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Public Health > Lecture 16- Biosecurity and biocontainment and disease control and eradication > Flashcards

Lecture 16- Biosecurity and biocontainment and disease control and eradication Flashcards

1
Q

What is the goal of biosecurity or biocontainment

A

Prevent the transmission of infectious agents into and among individuals, groups of animals, farms or regions

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2
Q

What are the principles of biocontainment

A

Increase host resistance, eliminate disease reservoirs, prevent/minimize transmission

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3
Q

What are intrinsic elements to biosecurity plan

A

Immune status, nutrition, genetics

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4
Q

What are extrinsic elements to biosecurity plan

A

Movement pathways, segregation, and physical barriers

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5
Q

Biosecurity

A

Result of management practice to avoid (re) introduction of sense agents to a facility or region

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6
Q

What are the exposure pathways to dairy cattle

A

Oral- contaminated feed or water
Inhalation-dust and manure particles
Physical- oronasal cavities, teat ends, wounds
Indirect- fomites, vectors

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7
Q

What are some farm biosecurity risks

A

Cattle from other premises, feedstuffs, vehicles and people, drinking water

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8
Q

What are the most common infectious diseases in dairy operations

A

Bovine virus diarrhea (BVD), brucellosis, tuberculosis, mycobacterium Avium, mycoplasma, staphylococcus aureus, streptococcus agalactiae, neospora, salmonella

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9
Q

Biocontainment

A

The results of actions to prevent the spread of disease agents among groups of animals at farm or facility- serves as an important backup to biosecurity

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10
Q

Biocontainment maintenance

A

Vaccination, unidirectional flow of animals, people, material, scheduled cleaning of facilities, separation of 4 major animal groups- newborns, young stock and heifers, lactating cows, non-lactating cows

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11
Q

What are biocontainment measures for newborn calves

A

Move to individual hutches, 4 quarts of colostrum within 24 hours of birth, no waste milk, vaccinate 3-4 weeks prior to movement to group pens

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12
Q

What is the logical milking order (lowest to highest mastitis rates)

A

First lactation and recently calved cows, high producing cows, lower producing cows, cows at end of lactation period

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13
Q

What were the natural contributors to HPAI outbreak

A

Virus was introduced to US via wild bird migration, windborne detection of virus up to 1km from source

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14
Q

What are some USDA epi report major biosecurity breaches

A

Equipment sharing among farms, lack of vehicle cleaning and disinfection, rodent and wild birds inside poultry barns, bird/poultry exhibits at state/county fairs

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15
Q

What percentage of people infected with monkeypox in 2003 were veterinarians

A

25%

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16
Q

What percentage of veterinarians report animal related injury resulting in lost work or hospitalization

A

66%

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17
Q

What is the most frequent accident in veterinary hospital

A

Needle sticks

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18
Q

What are some common zoonoses in veterinary personnel

A

Salmonellosis, cryptosporidosis, plague, sporotrichosos, MRSA, psittacosis, dermtaphytosis, leptospirosis, q fever

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19
Q

What are 3 veterinary standard precautions

A

PPE, protective actions during veterinary procedures, environmental infection control/sanitation

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20
Q

What are the personal protective equipment and actions

A

Hand hygiene, use of glove and sleeves, facial protection, respiratory tract protection, protective outwear, animal related injury prevention (physical restraints, gloves, sedation, escape plan with large animals)

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21
Q

Patient intake protective actions during procedures

A

Intake is clean and safe

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22
Q

Examination of animals protective actions during procedures

A

Clean and dedicated

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23
Q

Injections, venipuncture, and aspiration protection actions during procedures

A

Always use sharps container, use gloves

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24
Q

Dentistry, bronchoscopy, and transtracheal washes protective actions during procedures

A

These procedures often generate aerosols requiring PPE

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25
Q

Resuscitation and obstetrics protection actions during procedures

A

Never blow into mouth or nose of animal or endotracheal tube

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26
Q

Diagnostic specimen handling protective actions during procedures

A

No eating or drinking in laboratory

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27
Q

Wound care protective actions during procedures

A

May require appropriate PPE

28
Q

What are ways to control environmental infections

A

Cleaning and disinfection of equipment and surfaces, isolation of animals with IDs, laundry handling, decontamination and spill response, veterinary medical waste, rodent and vector control, other controls- employee break room

29
Q

What should be the vaccination policy at minimum to prioritize employee health

A

Rabies, tetanus, influenza

30
Q

Disease control

A

Reduction of disease incidence, prevalence, morbidity, or mortality to a locally acceptable level as a result of deliberate efforts or continued intervention measures are required to maintain reduction

31
Q

Disease control is a combination of hat 3 things

A

Initial intervention strategies, on going disease control strategies and monitoring and surveillance activities

32
Q

What was disease control like in early 1900s

A

Do nothing, quarantine, slaughter/cull, control host movement, fomite control clean and disinfect

33
Q

What is disease control like now

A

Control hose movement, quarantine, slaughter/cull, fomite control, C+D, vaccintion

34
Q

Eradication

A

Permanent reduction to zero of the worldwide incidence of infection cause by a specific agent as a result of deliberate efforts; intervention measures are no longer needed

35
Q

What are two successful global eradication programs

A

Smallpox 1980
Rinderpest 2011

36
Q

What are some ongoing global eradication programs

A

Guinea worm disease, lymphatic filariasis, leprosy, tetanus, chagas disease, measles, polio

37
Q

What are the control and eradication options

A
  1. Animal depopulation and quarantine new animals
  2. Quarantine and remove positives
  3. Quarantine and remove positives, vaccinate susceptible animals
  4. Quarantine and vaccinations/treatment
38
Q

Animal depopulation and quarantine of new animals is used when

A

Highly contagious disease and short incubation, disease is disruptive to production and economy, good diagnostic test is available, no reservoir species exist, quick response and outcome, test and slaughter entire herd

39
Q

What diseases would require use of animal depopulation and quarantine of new animals

A

Foot and mouth disease, exotic Newcastle disease, bovine spongiform encephalopathy, highly pathogenic avian influence, cholera, scrapie

40
Q

quarantine and remove positives is used when

A

Agent is not highly contagious, long incubation period, test and slaughter individual animals, prevalence is low, requires diagnostic test, not devastating enough to justify killing entire herd

41
Q

What diseases require quarantine and removal of positives

A

Bovine tuberculosis, equine infectious anemia

42
Q

Quarantine and remove positives, vaccinate susceptible animals is used when

A

Prevalence of disease is higher and segregation of herds or populations is inadequate, removal of positives will not stop transmission, once prevalence is reduced and herds closed, vaccination can be discontinued, surveillance must be continued, positives are quarantine and some eliminated

43
Q

What is an example of a virus when we would quarantine and remove positives, vaccinate susceptible animals

A

Brucellosis

44
Q

When would we quarantine and vaccinate animals

A

Used when prevalence is high but economic and productions costs are not catastrophic, slow transmission

45
Q

What are some examples of viruses when we would quarantine and vaccinate

A

Leptospirosis, infectious bovine rhinotecheitis, bordetella

46
Q

What is the biological criteria for disease eradication success

A

Effective method is available to interrupt transmission, practical diagnostic tools are available to detect infection, only one vertebrate reservoir and no environmental amplification

47
Q

What are the social and political criteria for disease eradication success

A

Societal/political will, disease must be in significant terms of morbidity and/or morality, intervention and eradication are feasible, medical, scientific and legislative bodies must agree on justification, advocacy exist, focuses on one clear goal, scope is clear and duration is limited

48
Q

Biosafety level 1

A

Agents not known to cause disease in healthy adults- some can cause disease in immunocompromised individuals

49
Q

What agents are included included in bio safety level 1

A

Bacillus subtitles, naegleria gruberi, infectious canine hepatitis virus, non-pathogenic E. coli species

50
Q

BSL-1 Precautions standard practices

A

Frequent handwashing, limited access to lab space, no smoking, eating drinking in lab, minimize splashes and actions that create aerosols, decontamination of work surfaces after every use, decontamination of laboratory wastes, mechanical pipettes, sharp precautions, insect/rodent control program, PPE

51
Q

Biosafety level 2

A

Agents do not cause lethal infections, are not transmissible via airborne route, agents re pathogens for which immunization or antibiotic treatment is available

52
Q

What viruses are included in Biosafety level 2

A

Measles virus, salmonella species, pathogenic toxoplasma, clostridium botulinum, hepatitis B virus

53
Q

Biosafety level 2 precautions standard practices plus

A

Greater access restrictions to lab, biohazard warning signs outside lab, surveillance and immunization of lab personnel, Biosafety manual, supervisory staff who have experience working with infectious agents

54
Q

What are the primary barriers in Biosafety level 2

A

Biosafety cabinets or other containment devices

55
Q

Biosafety level 3

A

Agents with potential for respiratory transmission may cause serious and potentially lethal infection, either prevention or treatment options exist

56
Q

Biosafety level 3 precautions

A

BSL-2 plus:
Strictly controlled access to lab, pathogen specific training for lab personnel, decontaminating all waste, changing clothing prior to entering/exiting lab, policies for testing workers and storing samples

57
Q

What are the primary barriers to biosafety level 3

A

Similar to BSL-2, add respiratory PPE when appropriate

58
Q

Biosafety level 4

A

Dangerous and exotic agents with high risk of life threatening disease, aerosol transmitted

59
Q

What agents are included in biosafety level 4

A

Marburg, Ebola, viruses that can cause Congo-Crimean hemorrhagic fever, lassa fever

60
Q

What are the biosafety level 4 precautions

A

BSL3 plus:
Highly specialized training in handling extremely dangerous infectious agents, containment equipment and functions, strict lab access, immunocompromised never allowed in lab, changing clothing, showering at exit, decontaminating all material exiting facility

61
Q

What are the primary barrier to biosafety 4 precautions

A

Biosafety cabinets, full body, air-supplied, positive pressure personnel suit

62
Q

biosafety level 1 locations

A

High schools, community colleges, municipal drinking water treatment facilities

63
Q

Biosafety level 2 locations

A

Local health departments, universities, state laboratories, private laboratories, industrial laboratories

64
Q

Biosafety level 3 locations

A

State health departments, universities, private companies, industries, federal government

65
Q

Biosafety level 4 locations

A

Only 13 facilities in US, mot are federal, few universities, 1 private

Public Health (25 decks)

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