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Equine Med and Surgery II > Lecture 15: Pharmacology > Flashcards

Lecture 15: Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What results in resistant bacteria

A

inappropriate use of antibiotics and incorrectly prescribe antibiotics

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2
Q

what 3 antibiotics do you want to save for last resort

A
  1. Vancomycin
  2. Imipenem
  3. Chloramphenicol
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3
Q

what are reasons for antibiotic use

A
  1. Prevent infection-perioperative
  2. Tx established infection
  3. Prevent infection in predisposed patient
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4
Q

what should you consider when picking an antibiotic

A
  1. Penetration of drug to site of infection
  2. Severity of infection
  3. Compliance
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5
Q

what aids in antibiotics ability to penetrate tissue

A
  1. Lipid solubility
  2. Presence of inflammation in acute infection increase microvascularity
  3. Adequate blood supply
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6
Q

what are the major adverse drug reactions

A
  1. Colitis
  2. Nephrotoxicity
  3. Cartilage effects in growing animals
  4. Teratogenic effects
  5. IMHA
  6. Bone marrow suppression
  7. Cardiotoxicity
  8. Neuromuscular blockage
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7
Q

what is bacteriostatic

A

drug inhibits growth of agent may kill if high enough concentration reached

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8
Q

what is bacteriocidal

A

drug kills agent

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9
Q

what does it mean to be a time dependent antibiotic

A

to be effective need to be above MIC for over 50% of time, need to be dosed more frequently or given via CRI

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10
Q

what are some examples of time dependent antibiotics

A

beta-lactams and tetracyclines

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11
Q

what does it mean to be concentration dependent antibiotic

A

activity is best predicted by relationship between peak drug concentration and MIC of organism, dose infrequently

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12
Q

what are some examples of concentration dependent antibiotics

A

aminoglycosides, fluoroquinolones

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13
Q

what is an example of synergistic antibiotics

A

beta-lactam with aminoglycoside

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14
Q

what is an example of antagonistic antibiotics

A

chloramphenicol and gentamicin, penicillin and tetracyclines, chloramphenicol and erythromycin

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15
Q

what does broad spectrum target

A

gram negative and positives, +/- anaerobes

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16
Q

Are potentiated sulfas broad or narrow spectrum

A

broad

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17
Q

is metronidazole broad or narrow

A

narrow- only anaerobes

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18
Q

What is the MOA of aminoglycosides

A

inhibit protein synthesis by binding to ribosomal 30S subunit

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19
Q

describe the distribution of aminoglycosides

A

Distribute well extracellularly, do not penetrate CNS, eye or prostate

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20
Q

what is major adverse effect of aminoglycosides

A

nephrotoxicity

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21
Q

are aminoglycosides cidal or static

A

cidal

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22
Q

what is spectrum for aminoglycosides

A

gram negative aerobes

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23
Q

what aminoglycoside should be given to adults vs foals

A

adults: gentamicin
Foals: Amikacin

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24
Q

what is the MOA of penicillin

A

cell wall inhibitor

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25
what is spectrum of penicillin
Excellent against gram positives, later generations have more gram negatives
26
what is distribution for penicillin
extracellular, do not distribute to CNS, eye or prostate
27
penicillins are static or cidal and time or concentration dependent
cidal and time dependent
28
which is a cheaper penicillin option: procaine or potassium penicillin
procaine penicillin
29
what is MOA of amino penicillin
cell wall inhibitor
30
what is spectrum for amino penicillin
greater gram negative spectrum
31
what do extended spectrum penicillins have greater activity against
gram negatives
32
what is MOA of cephalosporins
cell wall inhibitors
33
what is an example of 1st gen cephalosporin
cefazolin
34
what is example of second gen cephalosporin
Cefoxatin
35
What are some examples of third generation cephalosporins
ceftiofur sodium, ceftiofur crystalline, cefotaxime
36
what is an example of 4th gen cephalosporin
cefepime
37
as you go higher in cephalosporin generations they become more __spectrum and have better resistance to __
broad spectrum, beta lactamases
38
what is MOA of imipenem
cell wall inhibitor
39
what is spectrum for imipenem
gram negative
40
what condition in foals should you use imipenem
septic foals
41
what is MOA of potentiated sulfas
trimethorpim inhibits production of folate. Sulfazadine looks like PABA and gets mistaken for that in folic acid production pathway
42
what is spectrum for potentiated sulfas
Good broad spectrum aerobically, minimal anaerobic activity
43
Are potentiated sulfas cidal or static and time or concentration dependent
cidal and time dependent
44
what is MOA of fluoroquinolones
inhibits DNA gyrase and resulting in inhibition of DNA coiling
45
what is distribution for fluoroquinolones
well to tissues and penetrates intracellularly
46
Are fluoroquinolones cidal or static
cidal
47
what is spectrum for fluoroquinolones
broad spectrum aerobically but not anaerobic action
48
what class do enrofloxacin and marbofloxacin belong to
fluoroquinolones
49
what is MOA of tetracyclines
inhibit protein synthesis by binding 30S ribosomal subunit
50
what is distribution for tetracyclines
well distributed, except CNS and eyes
51
what is spectrum for tetracyclines
broad spectrum aerobes, mycoplasma, rickettsia, some anaerobes
52
are Tetracyclines cidal or static and time or concentration dependent
static, time dependent
53
doxycycline, Oxytetracycline and minocycline are all part of what class
tetracyclines
54
what is MOA of macrolides
inhibit protein synthesis by binding 50S ribosomal subunit
55
what is distribution for macrolides
good for intracellular organisms
56
what spectrum are macrolides and what specific disease are they good at tx
gram positive and negative aerobes, mycobacteria, nocardia, cryptosporidium, Helicobacter, toxoplasma Really good for rhodococcus
57
clarithromycin and azithromycin are from what class
macrolides
58
what is MOA of rifampin
inhibit RNA polymerase
59
what is distribution for rifampin
effective against intracellular organisms because of its lipid solubility and penetration of neutrophils and macrophages
60
is rifampin cidal or static
cidal
61
always use rifampin in concert with __ or __ since resistance develops quickly
SMZ, clarithromycin
62
what is MOA of chloramphenicol
inhibits protein synthesis by binding 50S ribosomal subunit
63
what is distribution for chloramphenicol
distributes most tissues, gets into abscesses
64
is chloramphenicol cidal or static
static, but at high does can be cidal
65
what is negative effect of chloramphenicol in humans
aplastic anemia
66
what is spectrum for chloramphenicol
broad spectrum of gram positive, negative, aerobes and anaerobes
67
what is MOA of metronidazole
disrupts bacterial DNA
68
what is distribution for metronidazole
excellent distribution including CNS and abscesses
69
is metronidazole cidal or static
cidal
70
what is spectrum for metronidazole
Protozoa and anaerobic bacteria, no effect against anaerobes
71
what abx is very good at tx B. Fragillis resistant to penicillin
metro
72
what is MOA of glycopeotides
inhibit cell wall synthesis and RNA synthesis
73
what is distribution of glycopeptides IV vs orally
widely distributed after IV but not into CSF, not orally bioavailable
74
are glycopeptides time or concentration dependent
time dependent
75
what is spectrum for glycopeptides
MRSA, enterococcus, C. Diff diarrhea
76
what class of abx is vancomycin
glycopeptide
77
how do NSAIDS work in COX pathway
reduce prostaglandins by inhibiting COX
78
COX1 is expressed where and has what effects
GI, kidney, platelet function Homeostatic effects
79
COX-2 is expressed where and has what effects
all tissues, inflammatory effects
80
what are 3 non-selective COX inhibitors
banamine, bute, acetaminophen
81
what is an example of a COX-2 specific inhibitor
firocoxib
82
t or f: it is a great idea to stack NSAIDS
false
83
t or f: can you stack NSAIDS and steroids
only for short periods of time and monitor proteins closely
84
if your client is usually nutraceuticals what should it be certified by
NASC
85
what is a compounded drug
any drug manipulated to produce a dosage form drug
86
what is compounding allowed
have vet-client relationship and no other method or route of drug delivery is practical
87
t or f: compounding is evaluated by FDA for safety and efficacy
false

Equine Med and Surgery II (24 decks)

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