Medical Issues Final

Question 1

holistic patient care

Answer 1

care for the whole patient, not just their problem

Question 2

clinical presentation vs. diagnosis

Answer 2

presentation
-overall “picture” of signs, symptoms, medical history, and clinical exam
diagnosis
-determination of the problem using the clinical presentation

Question 3

pathology vs. pathogenesis vs. etiology

Answer 3

pathology
-science concerned with disease including structural and functional changes
pathogenesis
-the underlying cause of a disease
etiology
-study of pathogenesis

Question 4

clinical decision making

Answer 4

similar to diagnostic reasoning
determines the best course of action
not a final diagnosis

Question 5

three stages of prevention

Answer 5

primary
-analyzing risk factors
secondary
-early detection
teriatry
-disease management

Question 6

six components of a medical history

Answer 6

patient's age and gender
patient's chief complaint
past medical history
current health status
family history
review of systems

Question 7

diagnostic imaging and testing

Answer 7

x-ray
radionuclide bone scan
fluoroscopy
-live-image x-ray
computed tomography
position emession tomography
magnetic resonancy imaging
diagnostic ultrasound

Question 8

pharmacology

Answer 8

LECTURE

Question 9

plaque psoriasis

• common location
• treatment

Answer 9

inflammatory condition where the skin cells overproduce
-common
-elbows
-knees
-knuckles
common S/S
-silvery scales
treatment
-topical and oral

Question 10

bacterial skin infections types

Answer 10

impetigo

staph infections

Question 11

impetigo

• treatment
• RTP

Answer 11

causes blisters
leads to a honey colored crust
treatment
-antibiotic
RTP
-no new skin lesions for at least 48 hours
-completion of a 72-hour course of directed antibiotic therapy
-no further drainage or exudate from the wound
-active infections cannot be covered for competition

Question 12

MRSA

-S/S

Answer 12

methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
S/S
-abscess with red streaks - emergency room
-size
-redness extends out from the injury

Question 13

CA-MRSA

Answer 13

community acquired

• contagious
• common among sports teams

Question 14

RTP for MRSA

Answer 14

no new lesions for at least 72 hours
completion of a 72-hour course of directed antibiotic therapy
no further drainage or exudate from wound
active infections may not be covered for competition

Question 15

tinea (fungal infections)

-RTP

Answer 15

tinea pedis (athlete's foot)
tinea cruris (jock itch)
tinea corporis (ringworm)
timea capitis (on head)
tinea versicolor (change in skin color)
RTP
-72 hours
-cover lesions

Question 16

Tinea Capitis RTP

Answer 16

two weeks of anti fungal biotics

Question 17

Tinea Corporis

Answer 17

circular plaque with clear center

can be covered if in small enough area

Question 18

Tinea Pedis

-treatment

Answer 18

most common fungal and skin infection
treatment
-common sense prevention
--dry feet after shower
--change out of socks after exercise

Question 19

Tinea Cruris

Answer 19

scaly plaques

Question 20

viral infections

Answer 20

herpes simplex

Question 21

herpes simplex

-S/S

Answer 21

very contagious
S/S
-blisters
-fatigue and fever
treatment
-antiviral

Question 22

herpes simplex RTP

Answer 22

athlete must be free of systemic symptoms
no new blisters for 72 hours
all lesions must be surmounted by a firm adherent crust
have completed 5 days of antivirals

Question 23

molluscum contagiosum

Answer 23

lesion with a hard center
main treatment is having them removed
-must be removed for competition

Question 24

warts

Answer 24

caused by HPV
categorized by location and appearance
treatment
-removal

Question 25

plantar warts

Answer 25

grow into skin instead of out

Question 26

parasitic infections

Answer 26

scabies | pediculosis

Question 27

scabies

Answer 27

itches most common between fingers mites that lay eggs and burrow beneath the skin treated with prescription strength cream

Question 28

pediculosis

Answer 28

lice -head, body, and genital lice cannot compete until treatment is complete

Question 29

NATA position statement on prevention of skin disease

Answer 29

evidence-based recommendations - clean environment - hand hygiene - overall hygiene - no sharing - whirlpools - report all open wounds and lesions to an ATC

Question 30

S/S of neurological pathology

Answer 30

``` syncope coma paresthesia abnormal motor control, coordination, or tone headache changes in senses changes in mental status ```

Question 31

ALS -cause -S/S Tx

Answer 31

fatal, progressive neurological disease that slowly attacks neurons responsible for voluntary muscle actions S/S -tired or clumsy, often begin in one limb, difficulty with swallowing and speech -may be spasticity or hyperflexia -weight loss Tx -can be treated with drugs but is not curable

Question 32

Bell's Palsy

Answer 32

``` disease typically affects CN 7 S/S -bilateral or unilateral facial weakness Tx -corticoseroids ```

Question 33

epilepsy

Answer 33

>2 seizures in lifetime caused by abnormal activity in brain Tx -combo of medicine or surgery

Question 34

multiple sclerosis

Answer 34

neurodegerative lifelong chronic disease -can lead to permanent disability in affected nerves S/S -problems w/ balance and coordination -spasticity and fatigue, visual problems, dizziness, pain, numbness, bladder + bowel dysfunction -cognitive and emotional changes Tx -relapsing + progressing symptom management w/ medication

Question 35

vascular headache

Answer 35

caused by spasms of the vellels surrounding the brain include migraines S/S: rapid onset, unilateral throbbing pain in frontal or temporal area -start in morning and peak 2 hrs later (migraine) -begins with aura and accompanied w/ increased sensitivity to light/sound (migraine)

Question 36

migraine

Answer 36

type of vascular headache that may present w/ or w/o neurological symptoms

Question 37

stroke (CVA)

Answer 37

lack of oxygen to the brain - may lead to reversible or irreversible paralysis and other damage S/S -numbness or weakness on one side of the body -confusion, trouble speaking or understanding -headache, dizziness Tx -acute: designed to reverse or lessened the amount of tissue death -rehab to improve function so that the stroke survivor can continue an independent lifestyle

Question 38

GBS (Guillain-Barre)

Answer 38

acute demyelinating disorder of the spinal roots and peripheral nerves S/S -progressive weakness distal to proximal pain in movement of the affected area and nocturnal muscle cramps Tx -no cure -rehab to make things better and lessen severity of symptoms

Question 39

bacterial and viral miningitis

Answer 39

inflammation of the meninges by bacteria or viruses

Question 40

docorticate rigidity

Answer 40

indication of cerebral cortex damage | arms in flexion, legs in extension

Question 41

decerebrate rigidity

Answer 41

indication of cerebellum damage | arms and legs in extension

Question 42

meningeal irritation tests

Answer 42

``` kernig test -patient in supine -passively raising one leg at a time -keep knee fully extended -raise leg until symptoms are felt -flex knee to relieve symptoms -dorsiflex foot -if dorsiflexion recreates symptoms, meningeal irritation is present Brudzinski Test -perform the above test with neck passively or actively flexed ```

Question 43

ocular palpation areas

Answer 43

orbital margin frontal bone nasal bones zygomatic bones

Question 44

pupillary reaction to light | -PEARL

Answer 44

pupils equal and reactive to light

Question 45

red flags for eye referral

Answer 45

``` blurred vision diplopia - double foreign object protruding into the eye restricted eye movement distorted pupil hyphema unilateral pupil dilation or constriction large lacerations of the eyelids lacerations that involve the margins of the eyelids persistent floaters ```

Question 46

refractive errors - -cause - types

Answer 46

caused by length of eye and shape or curvature of cornea types -myopia - hard to see distance -hyperopia - hard to see close up

Question 47

conjunctivitis - contagious? - other S/S

Answer 47

can be contagious -viral or bacterial other respiratory problems

Question 48

conjunctivitis RTP

Answer 48

48-72 hours after starting antibiotic eyedrops

Question 49

stye | -S/S

Answer 49

``` inflammation of duct or hair follicle on the eyelid S/S -pain -swelling -redness ```

Question 50

glaucoma

Answer 50

increased intraocular pressure - build up of aqueous humor - can lead to damage to the optic nerve

Question 51

eyelid laceration | -question to ask

Answer 51

bleed profusely can you approximate the wound? -harder to do over the eyelid

Question 52

periorbital contusions - DDx - RTP

Answer 52

black eye test the eye early before swelling develops DDx -orbital fracture -concussion RTP -as soon as possible if there are not major problems

Question 53

orbital fracture | -S/S

Answer 53

blow to the eye or the bones around the eye blowout fracture -fracture to the walls or floor of the orbit S/S -pain with eye movement -possible inability to look up if bottom is fractured -pain when blowing nose -diplopia refer

Question 54

dislocated contact lens

Answer 54

evert eyelid wash with sterile saline solution locate lens replace once the lens is clean or with a new one

Question 55

corneal and conjunctival foreign bodies

Answer 55

may need to evert the upper eyelid to visualize the foreign bodies

Question 56

corneal abrasions

Answer 56

feels with something in the eye | can lead to decreased to vision, pain, tearing

Question 57

how to diagnose a corneal abrasion

Answer 57

fluorescein - dye shine pen light with attachment abrasion will be visible will resolve within a few days to a week

Question 58

corneal laceration

Answer 58

puncture wound to the eye "open globe" automatic referral can use an eye shield

Question 59

subconjunctival hemorrhage

Answer 59

benign | can occur from trauma (straining, high BP)

Question 60

hyphema

Answer 60

``` bleeding in the anterior chamber of the eye not benign shows up over the iris and pupil S/S pain, blurred vision 911 -keep them upright Tx -bedrest in an elevated position resolve in about a week will require eye protection ```

Question 61

detached retina

Answer 61

``` high chance of disrupting optic nerve S/S -"curtain" over their field of vision -floaters -blurred vision can be caused by a severe jarring force immediate referral ```

Question 62

retinal tears

Answer 62

similar S/S to detached retina | immediately refer

Question 63

chemical burns

Answer 63

flush continuously | refer

Question 64

traumatic iritis

Answer 64

``` blunt trauma S/S -photophobia -sluggish pupil reaction refer ```

Question 65

proptosis

Answer 65

``` direct trauma bulging of the eye caused by swelling swelling can damage the optic nerve S/S -bulging -decreased motility -diplopia -can't close eyelids fully -pain -nausea immediate referral ```

Question 66

ruptured globe

Answer 66

``` blunt trauma directly to the glove rupture of the cornea or the sclera resulting in the inner contents spilling out S/S -pain -eyeball may look out of place -marked edema -hyphema possibly shield and refer ```

Question 67

examination of the ear

Answer 67

``` patient history general observation palpate pinna and mastoid process conduct a hearing test if necessary -determine difference between sensorineural loss and conductive hearing loss using the Weber test Otoscope evaluation ```

Question 68

auricular hematoma

Answer 68

``` buildup of fluid between the skin and the certilage of the pinna MOI -repeated trauma to the site S/S -buildup of fluid -sometimes painful Tx -ice and compression -referral if they have a visible buildup of fluid RTP -clear to play -drain and cover ```

Question 69

ruptured tympanic membrane

Answer 69

``` MOI -change in pressure -puncture wound -direct blow to the head S/S -painful -tinnitus -hearing loss Tx -will heal on it's own refer out RTP -depends on the sport -self-limiting in most sports ```

Question 70

otitis externa

Answer 70

``` inflammation and/or infection of the external auditory canal swimmer's ear, or cleaning the ear too much cerumen dries out - dries the ear out S/S -pain -itching -burning -possible swelling of pinna Tx -antibiotics RTP -usually within 24 hours of beginning antibiotics ```

Question 71

otitis media

Answer 71

``` presence of fluid in the middle ear accompanied by S/S of infection S/S -earache -fullness in the ear -fever -ringing in the ears -dizziness -hearing loss -tympanic membrane is red when looking with an otoscope Tx RTP -24 hours after starting antibiotics ```

Question 72

impacted cerumen

Answer 72

``` build of earwax in the external canal S/S -hearing loss -ear's "plugged up" Dx -use otoscope Tx -referral to have it removed -manual removal ```

Question 73

nose exam

Answer 73

``` ask questions look for drainage examine the nose palpate the nose palpate the facial bones and sinuses ```

Question 74

allergic rhinitis

Answer 74

``` hypersensitivity to inhaled allergens S/S -clear mucus -sneezing -runny nose -congestion -itchy, watery eyes Tx -send in if they have a fever -antihistamines -avoid allergens -humidifier, air filter ```

Question 75

non-allergic rhinitis

Answer 75

caused by virus, bacteria or vasomotor-related inflammation or infection of the nasal passages S/S -same as allergic but won't react to same Tx

Question 76

sinusitis

Answer 76

``` inflammation of mucus membranes lining the paranasal sinuses S/S -sinus pain Tx -referral -antibiotics RTP -can play without fever ```

Question 77

exam of the mouth and throat

Answer 77

inspect the face, head and neck palpate the lymph nodes examine the lips both open and closed inspect the tongue and mucosal lining of the mouth, gingivae, and back of throat

Question 78

gingivitis

Answer 78

``` Bacterial infection of the gums S/S -swollen and red gums -possible bleeding -pain -haltosis: bad breath Tx -referral -oral hygiene is important for oral health ```

Question 79

oral candidiasis

Answer 79

``` "thrush" fungal infection of the mucous membranes in the mouth S/S -white/yellow tongue -can turn into red lesions of the gums Tx -referral ```

Question 80

oral cancer

Answer 80

direct link between tobacco use and oral cancer individuals who use tobacco products and alcohol are at 15x more risk S/S -hoarseness -pain or difficulty swallowing or chewing -masses in the mouth or neck Tx -chemo -radiation

Question 81

phayngitis and tonsillitis

Answer 81

``` inflammation of either/or can be caused by bacteria or viruses streptococcus is the main culprit -strep throat S/S -white spots in the back of the throat -sore throat -painful swallowing -fever/chills depending on infection type Tx -bacterial: refer --strep test, antibiotics -viral: rest RTP -depends on if they have a fever -no fever for 24 hours ```

Question 82

laryngitis

Answer 82

``` inflammation of the larynx -direct blow to the throat -can accompany upper respiratory infection -common in smokers S/S -loss of voice -tickling in back of throat Tx -humid environment -cough drops RTP -self-limiting in absence of fever ```

Question 83

lymphatic system

Answer 83

olymphics

Question 84

what is athlete's heart

Answer 84

the concept that the heart of athletes enlarges as a result of cardiovascular training

Question 85

normal physiological response to exercise - acute - chronic

Answer 85

``` acute -increased HR and SV -increased systolic BP -increased breathing chronic -decreased HR -decreased breathing -decreased BP ```

Question 86

SCD common causes

Answer 86

HCM - hypertrophic cardiomyopathy sickle cell trait/anemia commotio cordis coronary artery abnormalities

Question 87

cardiac pathology S/S

Answer 87

``` chest pain dyspnea fatigue palpitations syncope claudication skin and nail temperature, color and appearance edema ```

Question 88

what creates the "lub dub" sounds you hear when ausculating

Answer 88

``` heart sounds 1 and 2 S1 -closure of mitral and tricuspid valves S2 -closure of aortic and pulmonic valves ```

Question 89

heart failure

Answer 89

``` decrease in cardiac output -heart has developed an insufficient heart pump hear failure can be -left -right -acute -chronic acute is immediately life threatening chronic heart failure displays gradual but systemic failure ```

Question 90

heart failure S/S

Answer 90

cyanosis shortness of breath low BP

Question 91

myocardial ischemia - S/S - may be cause by

Answer 91

``` decreased blood supply to the myocardium S/S -angina -dyspnea -snycope coronary artery disease can cause this -the myocardium can become ischemic and necrotic causing a myocardial infarction ```

Question 92

myocardial infarction | -S/S

Answer 92

``` most MI's happen during moderate to heavy activity S/S -angina -fatigue -dizziness -syncope quick response and referral is necessary ```

Question 93

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Answer 93

``` enlargement of the heart -general -left ventricle leads to -heart failure -ischemic damage -fatal arrhythmia pathological -LV wall thickness > 15mm leading cause of SCD ```

Question 94

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy S/S

Answer 94

``` syncope angina dyspnea murmur that increases with Valsalva Maneuver family history ```

Question 95

valve disorders - stenosis or prolapse - sports participation

Answer 95

``` stenosis or prolapse -stenosis: narrowing of the valve; restricts blood flow -prolapse: allows backflow of blood often allowed to participate in sports may result in arrhythmias -withheld from sports ```

Question 96

MVP

Answer 96

mitral valve prolapse | most common valve abnormality

Question 97

Marfan's Syndrome

Answer 97

``` genetic defect that leads to abnormalities in the body's connective tissue signs -tall stature and long extremities -pectus deformity -scoliosis -spontaneous pneumothorax -myopic (nearsighted) 80-90% will develop fatal artery abnormalities ```

Question 98

Marfan's Syndrome complications

Answer 98

Mitral Valve Prolapse (MVP) Aortic Valve Disease Aortic Rupture -vessel walls weaken and dilate

Question 99

Marfan's diagnosis

Answer 99

hard | complete family hx is important

Question 100

commotio cordis

Answer 100

sudden blow to the chest during repolarization 15% resuscitation rate without immediate AED application

Question 101

congenital abnormalities of coronary arteries

Answer 101

abnormal origin of the left main coronary artery -may cause a "kinking" of the artery or force it to pass through the aorta and pulmonary artery --blood flow is restricted to the heart tissue S/S -Chest pain -arrhythmias -syncope

Question 102

congenital abnormalities of coronary arteries

Answer 102

Hypoplasia (underdevelopment) of the R and L circumflex coronary arteries absence of the left coronary artery myocardial bridging -artery goes through tissue instead of over the top testing -ECG -treadmill stress test (if both are +, further investigate) coronary angiography

Question 103

deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

Answer 103

``` blood clot lodged in a vein results in venous blockage most common in the lower leg S/S -limb pain and swelling Dx -ultrasound Tx -anticoagulants may lead to a pulmonary embolism ```

Question 104

disorders of the blood

Answer 104

anemia sickle cell anemia sickle cell trait

Question 105

anemia

Answer 105

defines as a decreased # of RBC's or a decreased hemoglobin concentration in the blood 3 general categories -microcytic: iron deficiency -normocytic: normal sized RBC (blood loss) -macrocytic: enlarged; don't function properly

Question 106

S/S and hx of anemia

Answer 106

``` vague symptoms -weakness, fatigue, dizziness and headache -decreased performance -craving ice or crunchy raw veggies signs -tachycardia, orthostatic hypotension, dyspnea, tachypnea and pallor -bruises easily hx -dietary habits -menstrual cycle and amount of flow -NSAID use and antibiotic use ```

Question 107

treatment for anemia

Answer 107

refer to doctor for CBC to determine type of anemia first identify and correct any sources of blood loss look at diet and ensure athlete is getting good sources of iron take 325mg 3x per day of ferrous sulfate -2 week response is good -after 3-6 weeks hemoglobin is back to normal

Question 108

sickle cell anemia

Answer 108

occurs as a recessive genetic trait, producing abnormally shaped RBC's that inhibit binding of O2 creates a decreased O2 carrying capacity of the blood

Question 109

sickle cell trait

Answer 109

20-40% of the hemoglobin is HbS; the rest of the hemoglobin is normal 1 in every 400-600 African Americans have anemia 1 in every 10 AA have the trait the risk of SD is 27x higher in AA that have the SCT SCT is a risk factor for -exertional rhabdomyolysis -splenic infarction -cardiac arrhythmias -kidney failure

Question 110

SCT S/S

Answer 110

tachycardia hypotension hyperventilation LOC

Question 111

athletes with SCT are advised to...

Answer 111

avoid dehydration and acclimatize gradually to heat and humidity condition gradually for several weeks before engaging in exhaustive exercise regimens acclimate to altitude over an appropriate amount of time refrain from extreme exercise during acute illness, especially if fever is involved

Question 112

effects of exercise on respiratory system

Answer 112

increased blood to the lungs increased oxygen demand to muscles increased carbon dioxide produced by muscles increase in ventilation

Question 113

S/S of pulmonary disease

Answer 113

``` dyspnea cough cyanosis abnormal breathing patterns thorax pain ```

Question 114

peak flow meter

Answer 114

``` establish a baseline for your patient test patient upon suspicion of bronchospasm -green zone: 80-100% of baseline -yellow zone: 50-80% of personal best --medication is necessary -red zone: below 50% --call 911 ```

Question 115

pulmonary pathology disease classification

Answer 115

obstructive -limits airflow restrictive -limits lung expansion

Question 116

pulmonary pathology sources

Answer 116

environmental influences trauma genetic factors immune response

Question 117

flail chest injury

Answer 117

multiple fractures that result in displacement of the ribs | can also sprain the joint between the rib and cartilage

Question 118

pneumothorax

Answer 118

``` collaped lung (air in the pleural space) commonly caused by trauma S/S -pain -trouble breathing -would hear hyper-resonance during percussion Tx -referral ```

Question 119

hemothorax

Answer 119

``` blood in the pleural space S/S -similar to pneumothorax -coughing up blood (frothy) -percussion and auscultation differences Tx -referral ```

Question 120

asthma

Answer 120

``` produces -bronchial spasms -chronic bronchial inflammation -bronchial edema symptoms -chest constriction -fatigue -anxiety clinical signs: symptoms worsen at night ```

Question 121

asthma cont.

Answer 121

``` onset -begins early, genetic predisposition to severe allergic responses causes -allergens -infection -cold/dry air -emotional states -exercise Tx -patient education is important -limit inflammation (corticostaroids) -treat bronchospasms (short and long acting beta-2 agonist) -control symptoms -prevent exacerbation by controlling known triggers ```

Question 122

management of an acute asthma attack

Answer 122

``` seated position take deep breaths exhale through pursed lips (whistle) tell them to remain calm administer inhaler ER is all else fails ```

Question 123

exercise induced bronchospasm

Answer 123

exercise-induced asthma more common than asthma -15% of the population -90% of people with asthma -35-40% of people with allergies occurs 5-10 minutes into exercise, worsens with activity spontaneous recovery occurs 30-60 minutes after stopping exercise

Question 124

exercise induced bronchospasm - triggers - S/S

Answer 124

``` triggers -cold, dry air -allergens -pollutions -infection S/S -unusual dyspnea -central chest pain during exercise -coughing ```

Question 125

Acute EIB management

Answer 125

similar to an asthma attack remove from exercise reassure assess and monitor

Question 126

when to refer w/ EIB

Answer 126

cyanosis syncope symptoms >60 minutes

Question 127

exercise induced anaphylaxis

Answer 127

``` breathing disorder + chronic use of NSAIDs produces an abnormal immune response S/S -flushing -urticaria -cough, croup (deep "honking" cough) -stridor --harsh wheezing sound -hypotension & tachycardia (shock) ```

Question 128

EIA treatment

Answer 128

administer Epipen | call 911

Question 129

acute bronchitis

Answer 129

``` caused by infection or irritant that produces an inflammatory response -most commonly viral early S/S -fever -nonproductive cough -sore throat -chest pain progresses to -productive cough -wheezing treatment -cough suppressants -rest -hydration ```

Question 130

chronic bronchitis

Answer 130

caused by prolonged or repeated exposure to irritants inflammation of the bronchial mucous membranes S/S -wheezing -dyspnea -cough that is more productive in the mornings and evenings symptoms present from 3 months - 2 years treatment -avoid irritants

Question 131

pneumonia

Answer 131

every year more than 60,000 Americans die of pneumonia infection and inflammation in the lungs recognition and early treatment is the best option

Question 132

pleurisy

Answer 132

inflammation of the pleura may develop secondary to other infections fluid can accumulate at the site of the inflammation can cause coughing, dyspnea, tachypnea, cyanosis, and retractions diagnosis -auscultation -pain at one site with laughing, coughing

Question 133

influenza

Answer 133

``` the "Flu" viral S/S -high fever -headache/body aches -cough -chest pain -shortness of breath -fatigue -loss of appetite -nasal congestion -sore throat refer when -close contact with other person's diagnosed influenza -symptomatic diagnosis -clinincal grounds mainly -antigen testing -CBC's -sputum cultures -fever is generally the hallmark ```

Question 134

upper respiratory infections

Answer 134

rhinovirus very easily spread through cough or sneeze mild symptoms very similar to influenza but don't last as long secondary bacterial infection can happen 7-10 day duration

Question 135

tuberculosis

Answer 135

``` highly contagious bacterial infection -mycobacterium tuberculosis airborne droplets cause infection immunocompromised people are more likely to get active TB S/S -fatigue -fever -weight loss -cough -hemoptysis -shortness of breath/wheezing diagnosis -skin test -symptomatic -positive radiograph ```

Question 136

pulmonary obstructive disorders (COPD)

Answer 136

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is a classification of diseases involving partially blocked airways -asthma -bronchitis -emphysema -cystic fibrosis decreased vital capacity, increased CO2, decreased O2, thus disrupting the diffusion gradient across the alveoli

Question 137

emphysema

Answer 137

complication of chronic pulmonary disease + prolonged smoking causes destruction of alveolar walls, capillaries, and lung elasticity S/S -SOB -increased exhalation effort -infection -Cor pulmonale (right sided heart failure) irreversible, poor prognosis