Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anatomy > Lecture Exam Two > Flashcards

Lecture Exam Two Flashcards

Powerpoint slides that are going to show up on the exam.

1
Q

What does the skeletal system compose of?

A
  1. bones
  2. cartilages
  3. joints
  4. ligaments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two major divisions of the skeletal system?

A
  1. axial

2. appendicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How many bones comprise the skull

A

22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

[…] bones provide sites of attachment for the head and […].

A

cranial; neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which is the integral bone of the skull? Why?

A

mandible

not attached by sutures to remainder of skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The frontal lobe of the cortex rests on which cranial fossa?

A

anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cranial […] forms superior, lateral, and posterior portion of skull as well as […].

A

vault; forehead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cranial […] forms inferior aspect of the skull.

A

base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The internal base is divided into which three “steps”/fossae?

A
  1. anterior
  2. middle
  3. posterior
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Brain sits within the […] enclosed by the cranium […].

A

fossae; vault

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The skull has […] named openings.

A

85

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Generally, what are the openings of the skull?

A

foramina (foramen), canals, fissures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 8 cranial bones?

A
  1. frontal
  2. parietal (x2)
  3. occipital
  4. temporal (x2)
  5. sphenoid
  6. ethmoid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The skull bone is connected to the rest of the cranium posteriorly via the coronal suture. It is the […] bone.

A

frontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which suture connects the left and right parietal bones?

A

saggital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following structures serves as a “seat” of the endocrine system by supporting the pituitary gland?

A

sella turcica

*think of a saddle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The “big hole” in the skull that allows the spinal cord to connect to the brain stem is called the […].

A

foramen magnum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

This bone contains four major areas: squamous, tympanic, mastoid, and petrous. It is the […] bone.

A

temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How can mastoiditis develop? Is this a serious imbalance?

A

due to a middle ear infection

infection could easily spread to the brain if not treated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

This bone looks somewhat like a butterfly, with a pair of Greater Wings and a pair of Lesser Wings. It is the […] bone.

A

sphenoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

This is the deepest skull bone. It’s superior part, the cribriform plate, has a large number of perforations (“foramina”) which allows the olfactory nerve to connect to the olfactory bulb. It is the […] bone.

A

ethmoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the scientific name for the cheekbone?

A

zygomatic bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which bone does not articulate directly with any other bone in the skeleton?

A

hyoid

**consisting of greater/lesser horn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the function of the hyoid bone?

A
  1. acts as a movable base for tongue

2. site of attachment for muscles of swallowing and speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which cranial bone does not help form the orbital cavity?

A

temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

List the bones that form the orbits:

A
  1. frontal
  2. sphenoid
  3. zygomatic
  4. maxilla
  5. palatine
  6. lacrimal
  7. ethmoid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

There are […] bones that form the adult vertebral column.

A

26

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The primary functions of the vertebral column include:

A
  1. protection of the spinal cord
  2. transmission of weight from the trunk to the lower limbs
  3. provide attachment points for ribs and muscles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The […] and the […] curvatures are concave posteriorly while the […] and the […] curvatures are convex posteriorly.

A

cervical; lumbar; thoracic; sacral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How many vertebrae in the top three regions?

A
  1. cervical consists of 7
  2. thoracic consists of 12
  3. lumbar consists of 5
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the sacrum?

A

one bone formed from fusion of several bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the coccyx?

A

fused bones that form the terminus of column

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the primary function of the anterior longitudinal ligament?

A

support and prevent hyperextension of the spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the primary function of the intervertebral foramina?

A

for exit of spinal nerves from the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following is NOT true concerning the intervertebral discs as we age?

A

they become more hydrated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

As we age what happens the the intervertebral discs

A
  1. thinner
  2. lose elasticity
  3. increase risk of disc herniation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The intervertebral disc is composed of two parts. The inner gelatinous nucleus, the […] and the outer collar composed of the collagen and fibrocartilage, the […].

A

nucleus pulposus; anulus fibrosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the purpose of the nucleus pulposus?

A

gives disc its elasticity and compressibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the purpose of the anulus fibrosus?

A

limits expansion of nucleus pulposus when compressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is another name for a spinal disc prolapse?

A

slipped disc and herniated disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The Hunchback of Notre Dame suffered from which spinal problem?

A

kyphosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is scoliosis?

A

abnormal lateral rotation of spine, most often in the thoracic region, may lead to breathing difficulties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is kyphosis?

A

abnormal dorsal thoracic curvature common in people with osteoporosis, TB of spine, rickets, or osteomalacia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is lordosis?

A

accentuated lumbar curvature due to disease OR seen in men with pot bellies and in pregnant women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Cervical vertebrae can be uniquely identified by the presence of […].

A

transverse foramina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which cervical vertebrae allows your head to move up and down to indicate “yes” and “no”?

A

C1– atlas

C2– axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

This group of vertebrae is the only group that articulates with the ribs.

A

thoracic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which region of the column receives the most stress? How is this shown in their structure?

A

lumbar region

bodies are massive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What ensures that the lumbar region does not rotate?

A

orientation of articular facets locks vertebrae together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How many fetal bones fuse together to form the sacrum?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The major functions of the thoracic cage is (are) […].

A
  1. protects vital organs of thoracic cavity
  2. supports shoulder girdles and upper limbs
  3. provides attachment sites for muscles of neck, back, chest, and shoulders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How many of the following do you have:

True Ribs, False Ribs, Floating Ribs

A

7
2
2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which of the following organs lies directly posterior to the sternum?

A

heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which of the following bones is not part of the appendicular skeleton?

A

sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The arrangement of bones and muscles of the pectoral girdle is such that there is a high degree of […] but a low level of […].

A

flexibility; stability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The two bones that make up your forearm are the […] and the […].

A

radius; ulna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The […] is the most frequently fractured portion of the humerus.

A

surgical neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The funny bone of the elbow is actually this portion of the humerus:

A

medial epicondyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The […] rotates about the […] when you pronate your forearm (the palm faces posteriorly).

A

radius; ulna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which two carpals articulate with the radius to form the wrist joint?

A

scaphoid and lunate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which of these bones would bear a ring?

A

phalanx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Each of the hip bones is comprised of […] separate bones.

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Characteristics of the male pelvis:

A
  1. deep and narrow cavity
  2. thicker, prominent markings
  3. acetabula is larger and closer
  4. pubic arch angle is more acute (50-60)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Characteristics of a female’s pelvis:

A
  1. tilted forward, cavity broad/shallow and has a greater capacity
  2. bones are lighter/thinner/smoother
  3. acetabula is smaller and farther apart
  4. pubic arch is more rounded (80-90)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which of the following bones is capable of bearing the greatest physical stress?

A

femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

This bone of the leg bears no weight.

A

fibula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which bone in your foot is your heel?

A

calcaneus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The technical name for the “soft spot” in a newborns baby’s head is the anterior…

A

fontallele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The site where two or more bones meet is called a(n)…

A

articulation site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which of the following correctly lists three structural types of joints?

A

fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which of the following are three functional types of joints?

A

synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Mobility according to the functional type of joint:

A

synarthroses– immovable
amphiarthroses– slightly movable
diarthroses– freely movable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which type of joints only occur in the skull?

A

suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The […] the ligament of a syndesmosis, the […] the degree of movement.

A

longer; greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which of the following joints is a site of long bone growth?

A

synchondrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which type of joint would a dentist be most familiar with?

A

gomphosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

“Slipped joint” means which type of joint is disrupted?

A

symphysis

78
Q

All synovial joints are…

A

diarthrotic

79
Q

Which of the following synovial joint components is responsible for secreting synovial fluid?

A

synovial membrane

80
Q

What is the flattened sac that reduces friction between adjacent structures during joint activity?

A

bursae

81
Q

What are the factors that stabilizes joints?

A

articular surfaces, muscle tone, ligaments

82
Q

What kind of movements are allowed by the wrists?

A

gliding

83
Q

What kinds of movement do you make with your head when you look straight up at the moon?

A

hyperextension

84
Q

Pointing your toes downward is describes as which type of movement?

A

plantar flexion

85
Q

Which type of synovial joint is used when you bend your finger tips to hang onto a cliff?

A

hinge

86
Q

The greatest degree of motion that synovial joints display is described as …

A

multiaxial

87
Q

Which of the following is considered the largest and most complex joint in your body?

A

knee

88
Q

The knee joint is most susceptible to injury when […] blows are applied to the knee.

A

lateral

89
Q

Which of the following is the most movable joint in your body?

A

shoulder

90
Q

An injury common to baseball players is a torn rotator cuff. This collection of muscles and tendons is associated with the […] joint.

A

shoulder

91
Q

Which joint articulates the numerus with the radius and ulna?

A

elbow

92
Q

Which joint contains the acetabulum?

A

hip

93
Q

Which of the following is the easiest joint to dislocate?

A

jaw

94
Q

The most common joint injuries include:

A

sprains and dislocations

95
Q

The most common form of chronic arthritis is […].

A

osteoarthritis

96
Q

Lyme disease is:

A

caused by a bacterium

97
Q

Which exercise is best for the joints?

A

swimming

98
Q

Which of the following is not a prefix used to refer to muscle?

A

lemma

  • mys, myo, and sarco refer to the muscular system
99
Q

Of the following muscle types, which is the only one subject to conscious control?

A

skeletal

100
Q

Of the following muscle types, which is the only one that is striated and involuntary?

A

cardiac

101
Q

Which of the following muscle types is responsible for the propulsion of urine and semen in the male’s urethra?

A

smooth

102
Q

Smooth muscle location:

A

stomach, urinary bladder, and airways

103
Q

In order to receive a signal to contract each skeletal muscle must be served by an

A

nerve

104
Q

The elastic components of muscle consist of which elements?

A

tendon, epimysium, perimysium, endomysium

105
Q

A skeletal muscle is composed of a number of […], each composed of many muscle fibers bundled by connective tissue.

A

fascicles

106
Q

Which of the following components accounts for the bulk of muscle fiber volume (80%)?

A

myofibril

107
Q

The fundamental repeating unit of the myofibril called a […] gives skeletal muscle its striated appearance, and is bordered by […].

A

sarcomere; Z disk

108
Q

The thin filaments are not comprised of which of the following components?

A

titin

  • actin, troponin, tropomyosin
109
Q

The I band contains…

A

thin filaments only

110
Q

H zone contains

A

thick filaments only

111
Q

M line contains

A

thick filaments linked by accessory proteins

112
Q

Outer edge of A band contains

A

thick and thin filaments overlap

113
Q

When a skeletal muscle is passively stretched, that cell has a tendency to spring back once the force that was stretching the muscle is removed due to […].

A

titin acting as a spring using the energy stored by the stretching

114
Q

What is the saclike membranous network that surrounds each myofibril called?

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum

115
Q

The sarcoplasmic reticulum is an elaborated […].

A

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

116
Q

What is the significance of the muscle fiber triad relationship?

A

the T tubules conduct electrical impulses that stimulate calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

117
Q

During skeletal muscle contraction, as the muscle shortens, the thick and thin filaments […].

A

slide past one another

118
Q

During a muscle contraction, the sliding filament theory would be apparent in a sarcomere because […].

A

the H zone becomes less obvious and the Z discs move closer together

119
Q

At the neuromuscular junction, the muscle contraction initiation event is […].

A

binding of acetylcholine to membrane receptors on the sarcolemma

120
Q

Acetylcholine receptor-channels allow passage of […] when open.

A

both Na and K

121
Q

What would happen to a muscle fiber treated with an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that is NOT stimulated?

A

nothing

122
Q

In a muscle fiber, the key intracellular electrical event that stimulates muscle contraction is known as […].

A

depolarization

123
Q

During depolarization, the sarcolemma is most permeable to […].

A

sodium ions

124
Q

During repolarization, the sarcolemma is most permeable to […].

A

potassium ions

125
Q

What is calcium’s function during muscle contraction?

A

calcium binds to troponin, changing its shape and removing the blocking action of tropomyosin

126
Q

Corpses usually exhibit rigor mortis because […].

A

a lack of ATP hydrolysis prevents myosin head detachment from actin

127
Q

The force of muscle contraction depends on number of cross bridges attached, which is affected by four factors:

A
  1. relative size of fibers (large)
  2. number of muscle fibers simulated (large)
  3. frequency of stimulation (high)
  4. stretch of sarcomere and muscle (over 100%)
128
Q

The maximal force will be developed by a muscle at its..

A

intermediate length

129
Q

Theoretically, contraction would not occur if:

A
  1. Z discs contact the thick myofilaments

2. actin and myosin filaments do not overlap

130
Q

Sprinters typically possess more […] muscle fibers.

A

fast oxidative

131
Q

What type of muscle fibers would be best for hitting a homerun in baseball?

A

fast glycolytic

132
Q

Muscle fibers that rely on anaerobic glycolysis for their ATP […].

A

fatigue more easily

133
Q

A skeletal muscle can contract most quickly against…

A

a minimal load

134
Q

What type of exercise can convert fast oxidative fibers to fast glycolytic fibers?

A

resistance exercise

135
Q

What type of exercise can convert fast glycolytic fibers to fast oxidative fibers?

A

aerobic exercise

136
Q

A major difference between smooth muscle fibers and skeletal muscle fibers in terms of calcium influx is that […].

A

calcium ion influx occurs mostly from the extracellular fluid in smooth muscle

137
Q

A major cellular feature in smooth muscle that contributes to its rhythmicity and ability to participate in peristalsis is the presence of […].

A

gap junctions

138
Q

Which of these statements about smooth muscle contraction is FALSE?

A

troponin plays the same role as in skeletal muscle

139
Q

How does changes in phosphate activity alter the calcium-dependent increase in myosin light chain kinase activity?

A
  1. low phosphatase activity sensitizes myosin activity
  2. low phosphatase activity shifts the calcium-myosin curve to the left
  3. high phosphatase activity decreases the phosphorylation of myosin
140
Q

One somatic motor neuron innervates one […].

A

motor unit

141
Q

Small precise movements are controlled by […] motor units.

A

small

142
Q

The time period between action potential initiation and mechanical activity of a muscle fiber is called the […].

A

latent period

143
Q

When a muscle is given a single stimulus, it responds with a contraction called a muscle […].

A

twitch

144
Q

A sustained muscle contraction due to a lack of relaxation between successive stimuli is called:

A

tetanus

145
Q

A muscle contraction increases in strength up to a point because […].

A

recruitment occurs and more motor units respond to stronger stimuli

146
Q

Isometric contractions come into play when an individual is […].

A

maintaining an upright posture

147
Q

Isotonic contractions come into play when an individual is […].

A

threading a needle, walking uphill, moving a heavy object

148
Q

What enzyme catalyzes the reaction that creates creatine phosphate?

A

creatine kinase

149
Q

Which metabolic pathway provides the fast source of ATP for muscle contraction?

A

direct phosphorylation of ADP by creatine phosphate

150
Q

A sprinter is likely to depend on […] respiration to generate ATP, and Tour de France cyclist is likely to rely on […] respiration.

A

anaerobic; aerobic

151
Q

Which of the following is not a fatigue producing factor in moderate exercise?

A

lack of ATP

152
Q

Which of the following is the new name for “oxygen debt” after strenuous exercise?

A

EPOC– excess postexercise oxygen consumption

153
Q

The muscles of the […] are rather unusual for muscles because they insert onto the skin or other muscles.

A

face

154
Q

The muscle is the primary muscle used in smiling.

A

zygomaticus

155
Q

Which muscle makes an angry brow?

A

corrugator supercilii

156
Q

Muscle used to pucker:

A

orbicularis oris

157
Q

Muscle used to pout

A

mentalis

158
Q

Muscle used to tense your neck?

A

platysma

159
Q

Muscle for raised brows/wrinkled forehead:

A

frontal belly of epicranius

160
Q

When you bite down on an ice cube, this muscle strongly contracts.

A

masseter (chewing)

161
Q

When lying on your back, […] muscles contract to lift your head.

A

sternocleidomastoid

162
Q

The muscles of the back, which are most susceptible to injury during heavy lifting, belong to the […] muscle group.

A

erector spine (ilicostalis/longissimus/spinalis)

163
Q

The […] is (are) the most important muscle(s) for inspiratory breathing.

A

diaphragm

164
Q

The muscle that provides the major force of producing a specific movement is a(n).

A

prime mover

165
Q

The […] opposes or reverses a particular movement.

A

antagonist

166
Q

What are synergist prime movers?

A
  1. add extra force to same movement

2. reduce undesirable or unnecessary movement

167
Q

What are fixators?

A
  1. synergist that immobilizes bone or muscle’s origin

2. gives prime mover stable base on which to act

168
Q

A muscle that crosses a joint on the anterior side is usually a(n) […]. A cross posteriorly is a(n) […]. Lateral cross is a(n) […] while a medial cross is a(n) […].

A

flexor; extensor; abductor; adductor

169
Q

You could conclude that. a muscle with the term deltoid included in its name would be a muscle with a shape resembling a …

A

triangle

170
Q

“Maximus” included in a muscle name would be a muscle with a […].

A

large size

171
Q

“Rectus” included in a muscle name would be a muscle with fibers that run […] to the body’s vertical axis.

A

parallel

172
Q

Transversus: fibers run […].

A

at right angles

173
Q

Oblique: fibers run […].

A

angles to imaginary defined axis

174
Q

Number of origin examples:

A

biceps and triceps

175
Q

Fascicle arrangments:

A
  1. parallel
  2. fusiform
  3. circular
  4. convergent
  5. pennate
176
Q

What is a parallel fascicle?

Example of a parallel fascicle

A

parallel to long axis of straplike muscle

sartorius

177
Q

What is a fusiform fascicle?

Example of a fusiform fascicle:

A

spindle-shaped muscles with parallel fibers

biceps brachii

178
Q

What is a circular fascicle?

Example of a circular fascicle:

A

fascicles arranged in concentric rings

orbicularis oris

179
Q

What is a convergent fascicle?

Example of convergent fascicle:

A

broad origin; fascicles converge toward single tendon insertion

pectoralis major

180
Q

What is a pennate fascicle?

Example of a pennate fascicle:

A

short fascicles attach obliquely to central tendon running length of muscle

rectus femoris

181
Q

Muscle power is primarily dependent on […].

A

the number of cells in the muscle

182
Q

Levers allow given effort to move a […] load or to move load […] or […].

A

heavier; farther/faster

183
Q

Lever system within the body:

A
  1. lever
  2. effort
  3. load
184
Q

What does the lever consist of?

A

bone moves on a fixed joint (fulcrum)

185
Q

What does the effort in the lever system consist of?

A

muscle contraction to move load

186
Q

What does the load in the lever system consist of?

A

resistance (bone+tissues+any added weight)

187
Q

From left to right list the position of effort, fulcrum, load in a first-class lever:

A

load, fulcrum, effort

188
Q

From left to right list the position of effort, fulcrum, load in a second-class lever:

A

fulcrum, load, effort

189
Q

From left to right list the position of effort, fulcrum, load in a third-class lever:

A

load, effort, fulcrum

190
Q

Example of first-class leverage:

A

extension of the head

191
Q

Example of second-class leverage:

A

tiptoe or calf raises

192
Q

Example of third-class leverage:

A

biceps curls or arm flexion

Anatomy (31 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions