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Equine Med and Surgery II > Lecture 15: Pharmacology > Flashcards

Lecture 15: Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What results in resistant bacteria

A

inappropriate use of antibiotics and incorrectly prescribe antibiotics

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2
Q

what 3 antibiotics do you want to save for last resort

A
  1. Vancomycin
  2. Imipenem
  3. Chloramphenicol
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3
Q

what are reasons for antibiotic use

A
  1. Prevent infection-perioperative
  2. Tx established infection
  3. Prevent infection in predisposed patient
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4
Q

what should you consider when picking an antibiotic

A
  1. Penetration of drug to site of infection
  2. Severity of infection
  3. Compliance
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5
Q

what aids in antibiotics ability to penetrate tissue

A
  1. Lipid solubility
  2. Presence of inflammation in acute infection increase microvascularity
  3. Adequate blood supply
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6
Q

what are the major adverse drug reactions

A
  1. Colitis
  2. Nephrotoxicity
  3. Cartilage effects in growing animals
  4. Teratogenic effects
  5. IMHA
  6. Bone marrow suppression
  7. Cardiotoxicity
  8. Neuromuscular blockage
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7
Q

what is bacteriostatic

A

drug inhibits growth of agent may kill if high enough concentration reached

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8
Q

what is bacteriocidal

A

drug kills agent

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9
Q

what does it mean to be a time dependent antibiotic

A

to be effective need to be above MIC for over 50% of time, need to be dosed more frequently or given via CRI

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10
Q

what are some examples of time dependent antibiotics

A

beta-lactams and tetracyclines

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11
Q

what does it mean to be concentration dependent antibiotic

A

activity is best predicted by relationship between peak drug concentration and MIC of organism, dose infrequently

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12
Q

what are some examples of concentration dependent antibiotics

A

aminoglycosides, fluoroquinolones

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13
Q

what is an example of synergistic antibiotics

A

beta-lactam with aminoglycoside

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14
Q

what is an example of antagonistic antibiotics

A

chloramphenicol and gentamicin, penicillin and tetracyclines, chloramphenicol and erythromycin

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15
Q

what does broad spectrum target

A

gram negative and positives, +/- anaerobes

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16
Q

Are potentiated sulfas broad or narrow spectrum

A

broad

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17
Q

is metronidazole broad or narrow

A

narrow- only anaerobes

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18
Q

What is the MOA of aminoglycosides

A

inhibit protein synthesis by binding to ribosomal 30S subunit

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19
Q

describe the distribution of aminoglycosides

A

Distribute well extracellularly, do not penetrate CNS, eye or prostate

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20
Q

what is major adverse effect of aminoglycosides

A

nephrotoxicity

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21
Q

are aminoglycosides cidal or static

A

cidal

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22
Q

what is spectrum for aminoglycosides

A

gram negative aerobes

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23
Q

what aminoglycoside should be given to adults vs foals

A

adults: gentamicin
Foals: Amikacin

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24
Q

what is the MOA of penicillin

A

cell wall inhibitor

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25
Q

what is spectrum of penicillin

A

Excellent against gram positives, later generations have more gram negatives

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26
Q

what is distribution for penicillin

A

extracellular, do not distribute to CNS, eye or prostate

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27
Q

penicillins are static or cidal and time or concentration dependent

A

cidal and time dependent

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28
Q

which is a cheaper penicillin option: procaine or potassium penicillin

A

procaine penicillin

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29
Q

what is MOA of amino penicillin

A

cell wall inhibitor

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30
Q

what is spectrum for amino penicillin

A

greater gram negative spectrum

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31
Q

what do extended spectrum penicillins have greater activity against

A

gram negatives

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32
Q

what is MOA of cephalosporins

A

cell wall inhibitors

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33
Q

what is an example of 1st gen cephalosporin

A

cefazolin

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34
Q

what is example of second gen cephalosporin

A

Cefoxatin

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35
Q

What are some examples of third generation cephalosporins

A

ceftiofur sodium, ceftiofur crystalline, cefotaxime

36
Q

what is an example of 4th gen cephalosporin

A

cefepime

37
Q

as you go higher in cephalosporin generations they become more __spectrum and have better resistance to __

A

broad spectrum, beta lactamases

38
Q

what is MOA of imipenem

A

cell wall inhibitor

39
Q

what is spectrum for imipenem

A

gram negative

40
Q

what condition in foals should you use imipenem

A

septic foals

41
Q

what is MOA of potentiated sulfas

A

trimethorpim inhibits production of folate. Sulfazadine looks like PABA and gets mistaken for that in folic acid production pathway

42
Q

what is spectrum for potentiated sulfas

A

Good broad spectrum aerobically, minimal anaerobic activity

43
Q

Are potentiated sulfas cidal or static and time or concentration dependent

A

cidal and time dependent

44
Q

what is MOA of fluoroquinolones

A

inhibits DNA gyrase and resulting in inhibition of
DNA coiling

45
Q

what is distribution for fluoroquinolones

A

well to tissues and penetrates intracellularly

46
Q

Are fluoroquinolones cidal or static

A

cidal

47
Q

what is spectrum for fluoroquinolones

A

broad spectrum aerobically but not anaerobic action

48
Q

what class do enrofloxacin and marbofloxacin belong to

A

fluoroquinolones

49
Q

what is MOA of tetracyclines

A

inhibit protein synthesis by binding 30S ribosomal subunit

50
Q

what is distribution for tetracyclines

A

well distributed, except CNS and eyes

51
Q

what is spectrum for tetracyclines

A

broad spectrum aerobes, mycoplasma, rickettsia, some anaerobes

52
Q

are Tetracyclines cidal or static and time or concentration dependent

A

static, time dependent

53
Q

doxycycline, Oxytetracycline and minocycline are all part of what class

A

tetracyclines

54
Q

what is MOA of macrolides

A

inhibit protein synthesis by binding 50S ribosomal subunit

55
Q

what is distribution for macrolides

A

good for intracellular organisms

56
Q

what spectrum are macrolides and what specific disease are they good at tx

A

gram positive and negative aerobes, mycobacteria, nocardia, cryptosporidium, Helicobacter, toxoplasma

Really good for rhodococcus

57
Q

clarithromycin and azithromycin are from what class

A

macrolides

58
Q

what is MOA of rifampin

A

inhibit RNA polymerase

59
Q

what is distribution for rifampin

A

effective against intracellular organisms because of its lipid solubility and penetration of neutrophils and macrophages

60
Q

is rifampin cidal or static

A

cidal

61
Q

always use rifampin in concert with __ or __ since resistance develops quickly

A

SMZ, clarithromycin

62
Q

what is MOA of chloramphenicol

A

inhibits protein synthesis by binding 50S ribosomal subunit

63
Q

what is distribution for chloramphenicol

A

distributes most tissues, gets into abscesses

64
Q

is chloramphenicol cidal or static

A

static, but at high does can be cidal

65
Q

what is negative effect of chloramphenicol in humans

A

aplastic anemia

66
Q

what is spectrum for chloramphenicol

A

broad spectrum of gram positive, negative, aerobes and anaerobes

67
Q

what is MOA of metronidazole

A

disrupts bacterial DNA

68
Q

what is distribution for metronidazole

A

excellent distribution including CNS and abscesses

69
Q

is metronidazole cidal or static

A

cidal

70
Q

what is spectrum for metronidazole

A

Protozoa and anaerobic bacteria, no effect against anaerobes

71
Q

what abx is very good at tx B. Fragillis resistant to penicillin

A

metro

72
Q

what is MOA of glycopeotides

A

inhibit cell wall synthesis and RNA synthesis

73
Q

what is distribution of glycopeptides IV vs orally

A

widely distributed after IV but not into CSF, not orally bioavailable

74
Q

are glycopeptides time or concentration dependent

A

time dependent

75
Q

what is spectrum for glycopeptides

A

MRSA, enterococcus, C. Diff diarrhea

76
Q

what class of abx is vancomycin

A

glycopeptide

77
Q

how do NSAIDS work in COX pathway

A

reduce prostaglandins by inhibiting COX

78
Q

COX1 is expressed where and has what effects

A

GI, kidney, platelet function
Homeostatic effects

79
Q

COX-2 is expressed where and has what effects

A

all tissues, inflammatory effects

80
Q

what are 3 non-selective COX inhibitors

A

banamine, bute, acetaminophen

81
Q

what is an example of a COX-2 specific inhibitor

A

firocoxib

82
Q

t or f: it is a great idea to stack NSAIDS

A

false

83
Q

t or f: can you stack NSAIDS and steroids

A

only for short periods of time and monitor proteins closely

84
Q

if your client is usually nutraceuticals what should it be certified by

A

NASC

85
Q

what is a compounded drug

A

any drug manipulated to produce a dosage form drug

86
Q

what is compounding allowed

A

have vet-client relationship and no other method or route of drug delivery is practical

87
Q

t or f: compounding is evaluated by FDA for safety and efficacy

A

false

Equine Med and Surgery II (16 decks)

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