Lecture Exam Two Flashcards
Powerpoint slides that are going to show up on the exam.
1
Q
What does the skeletal system compose of?
A
- bones
- cartilages
- joints
- ligaments
2
Q
What are the two major divisions of the skeletal system?
A
- axial
2. appendicular
3
Q
How many bones comprise the skull
A
22
4
Q
[…] bones provide sites of attachment for the head and […].
A
cranial; neck
5
Q
Which is the integral bone of the skull? Why?
A
mandible
not attached by sutures to remainder of skull
6
Q
The frontal lobe of the cortex rests on which cranial fossa?
A
anterior
7
Q
Cranial […] forms superior, lateral, and posterior portion of skull as well as […].
A
vault; forehead
8
Q
Cranial […] forms inferior aspect of the skull.
A
base
9
Q
The internal base is divided into which three “steps”/fossae?
A
- anterior
- middle
- posterior
10
Q
Brain sits within the […] enclosed by the cranium […].
A
fossae; vault
11
Q
The skull has […] named openings.
A
85
12
Q
Generally, what are the openings of the skull?
A
foramina (foramen), canals, fissures
13
Q
What are the 8 cranial bones?
A
- frontal
- parietal (x2)
- occipital
- temporal (x2)
- sphenoid
- ethmoid
14
Q
The skull bone is connected to the rest of the cranium posteriorly via the coronal suture. It is the […] bone.
A
frontal
15
Q
Which suture connects the left and right parietal bones?
A
saggital
16
Q
Which of the following structures serves as a “seat” of the endocrine system by supporting the pituitary gland?
A
sella turcica
*think of a saddle
17
Q
The “big hole” in the skull that allows the spinal cord to connect to the brain stem is called the […].
A
foramen magnum
18
Q
This bone contains four major areas: squamous, tympanic, mastoid, and petrous. It is the […] bone.
A
temporal
19
Q
How can mastoiditis develop? Is this a serious imbalance?
A
due to a middle ear infection
infection could easily spread to the brain if not treated
20
Q
This bone looks somewhat like a butterfly, with a pair of Greater Wings and a pair of Lesser Wings. It is the […] bone.
A
sphenoid
21
Q
This is the deepest skull bone. It’s superior part, the cribriform plate, has a large number of perforations (“foramina”) which allows the olfactory nerve to connect to the olfactory bulb. It is the […] bone.
A
ethmoid
22
Q
What is the scientific name for the cheekbone?
A
zygomatic bone
23
Q
Which bone does not articulate directly with any other bone in the skeleton?
A
hyoid
**consisting of greater/lesser horn
24
Q
What is the function of the hyoid bone?
A
- acts as a movable base for tongue
2. site of attachment for muscles of swallowing and speech
25
Which cranial bone does not help form the orbital cavity?
temporal
26
List the bones that form the orbits:
1. frontal
2. sphenoid
3. zygomatic
4. maxilla
5. palatine
6. lacrimal
7. ethmoid
27
There are [...] bones that form the adult vertebral column.
26
28
The primary functions of the vertebral column include:
1. protection of the spinal cord
2. transmission of weight from the trunk to the lower limbs
3. provide attachment points for ribs and muscles
29
The [...] and the [...] curvatures are concave posteriorly while the [...] and the [...] curvatures are convex posteriorly.
cervical; lumbar; thoracic; sacral
30
How many vertebrae in the top three regions?
1. cervical consists of 7
2. thoracic consists of 12
3. lumbar consists of 5
31
What is the sacrum?
one bone formed from fusion of several bones
32
What is the coccyx?
fused bones that form the terminus of column
33
What is the primary function of the anterior longitudinal ligament?
support and prevent hyperextension of the spine
34
What is the primary function of the intervertebral foramina?
for exit of spinal nerves from the spinal cord
35
Which of the following is NOT true concerning the intervertebral discs as we age?
they become more hydrated
36
As we age what happens the the intervertebral discs
1. thinner
2. lose elasticity
3. increase risk of disc herniation
37
The intervertebral disc is composed of two parts. The inner gelatinous nucleus, the [...] and the outer collar composed of the collagen and fibrocartilage, the [...].
nucleus pulposus; anulus fibrosus
38
What is the purpose of the nucleus pulposus?
gives disc its elasticity and compressibility
39
What is the purpose of the anulus fibrosus?
limits expansion of nucleus pulposus when compressed
40
What is another name for a spinal disc prolapse?
slipped disc and herniated disc
41
The Hunchback of Notre Dame suffered from which spinal problem?
kyphosis
42
What is scoliosis?
abnormal lateral rotation of spine, most often in the thoracic region, may lead to breathing difficulties
43
What is kyphosis?
abnormal dorsal thoracic curvature common in people with osteoporosis, TB of spine, rickets, or osteomalacia
44
What is lordosis?
accentuated lumbar curvature due to disease OR seen in men with pot bellies and in pregnant women
45
Cervical vertebrae can be uniquely identified by the presence of [...].
transverse foramina
46
Which cervical vertebrae allows your head to move up and down to indicate "yes" and "no"?
C1-- atlas
C2-- axis
47
This group of vertebrae is the only group that articulates with the ribs.
thoracic
48
Which region of the column receives the most stress? How is this shown in their structure?
lumbar region
bodies are massive
49
What ensures that the lumbar region does not rotate?
orientation of articular facets locks vertebrae together
50
How many fetal bones fuse together to form the sacrum?
5
51
The major functions of the thoracic cage is (are) [...].
1. protects vital organs of thoracic cavity
2. supports shoulder girdles and upper limbs
3. provides attachment sites for muscles of neck, back, chest, and shoulders
52
How many of the following do you have:
True Ribs, False Ribs, Floating Ribs
7
2
2
53
Which of the following organs lies directly posterior to the sternum?
heart
54
Which of the following bones is not part of the appendicular skeleton?
sternum
55
The arrangement of bones and muscles of the pectoral girdle is such that there is a high degree of [...] but a low level of [...].
flexibility; stability
56
The two bones that make up your forearm are the [...] and the [...].
radius; ulna
57
The [...] is the most frequently fractured portion of the humerus.
surgical neck
58
The funny bone of the elbow is actually this portion of the humerus:
medial epicondyle
59
The [...] rotates about the [...] when you pronate your forearm (the palm faces posteriorly).
radius; ulna
60
Which two carpals articulate with the radius to form the wrist joint?
scaphoid and lunate
61
Which of these bones would bear a ring?
phalanx
62
Each of the hip bones is comprised of [...] separate bones.
3
63
Characteristics of the male pelvis:
1. deep and narrow cavity
2. thicker, prominent markings
3. acetabula is larger and closer
4. pubic arch angle is more acute (50-60)
64
Characteristics of a female's pelvis:
1. tilted forward, cavity broad/shallow and has a greater capacity
2. bones are lighter/thinner/smoother
3. acetabula is smaller and farther apart
4. pubic arch is more rounded (80-90)
65
Which of the following bones is capable of bearing the greatest physical stress?
femur
66
This bone of the leg bears no weight.
fibula
67
Which bone in your foot is your heel?
calcaneus
68
The technical name for the "soft spot" in a newborns baby's head is the anterior...
fontallele
69
The site where two or more bones meet is called a(n)...
articulation site
70
Which of the following correctly lists three structural types of joints?
fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial
71
Which of the following are three functional types of joints?
synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses
72
Mobility according to the functional type of joint:
synarthroses-- immovable
amphiarthroses-- slightly movable
diarthroses-- freely movable
73
Which type of joints only occur in the skull?
suture
74
The [...] the ligament of a syndesmosis, the [...] the degree of movement.
longer; greater
75
Which of the following joints is a site of long bone growth?
synchondrosis
76
Which type of joint would a dentist be most familiar with?
gomphosis
77
"Slipped joint" means which type of joint is disrupted?
symphysis
78
All synovial joints are...
diarthrotic
79
Which of the following synovial joint components is responsible for secreting synovial fluid?
synovial membrane
80
What is the flattened sac that reduces friction between adjacent structures during joint activity?
bursae
81
What are the factors that stabilizes joints?
articular surfaces, muscle tone, ligaments
82
What kind of movements are allowed by the wrists?
gliding
83
What kinds of movement do you make with your head when you look straight up at the moon?
hyperextension
84
Pointing your toes downward is describes as which type of movement?
plantar flexion
85
Which type of synovial joint is used when you bend your finger tips to hang onto a cliff?
hinge
86
The greatest degree of motion that synovial joints display is described as ...
multiaxial
87
Which of the following is considered the largest and most complex joint in your body?
knee
88
The knee joint is most susceptible to injury when [...] blows are applied to the knee.
lateral
89
Which of the following is the most movable joint in your body?
shoulder
90
An injury common to baseball players is a torn rotator cuff. This collection of muscles and tendons is associated with the [...] joint.
shoulder
91
Which joint articulates the numerus with the radius and ulna?
elbow
92
Which joint contains the acetabulum?
hip
93
Which of the following is the easiest joint to dislocate?
jaw
94
The most common joint injuries include:
sprains and dislocations
95
The most common form of chronic arthritis is [...].
osteoarthritis
96
Lyme disease is:
caused by a bacterium
97
Which exercise is best for the joints?
swimming
98
Which of the following is not a prefix used to refer to muscle?
lemma
* mys, myo, and sarco refer to the muscular system
99
Of the following muscle types, which is the only one subject to conscious control?
skeletal
100
Of the following muscle types, which is the only one that is striated and involuntary?
cardiac
101
Which of the following muscle types is responsible for the propulsion of urine and semen in the male's urethra?
smooth
102
Smooth muscle location:
stomach, urinary bladder, and airways
103
In order to receive a signal to contract each skeletal muscle must be served by an
nerve
104
The elastic components of muscle consist of which elements?
tendon, epimysium, perimysium, endomysium
105
A skeletal muscle is composed of a number of [...], each composed of many muscle fibers bundled by connective tissue.
fascicles
106
Which of the following components accounts for the bulk of muscle fiber volume (80%)?
myofibril
107
The fundamental repeating unit of the myofibril called a [...] gives skeletal muscle its striated appearance, and is bordered by [...].
sarcomere; Z disk
108
The thin filaments are not comprised of which of the following components?
titin
* actin, troponin, tropomyosin
109
The I band contains...
thin filaments only
110
H zone contains
thick filaments only
111
M line contains
thick filaments linked by accessory proteins
112
Outer edge of A band contains
thick and thin filaments overlap
113
When a skeletal muscle is passively stretched, that cell has a tendency to spring back once the force that was stretching the muscle is removed due to [...].
titin acting as a spring using the energy stored by the stretching
114
What is the saclike membranous network that surrounds each myofibril called?
sarcoplasmic reticulum
115
The sarcoplasmic reticulum is an elaborated [...].
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
116
What is the significance of the muscle fiber triad relationship?
the T tubules conduct electrical impulses that stimulate calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
117
During skeletal muscle contraction, as the muscle shortens, the thick and thin filaments [...].
slide past one another
118
During a muscle contraction, the sliding filament theory would be apparent in a sarcomere because [...].
the H zone becomes less obvious and the Z discs move closer together
119
At the neuromuscular junction, the muscle contraction initiation event is [...].
binding of acetylcholine to membrane receptors on the sarcolemma
120
Acetylcholine receptor-channels allow passage of [...] when open.
both Na and K
121
What would happen to a muscle fiber treated with an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that is NOT stimulated?
nothing
122
In a muscle fiber, the key intracellular electrical event that stimulates muscle contraction is known as [...].
depolarization
123
During depolarization, the sarcolemma is most permeable to [...].
sodium ions
124
During repolarization, the sarcolemma is most permeable to [...].
potassium ions
125
What is calcium's function during muscle contraction?
calcium binds to troponin, changing its shape and removing the blocking action of tropomyosin
126
Corpses usually exhibit rigor mortis because [...].
a lack of ATP hydrolysis prevents myosin head detachment from actin
127
The force of muscle contraction depends on number of cross bridges attached, which is affected by four factors:
1. relative size of fibers (large)
2. number of muscle fibers simulated (large)
3. frequency of stimulation (high)
4. stretch of sarcomere and muscle (over 100%)
128
The maximal force will be developed by a muscle at its..
intermediate length
129
Theoretically, contraction would not occur if:
1. Z discs contact the thick myofilaments
| 2. actin and myosin filaments do not overlap
130
Sprinters typically possess more [...] muscle fibers.
fast oxidative
131
What type of muscle fibers would be best for hitting a homerun in baseball?
fast glycolytic
132
Muscle fibers that rely on anaerobic glycolysis for their ATP [...].
fatigue more easily
133
A skeletal muscle can contract most quickly against...
a minimal load
134
What type of exercise can convert fast oxidative fibers to fast glycolytic fibers?
resistance exercise
135
What type of exercise can convert fast glycolytic fibers to fast oxidative fibers?
aerobic exercise
136
A major difference between smooth muscle fibers and skeletal muscle fibers in terms of calcium influx is that [...].
calcium ion influx occurs mostly from the extracellular fluid in smooth muscle
137
A major cellular feature in smooth muscle that contributes to its rhythmicity and ability to participate in peristalsis is the presence of [...].
gap junctions
138
Which of these statements about smooth muscle contraction is FALSE?
troponin plays the same role as in skeletal muscle
139
How does changes in phosphate activity alter the calcium-dependent increase in myosin light chain kinase activity?
1. low phosphatase activity sensitizes myosin activity
2. low phosphatase activity shifts the calcium-myosin curve to the left
3. high phosphatase activity decreases the phosphorylation of myosin
140
One somatic motor neuron innervates one [...].
motor unit
141
Small precise movements are controlled by [...] motor units.
small
142
The time period between action potential initiation and mechanical activity of a muscle fiber is called the [...].
latent period
143
When a muscle is given a single stimulus, it responds with a contraction called a muscle [...].
twitch
144
A sustained muscle contraction due to a lack of relaxation between successive stimuli is called:
tetanus
145
A muscle contraction increases in strength up to a point because [...].
recruitment occurs and more motor units respond to stronger stimuli
146
Isometric contractions come into play when an individual is [...].
maintaining an upright posture
147
Isotonic contractions come into play when an individual is [...].
threading a needle, walking uphill, moving a heavy object
148
What enzyme catalyzes the reaction that creates creatine phosphate?
creatine kinase
149
Which metabolic pathway provides the fast source of ATP for muscle contraction?
direct phosphorylation of ADP by creatine phosphate
150
A sprinter is likely to depend on [...] respiration to generate ATP, and Tour de France cyclist is likely to rely on [...] respiration.
anaerobic; aerobic
151
Which of the following is not a fatigue producing factor in moderate exercise?
lack of ATP
152
Which of the following is the new name for "oxygen debt" after strenuous exercise?
EPOC-- excess postexercise oxygen consumption
153
The muscles of the [...] are rather unusual for muscles because they insert onto the skin or other muscles.
face
154
The muscle is the primary muscle used in smiling.
zygomaticus
155
Which muscle makes an angry brow?
corrugator supercilii
156
Muscle used to pucker:
orbicularis oris
157
Muscle used to pout
mentalis
158
Muscle used to tense your neck?
platysma
159
Muscle for raised brows/wrinkled forehead:
frontal belly of epicranius
160
When you bite down on an ice cube, this muscle strongly contracts.
masseter (chewing)
161
When lying on your back, [...] muscles contract to lift your head.
sternocleidomastoid
162
The muscles of the back, which are most susceptible to injury during heavy lifting, belong to the [...] muscle group.
erector spine (ilicostalis/longissimus/spinalis)
163
The [...] is (are) the most important muscle(s) for inspiratory breathing.
diaphragm
164
The muscle that provides the major force of producing a specific movement is a(n).
prime mover
165
The [...] opposes or reverses a particular movement.
antagonist
166
What are synergist prime movers?
1. add extra force to same movement
| 2. reduce undesirable or unnecessary movement
167
What are fixators?
1. synergist that immobilizes bone or muscle's origin
| 2. gives prime mover stable base on which to act
168
A muscle that crosses a joint on the anterior side is usually a(n) [...]. A cross posteriorly is a(n) [...]. Lateral cross is a(n) [...] while a medial cross is a(n) [...].
flexor; extensor; abductor; adductor
169
You could conclude that. a muscle with the term deltoid included in its name would be a muscle with a shape resembling a ...
triangle
170
"Maximus" included in a muscle name would be a muscle with a [...].
large size
171
"Rectus" included in a muscle name would be a muscle with fibers that run [...] to the body's vertical axis.
parallel
172
Transversus: fibers run [...].
at right angles
173
Oblique: fibers run [...].
angles to imaginary defined axis
174
Number of origin examples:
biceps and triceps
175
Fascicle arrangments:
1. parallel
2. fusiform
3. circular
4. convergent
5. pennate
176
What is a parallel fascicle?
Example of a parallel fascicle
parallel to long axis of straplike muscle
sartorius
177
What is a fusiform fascicle?
Example of a fusiform fascicle:
spindle-shaped muscles with parallel fibers
biceps brachii
178
What is a circular fascicle?
Example of a circular fascicle:
fascicles arranged in concentric rings
orbicularis oris
179
What is a convergent fascicle?
Example of convergent fascicle:
broad origin; fascicles converge toward single tendon insertion
pectoralis major
180
What is a pennate fascicle?
Example of a pennate fascicle:
short fascicles attach obliquely to central tendon running length of muscle
rectus femoris
181
Muscle power is primarily dependent on [...].
the number of cells in the muscle
182
Levers allow given effort to move a [...] load or to move load [...] or [...].
heavier; farther/faster
183
Lever system within the body:
1. lever
2. effort
3. load
184
What does the lever consist of?
bone moves on a fixed joint (fulcrum)
185
What does the effort in the lever system consist of?
muscle contraction to move load
186
What does the load in the lever system consist of?
resistance (bone+tissues+any added weight)
187
From left to right list the position of effort, fulcrum, load in a first-class lever:
load, fulcrum, effort
188
From left to right list the position of effort, fulcrum, load in a second-class lever:
fulcrum, load, effort
189
From left to right list the position of effort, fulcrum, load in a third-class lever:
load, effort, fulcrum
190
Example of first-class leverage:
extension of the head
191
Example of second-class leverage:
tiptoe or calf raises
192
Example of third-class leverage:
biceps curls or arm flexion
