publication defines the path of advancement?

A

NAVPERS l8068F

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28
Q

What form should be used to enter the actual designation date for rating conversions in the same paygrade?

A

NAVPERS 1070/604

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29
Q

Which MILPERSMAN article contains guidance on personnel designations other than those graduating from “A” school?

A

MILPERSMAN 1440-050

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30
Q

What contain procedures for establishing eligibility for entry into closed/open ratings with regards to Rating Entry for General Apprentices (REGA) and Career Reenlistment Objectives (CREO), and Enlisted Career Management Objectives (ECMO) ALNAVRESFORs for drilling Navy Reservists?

A

NA V ADMINs

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31
Q

How long prior to selection board convening must personnel who are Selection Board Eligible submit for a change of rating in order to receive a review by the selection board in the new rating?

A

1 month

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32
Q

MILPERSMAN 1440-010 along with which other article contain the methods for changing from one path of advancement to another?

A

1160-090

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33
Q

What authority is required to participate in Navy-wide examinations for change in rating?

A

NAVPERSCOM (PERS-811/812)

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34
Q

Which type of alien has been lawfully admitted to the U.S. for permanent residence under an immigration visa?

A

Immigrant alien

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35
Q

How many years is the naturalization residency requirement reduced down to after 3 years of honorable service in the U.S. Armed Forces?

A

3

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36
Q

Which MILPERSMAN article contains naturalization instructions for servicemembers?

A

MILPERSMAN 5352-010

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37
Q

Which type of aliens are defined as other than immigrant aliens?

A

Foreign nationals

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38
Q

Which valid certificate must all ACs possess?

A

FAA 7220-1

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39
Q

Which instruction contains PC (*Note: PC’s don’t exist anymore so this would probably be LS’s) rating entry requirements?

A

OPNAVINST 5112.6C

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40
Q

Reserve personnel in what status are NOT eligible for participation in a Navy-wide advancement examination?

A

Records Review

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41
Q

Except for Fleet Reservists recalled to active duty, E6, E7, and E8 members who have submitted formal written requests for transfer to the FLTRES are ineligible for further advancement consideration, unless the request is mandated by what?

A

HYT

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42
Q

Which mobilized personnel are not required to complete the LDP requirement for advancement due to the limited duration of active duty?

A

Individual Ready Reserve (IRR)

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43
Q

Which MILPERSMAN article designates that non-designated personnel who have an “A” school request approved are not authorized to participate in an advancement examination for any other rating?

A

MILPERSMAN 1440-050

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44
Q

Personnel in what paygrades that are ordered to a Class “A” school incorporating a lengthy course of instruction shall be converted in rating at an equal paygrade after successful completion of the basic or A-1 phase of that course of instruction?

A

E1 through E5

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45
Q

Which date is the advancement candidate’s Service in Paygrade (SIPG) computed for advancement purposes?

A

TED

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46
Q

What does the Department of Defense (DOD) prescribe as the minimum active service a person must have to compete as a regular candidate for advancement?

A

TAFMS

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47
Q

What is the date from which an advancement candidate’s total service in paygrade is considered to have commenced for the purpose of computing advancement eligibility for the next higher paygrade?

A

TIR

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48
Q

What is defined as those members not under a Navy contract at time of reentry to naval service or Navy Reservists attached to the IRR?

A

Break in service

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49
Q

A break in service of what duration for NAVETs returning to active duty or to Drilling Reserve in the same paygrade held at discharge, release, or transfer to the IRR will have an adjusted TIR date?

A

24 hours

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50
Q

Lost time exceeding how many days as a result of an unauthorized absence, sick-misconduct, misconduct, or confinement is not creditable in computing service in paygrade?

A

15

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51
Q

What paygrades (one paygrade only) do COs/OICs have the authority to reinstate members to anytime after reduction in rate, without referral to higher authority?

A

E2 or E3

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52
Q

What holds the only reinstatement authority to reinstate E4 through E6 paygrades?

A

NAVPERSCOM (PERS-811/812)

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53
Q

Up to what amount of the required TIR for Sailors in paygrades E5 and E6 who received an Early Promote promotion recommendation on their most recent observed periodic evaluation in their current paygrade can be waived by COs/OICs?

A

1 year

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54
Q

For up to how many consecutive examination cycles covered by the most recent observed periodic evaluation report can CO’s authorize Early TIR waivers?

A

2

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55
Q

How long must personnel have served as an E6 prior to participation in the E7 examination for LDO purposes?

A

1 year

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56
Q

Who is responsible for worksheet preparation for each candidate participating in the Navy-wide advancement cycle (E4 through E7) including LDO Program candidates?

A

Educational Service Office (ESO)

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57
Q

At least how long prior to the scheduled examination should ESO’s prepare worksheets for eligible candidates?

A

1 month

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58
Q

Approximately how many days prior to the scheduled examination date should the ESO review each advancement exam candidates worksheet?

A

10

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59
Q

What is the maximum number of award points authorized for E6 advancement exam candidates?

A

12

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60
Q

How many award points is a Medal of Honor worth when calculating the FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates?

A

10

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61
Q

How many award points is a Navy Cross worth when calculating the FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates?

A

5

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62
Q

How many award points is a Distinguished Service Medal or Cross worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6
advancement exam candidates?

A

4

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63
Q

How many award points is a Silver Star Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates?

A

4

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64
Q

How many award points is a Legion of Merit worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates?

A

4

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65
Q

How many award points is a Distinguished Flying Cross worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates?

A

4

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66
Q

How many award points is a Navy and Marine Corps Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates?

A

3

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67
Q

How many award points is a Bronze Star Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates?

A

3

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68
Q

How many award points is a Purple Heart worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates?

A

3

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69
Q

How many award points is a Defense Meritorious Service Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates?

A

3

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70
Q

How many award points is a Meritorious Service Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates?

A

3

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71
Q

How many award points is an Air Medal (Strike/Flight) worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates?

A

3

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72
Q

How many award points is a Joint Service Commendation Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates?

A

3

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73
Q

How many award points is a Navy and Marine Corps Commendation Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates?

A

3

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74
Q

How many award points is an Executive Letter of Commendation worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates?

A

2

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75
Q

How many award points is a Joint Service Achievement Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates?

A

2

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76
Q

How many award points is a Navy and Marine Corps Achievement Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates?

A

2

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77
Q

How many award points is a Combat Action Ribbon worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates?

A

2

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78
Q

How many award points is a Gold Life Saving Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates?

A

2

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79
Q

How many award points is a Good Conduct Medal (Navy or Marine Corps) worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates?

A

2

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80
Q

How many award points is a Navy Reserve Meritorious Service Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4- E6 advancement exam candidates?

A

2

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81
Q

How many award points is a Letter of Commendation (Flag/Senior Executive Service) worth when
calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates?

A

1

82
Q

What is the maximum number of points for letters of commendation signed by a flag, general or Senior Executive Service (SES) officer that will be credited towards the awards factor for E4, E5, and E6 candidates?

A

2

83
Q

Which awards are considered Letters of Commendation that are signed by flag officers?

A

Gold and Silver Wreath

84
Q

PMA is required for each advancement candidate except for E8/9 and E7 PEP candidates who have already achieved an advancement examination standard score of what or greater and have been identified as Selection Board Eligible?

A

50

85
Q

What is an Early Promote evaluation recommendation worth?

A

4.0

86
Q

What is an Must Promote evaluation recommendation worth?

A

3.8

87
Q

What is a Promotable evaluation recommendation worth?

A

3.6

88
Q

What is a Progressing evaluation recommendation worth?

A

3.4

89
Q

What is a Significant Problems evaluation recommendation worth?

A

2.0

90
Q

What should requests for correction or addition to awards factor after the advancement exam be submitted to?

A

NETPDTC

91
Q

The preferred method for ordering examinations is via verification of TIR eligibility listing on the internet at the which examination ordering web site?

A

NETPDTC

92
Q

Which examinations will be used for candidates who did not take the examination on the regularly scheduled day?

A

Substitute

93
Q

The integrity of what is dependent on the security of the examinations and is of paramount importance to equitable advancement opportunity?

A

NEAS

94
Q

Which type of mail may be used to transfer an examination to another activity?

A

U.S. Registered Mail

95
Q

What should a detailed message or letter report be submitted to in the case of missing examinations, evidence of tampering, or any other discrepancies?

A

NAVPERSCOM

96
Q

When examinations are received from activities other than which command then a receipt must be sent to the forwarding command as the examinations remain charged to the original receiving activity?

A

NETPDTC (N321)

97
Q

What must approval be obtained from prior to transferring examinations to non-Navy activities/other services?

A

NAVPERSCOM

98
Q

Which border color on examination covers identifies exams that are confidential in nature?

A

Blue

99
Q

What type of combination lock can be used to secure a space that will be used to stow examinations and completed answer sheets?

A

Three-tumbler

100
Q

Who reviews all the directives pertinent to the advancement system with all other designated personnel prior to examination administration?

A

ESO

101
Q

What type of pencil or electrographic black lead pencil must exam candidates use?

A

2

102
Q

Which ratings are not authorized to use preprogrammed construction, electrician, plumbing, or other calculators that are specifically designed for tradesman use?

A

Seabee

103
Q

Which advancement exam candidates are authorized to use general scientific calculators that are not programmable?

A

Engineering Aid (EA)

104
Q

What are not authorized to be worn during the examination?

A

Wristwatches

105
Q

What is the maximum number of days that an operational commander may delay the administration of advancement examinations for seagoing or aviation units operating in company or based outside continental United States (OCONUS) provided that candidates have no means of communicating with personnel who are taking the examination in the interim?

A

10

106
Q

What is the maximum number days that ship CO’s/OIC’s that are proceeding independently can administer examinations past the regularly scheduled examination date?

A

10

107
Q

What must specifically authorize the administration of advancement exams prior to the scheduled administration date?

A

NAVPERSCOM

108
Q

Within how many working days of receipt, but not later than the date specified in the applicable NAVADMIN must all substitute examinations be administered and answer sheets forwarded to NETPDTC (N322)?

A

7

109
Q

Advancement examination shall not be used if they are missing more than how many questions?

A

10

110
Q

What is the required ratio of proctors to advancement exam candidates when administering advancement exams?

A

1:25

111
Q

Give completed answer sheets the same handling and stowage as afforded to what type of documents?

A

FOUO

112
Q

What must authority be requested from with justification from a medical officer for the oral administration of advancement examinations?

A

NAVPERSCOM

113
Q

How should advancement exam candidates names be grouped when personnel from more than one activity have been examined?

A

Activity

114
Q

What should examination returns for each paygrade be forwarded to by the close of business the day after administration of each advancement examination?

A

NETPDTC

115
Q

Which contract stipulates that CONUS Installations and Ships Inport CONUS will send answer sheets via overnight delivery?

A

GSA

116
Q

Which USPS mail service will Overseas Shore Commands use to send in advancement exam answer sheets?

A

3-day express

117
Q

Who is solely responsible for ensuring that all examination booklets and related testing materials are accurately accounted for and destroyed?

A

CO/OIC

118
Q

Which manual contains the destruction procedures to be followed after administering the advancement examination for destroying all examination booklets, used and unused, and scratch paper?

A

SECNAV M-5510.36

119
Q

How long must copies of reports be maintained locally at the command for the destruction and receipts for transfer of examinations?

A

2 years

120
Q

Within how many days after the last drill weekend of the month that the advancement examination was
administered must the unused inactive reserve examinations be destroyed?

A

5

121
Q

At least how many consecutive days in one of the eligible areas are Sailors required to serve to be considered an eligible assignment?

A

30

122
Q

Which day in January are Active Duty E7 Regular advancement examinations administered?

A

3rd Thursday

123
Q

Which day in March and September are Active Duty E6 Regular advancement examinations administered?

A

1st Thursday

124
Q

Which day in March and September are Active Duty E5 Regular advancement examinations administered?

A

2nd Thursday

125
Q

Which day in March and September are Active Duty E4 Regular advancement examinations administered?

A

3rd Thursday

126
Q

If Sailors are within how many days of a pending deployment to Iraq, Afghanistan, or the Horn of Africa and they are eligible in all other respects for participation in the E4 to E7 advancement examinations than they are authorized to take early examinations?

A

60

127
Q

No more than how many days prior to deployment date (to include the indoctrination and training pipeline but not including any personal leave) will commands submit early examination requests in the same format as a substitute examination request?

A

90

128
Q

The EMF along with what else are used by NETPDTC to automatically validate all personnel who are TIR eligible for E8/9?

A

IMAPMIS

129
Q

Approximately how many months prior to the convening date of E8/9 selection boards will NETPDTC forward an Examination Status Verification Report (ESVR) listing all E7/8 TIR eligible personnel?

A

3

130
Q

How many annual advancement cycles are there for E4 through E6 candidates?

A

2

131
Q

Who has online access to E4-E9 advancement results?

A

ESO

132
Q

How many days after advancement exam results have been published will individual Sailors have the capability of downloading their individual Profile Sheets?

A

5

133
Q

What does NETPDTC post online in addition to profile sheets to issue examination results?

A

Examination Status Verification Report (ESVR)

134
Q

What are advancements and striker designation authorities issued on in addition to the Profile Sheet?

A

Rating Change Authorization (RCA)

135
Q

What lists eligible candidates to be considered (SELBD ELIGIBLE) by a selection board that is convened by CHNAVPERS?

A

Examination Status Verification Report (ESVR)

136
Q

How will the official list of personnel selected for advancement be disseminated by CHNAVPERS upon conclusion of the selection board?

A

NAVADMIN

137
Q

What will be forwarded by NETPDTC (N321) for all E4 through E7 candidates following each Navy-wide advancement examination?

A

Examination Profile Information Sheet

138
Q

Which point factor is included in the FMS of E4 through E6 candidates who achieve a relatively high score on a Navy-wide advancement examination/have relatively high PMAs during an examination cycle in which the candidate competed for advancement but was not advanced because of quota limitations?

A

PNA

139
Q

PNA points are comprised of written examination SS and what else?

A

PMA

140
Q

How many of the most recent exam cycles in that paygrade are PNA points creditable for?

A

5

141
Q

A maximum of how many PNA points for any one advancement cycle may be received by a candidate?

A

3

142
Q

What is the maximum cumulative PNA point total that may be credited to candidates?

A

15

143
Q

What are PNA points multiplied by to obtain the PNA factor (maximum of 30 points) for FMS calculations?

A

2

144
Q

How many PNA points towards future exams will advancement exam candidates be credited with when they score in the top 25th percentile but do not advance?

A

1.5

145
Q

What is the only thing used by NETPDTC (N321) to track PNA point credit?

A

Social Security Number

146
Q

What day of the month are E2/E3 advancements automatically posted on by NAVPERSCOM?

A

16th

147
Q

Which MILPERSMAN article governs striker identification?

A

MILPERSMAN 1440-050

148
Q

If an administrative error precludes the advancement of a member to paygrade E2 or E3 on the earliest date on which the candidate is fully qualified, the advancement may be established “as of” the date the member would have been advanced had the error not occurred, provided the backdating does not under any circumstance exceed how long?

A

6 months

149
Q

Under no circumstances is an advancement effected after the limiting date without approval of what?

A

NAVPERSCOM

150
Q

What form should be used to effect an advancement, change in rate, or striker identification?

A

NAVPERS 1070/604

151
Q

Which MILPERSMAN article grants COs/OICs the authority to frock enlisted personnel?

A

MILPERSMAN 1420-060

152
Q

How many years of active duty in grade unless such members are entitled by law to a higher retired grade upon retirement must non-disability (voluntary) retirement for members serving in grades E7, E8, and E9 require?

A

2

153
Q

How many years of active service entitles members to retire at the higher paygrade without serving the minimum 2 year TIG?

A

30

154
Q

Withholding advancements because of Physical Fitness Assessment (PFA) failure must be accomplished via compliance with which instruction?

A

OPNAVINST 6110.1H

155
Q

What is the sole means of withdrawing a member’s recommendation for advancement that must be completed prior to requesting invalidation of an authorized advancement?

A

EV AL/FITREP

156
Q

Which U.S. Navy Regulations article provides authority for the request of CO’s mast at which questions may be raised with the CO/OIC if a member believes that the withholding or withdrawal of their advancement is inaccurate, unjust, or wrongly submitted?

A

Article 1151

157
Q

Advancing temporary officers to permanent enlisted rates requires a NAVPERS 1070/604 entry in the enlisted field service record and what entry mailed for inclusion in the official officer record citing this instruction as authority for advancement?

A

NAVPERS 1070/613

158
Q

Which program was established to promote Sailors in pay grades E1 through E5 in recognition of uncommon valor and extraordinary deeds demonstrated while engaged in, or in direct support of, combat operations?

A

Combat Meritorious Advancement Program (CMAP)

159
Q

Executive Order along with what else designate combat and direct support combat zones?

A

Congressional Action

160
Q

A 1-year TIR waiver is authorized for the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program for advancement to what paygrade?

A

E6

161
Q

What has the overall authority for the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program?

A

CHNAVPERS

162
Q

How many quotas per quarter is authorized for each approval authority (COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT) for the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program for advancing personnel to E-2?

A

Unlimited

163
Q

How many quotas per quarter is authorized for each approval authority (COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT) for the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program for advancing personnel to E-3?

A

6

164
Q

How many quotas per quarter is authorized for each approval authority (COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT) for advancing personnel to E-4 through the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program?

A

4

165
Q

How many quotas per quarter is authorized for each approval authority (COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT) for advancing personnel to E-5 through the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program?

A

2

166
Q

How many quotas per quarter are authorized for each approval authority (COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT) for advancing personnel to E-6 through the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program?

A

1

167
Q

Within how many years of the meritorious action/performance in combat must nominations be submitted for the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program?

A

1

168
Q

Which instruction contains the guidelines for Combat Meritorious Advancement Program nominations that contain classified information?

A

SECNAV M-5510.30

169
Q

How many years should copies of CMAP documents be retained?

A

2

170
Q

How will Sailors who die while in a selectee or Passed Not Advanced (PNA) status be advanced?

A

Posthumously

171
Q

What form will the CNO (N135C) prepare upon receipt of an posthumous advancement authorization to indicate a posthumous advancement?

A

DD 1300

172
Q

What is the highest paygrade that may be held by recruiters to be eligible for meritorious advancement under the recruiter meritorious advancement program?

A

E-6

173
Q

What has final EROY or ERROY approval after selection boards have reviewed all nominations?

A

COMNAVCRUITCOM

174
Q

What is the minimum TIR that must be met by the EROY and ERROY prior to effecting the meritorious advancement to the next paygrade?

A

1 year

175
Q

What will COMNAVCRUITCOM forward their EROY and ERROY selections to for issuance of advancement authorization?

A

NAVPERSCOM

176
Q

Which program allows CO’s to advance eligible personnel in paygrades E3 through E5 to the next higher paygrade without reference to higher authority?

A

Command Advancement Program (CAP)

177
Q

What year was the Command Advancement Program (CAP) established?

A

1978

178
Q

Which MILPERSMAN article took away the COs authority to designate strikers?

A

MILPERSMAN 1440-050

179
Q

What is the maximum percentage of CAP quotas that CO’s can use for CREO Group 3 ratings?

A

33%

180
Q

CAPs may be effected only by Commanding Officers of commands that are designated as which type of sea duty?

A

2 or 4

181
Q

Which individual manpower authorization form is used by Commanding Officers who are responsible for more than one UIC to base their CAP quotas on?

A

OPNAV 1000/2

182
Q

What are CAP quotas based on for each individual UIC?

A

Billets Authorized (BA)

183
Q

What is the latest date each year that each Type 2 or 4 command must submit an annual CAP Certification Report to NAVPERSCOM (PERS-811/812) (copy to the Immediate Superior in Command (ISIC))?

A

January 15th

184
Q

What rank is the enlisted selection board president?

A

O-6

185
Q

Who establishes the maximum selection board quotas (Active and FTS) for each rating?

A

CNO (N13)

186
Q

What drives advancement opportunity in the Navy?

A

Vacancies

187
Q

What percent of the Navy’s total end-strength may be E8s and E9s?

A

3.5%

188
Q

Which requirement has been established by the Department of Defense (DOD) that must be met prior to a member’s advancement to a given paygrade?

A

Total Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS)

189
Q

How many years of Total Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS) are required to be eligible for advancement to E-7?

A

11

190
Q

How many years of Total Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS) are required to be eligible for advancement to E-8?

A

16

191
Q

How many years of Total Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS) are required to be eligible for advancement to E-9?

A

19

192
Q

What is the maximum percentage of the total number of Sailors in the E7/8/9 paygrades that may have less than the prescribed TAFMS?

A

10%

193
Q

What convenes the enlisted selection boards?

A

CHNAVPERS

194
Q

Where are the permanent records for each rating maintained?

A

Electronic Military Personnel Records System (EMPRS)

195
Q

What is the electronic snapshot of the official record referred to as?

A

PSR

196
Q

Who is the only person that can submit unofficial correspondence to the President of the selection board?

A

Candidate

197
Q

What is the single most important factor that influences selection during the enlisted selection board?

A

Sustained superior performance

198
Q

How many different selection board panel members review each candidate’s record?

A

2

199
Q

What is the process called when the enlisted selection board panel arranges all the candidates from top to bottom once the review of an entire rating is complete?

A

Slating

200
Q

What is the final approval authority for all enlisted selection board recommendations?

A

CHNAVPERS

201
Q

What is the official announcement made to individual Navy commands that must be in the command’s possession prior to frocking of selectees?

A

NAVADMIN

Important (54 decks)

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