Lecture 1: Intro to Clinical Practice and Essential Microbiology and Clinical Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

What stains are included in gram stain

A

crystal violet, iodine, safranin and organic solvent

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2
Q

gram __appear red on gram stain and gram ___ appear dark blue

A

negative, positive

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3
Q

Staining reflects the ___of the cell walls

A

molecular characteristics

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4
Q

What type of bacteria is filamentous

A

actinomycete

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5
Q

what is saprophyte bacteria

A

bacteria that lives in environment

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6
Q

what bacteria is spiral shaped and typically requires a special stain

A

spirochete

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7
Q

what are some examples of spirochete bacteria

A

treponema, borrelia, leptospira

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8
Q

what are virulence factors

A

characteristics that confer pathogenicity

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9
Q

classification of bacteria is clinically important especially in ___therapy while cultures are pending

A

empiric therapy

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10
Q

What diseases do Streptococcus equi zooepidemicus and streptococcus equi equi cause

A

S. Zooepidemicus: pneumonia
S. Equi: strangles

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11
Q

T or F: MRSA is zoonotic

A

true

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12
Q

gram __causes endotoxemia due to ___in their cell walls

A

negative, LPS

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13
Q

endotoxemia is common in horses with ___

A

enterocolitis

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14
Q

what are some clinical signs of endotoxemia

A

fever, tachycardia, congested (red) MM, laminitis

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15
Q

Rhodococcus equi is gram ___, facultative __

A

positive, intracellular

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16
Q

R. Equi is able to invade and survive in ___ due to what virulence factor

A

macrophages, VapA

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17
Q

what does R. Equi cause

A

pulmonary abscesses in foals

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18
Q

what is treatment for R. Equi

A
  1. Macrolide antibiotic
  2. Rifampin- penetrates abscesses
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19
Q

T or F: you can use macrolide antibiotics in adults

A

false- causes diarrhea

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20
Q

clostridia is a gram __, obligate __

A

positive, anaerobes

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21
Q

clostridial myositis is a sequela to ___

A

IM injections, often banamine

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22
Q

what are some signs of clostridial myositis

A

heat, swelling, subcutaneous emphysema, foul odor

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23
Q

what is treatment for Clostridial myositis

A

Penicillin G, fenestration to oxygenate tissue

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24
Q

DNA or RNA viruses: have higher mutation rates

A

RNA

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25
Q

enveloped or nonenveloped: have increased sensitivity to desiccation, detergents

A

enveloped

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26
Q

all viruses are obligate ___ and require ___ to replicate

A

intracellular parasites, host cell machinery

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27
Q

viruses often use existing ___ to enter host cells

A

cell surface receptors

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28
Q

what virus often results in latent infection

A

herpesviruses

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29
Q

influenza viruses are characterized by what two major surface proteins

A
  1. Hemagglutinin (H)- involved in viral attachment
  2. Neuraminidase (N)- involved in release of virus from infected cell
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30
Q

what influenza strain is most common in horses

A

H3N8

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31
Q

how does EHV-1 enter cell

A

via MHC-1

32
Q

what does EHV-1 cause

A

respiratory signs, neurological signs, abortion

33
Q

what antiviral is useful for EHV-1

A

valacyclovir

34
Q

t or f: vaccine for EHV-1 prevents neurological disease

A

false— only prevents respiratory signs and abortion

35
Q

yeast or mold: single cells

A

yeast

36
Q

yeast or mold: filamentous

A

mold

37
Q

fungal cell wall contains __and therefore not susceptible to antibiotics

A

chitin

38
Q

fungal cell membrane contains ___

A

ergosterol

39
Q

what drugs target ergosterol

A

amphotericin B, ketoconazole, fluconazole

40
Q

most fungi are obligate __

A

aerobes

41
Q

what is the most common host response to fungal infections

A

granuloma

42
Q

What wrong and what can it lead to

A

corneal ulcer that can lead to fungal keratitis

43
Q

what are the most common organisms involved in fungal keratitis

A

aspergillus, fusarium

44
Q

What is the treatment for fungal keratitis

A
  1. Anti fungal- voriconazole, natamycinm itraconazole, fluconazole, ketoconazole
  2. Anticollangenases
  3. Anti-inflammatories
45
Q

what is the most common cause of fungal pneumonia

A

aspergillus

46
Q

what causes oral candidiasis in sick foals

A

Candida albicans

47
Q

what is the most common blood collection site in horses

A

jugular venipuncture

48
Q

what is the red top or serum separator tube used for

A

basic chemistry

49
Q

what is the EDTA, lavender top used for

A

CBC, ACTH

50
Q

What is the blue top, sodium citrate tube used for

A

coagulation panels

51
Q

what is the green top, sodium/lithium heparin tube used for

A

tests run on plasma

52
Q

what is the yellow top, acid citrate dextrose tube used for

A

blood typing

53
Q

what respiratory fluid collection samples an isolated location in small airways and is indicated when there is suspected diffuse (allergic) dz

A

bronchoalveolar lavage

54
Q

what does a transtracheal wash sample from

A

pooled secretions from lower airways in entirety

55
Q

when is a transtracheal wash indicated

A

suspected localized disease (pneumonia)

56
Q

what type of respiratory fluid collection is indicated for S. Equi

A

guttural pouch lavage

57
Q

where should you perform an abdominocentesis

A

lowest point of abdomen to the right of midline

58
Q

what location is most common for spinal fluid collection

A

lumbar

59
Q

T or F: rouleaux formation of erythrocytes is common in horses

A

true

60
Q

t or f: foals are born hemoconcentrated

A

true

61
Q

what can cause erythrocytosis

A
  1. Splenic contraction
  2. Dehydration (relative /hemoconcentration)
  3. Polycythemia
62
Q

what are the possible causes of anemia

A
  1. Loss of RBC-hemorrhage
  2. Destruction of RBC- immune mediated, neonatal isoerythrolysis
  3. Decreased production of RBC- bone marrow suppression
63
Q

t or f: horses release reticulocytes into their peripheral blood

A

false

64
Q

what sample is needed to evaluate anemia in horses

A

bone marrow biopsy

65
Q

hemorrhage and replacement of fluid volume may take __hrs to become apparent

A

12-24hrs

66
Q

foal presents with icterus and lethargy- blood smear performed. What is likely cause

A

neonatal isoerythrolysis

67
Q

What test can be done to distinguish between rouleaux and agglutination

A

saline dispersion test

68
Q

what are the normal % for macrophages, lymphocytes, neutrophils, mast cells and eosinophils in a BAL

A

macrophages: 50-70%
Lymphocytes: 30-50%
Neutrophils: <5%
Mast cells: <2%
Eosinophils: <0.5%

69
Q

what is the protein, cellularity and color in normal abdominocentesis

A

protein: <2mg/dL
Cellularity: <5,000u/L
Color- clear, pale yellow

70
Q

what is the normal protein, cellularity, and color in CSF

A

protein: 20-124mg/dL
Cellularity: <7/uL
Color: clear

71
Q

horse serum/plasma more __in color than other species

A

icteric

72
Q

increase in indirect bilirubin occurs in horses with __

A

anorexia

73
Q

what is the normal pH for horse urinalysis

A

7-9

74
Q

what is normal USG for horses

A

1.020-1.050

75
Q

what is renal threshold for glucose in urinalysis

A

160-180mg/dL

76
Q

t or f: foals have hyposthenuric urine

A

true