LATG 17: Anesthesia and Analgesia Flashcards

1
Q

What best defines nociceptors?

A

Specialized nerve endings in tissues that transmit signals to the brain

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2
Q

True or False: An institution’s guidelines for routine drug uses and doses are usually obtained from the manufacturers’ labels.

A

False- veterinarians

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3
Q

What route can be used to give anesthetics “to effect”?

A

IV

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4
Q

What route can be used to give anesthetics “to effect”?

A

IV

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5
Q

True or False: If a dose of an anesthetic is too small, the animal may feel pain during the procedure.

A

True

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6
Q

True or False: All animals should be routinely fasted before anesthesia.

A

False

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7
Q

What type of drug can reverse the effect of another drug?

A

antagonist

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8
Q

Which of the four stages of anesthesia should be attained before surgery on an animal begins?

A

Stage 3

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9
Q

True or False: If a rabbit is to undergo gastric surgery, it should be fasted for 12 hours prior to the procedure.

A

False- 3-4 hours is sufficient for rodents and rabbits

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10
Q

What are effects of phenothiazine tranquilizers?

A

peripheral vasodilation, reduced anxiety, muscle relaxation

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11
Q

True or False: Phenothiazine tranquilizers can make blood vessels easier to locate.

A

True

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12
Q

True or False: Stage 2 of anesthesia is sometime bypassed due to the action of the anesthetic.

A

True

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13
Q

True or False: The same drug must be used for the induction and maintenance phases of anesthesia administration.

A

False- can be same or different drugs

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14
Q

True or False: Xylazine is a sedative that has an analgesic effect.

A

True

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15
Q

True or False: Drugs are generally available in only one concentration.

A

False

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16
Q

True or False: It is often necessary to dilute a drug needed for smaller animals like rodents.

A

True

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17
Q

What kind of drug is Diazepam?

A

benzodiazepine tranquilizer

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18
Q

What are possible side effects of preanesthetic treatments?

A

pain relief, drowsiness, decreased apprehension

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19
Q

True or False: An anesthesia plan is included in an animal use protocol.

A

True

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20
Q

True or False: Stage 4 of general anesthesia can appropriately be considered an overdose of the anesthetic.

A

True

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21
Q

What drug can be used to reverse the effects of xylazine?

A

Yohimbine

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22
Q

What effects does Xylazine have?

A

sedation, analgesia, lower blood pressure

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23
Q

What needs to be included in an anesthesia plan?

A

administering anesthetic, monitoring during procedure and through recovery, emergency plans

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24
Q

True or False: Phenothiazine tranquilizers can be used as analgesics.

A

False- do not have analgesic properties

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25
How are dose rates generally expressed?
mg/kg
26
What are the phases of anesthetic administration?
induction, maintenance, recovery
27
What type of drug decreases saliva production?
anticholinergic
28
True or False: Benzodiazepines are used mostly in smaller animals such as rodents.
False- most common in large animals
29
True or False: Some preanesthetics also provide postoperative analgesia.`
True
30
True or False: It is generally recommended to perform a preoperative blood test on rodents.
False
31
True or False: Benzodiazepine tranquilizers do not have analgesic properties.
True
32
True or False: During a routine fast before a surgery, an animal should not be allowed to have water.
False
33
True or False: Benzodiazepines should not be used in animals with heart disease.
False- have minimal cardiovascular effects
34
What kind of mice are at higher risk when given tribromoethanol?
mice younger than 16 days, mouse strains used as obesity models, diabetic mice
35
True or False: Pharmaceutical grade tribromoethanol is no longer available commercially in the US.
True
36
What is the number one precaution that must be considered when using urethane as an anesthetic agent?
it must be used with protective equipment
37
True or False: Tribromoethanol should not be stored in the presence of heat or light.
True
38
True or False: Inhalant anesthetics are passed out of the body chemically unchanged.
True
39
True or False: Isoflurane has a lower cost than sevoflurane.
True
40
Medical grade air is what percentage oxygen?
21%
41
True or False: Local anesthetics mildly affect an animal's central nervous system.
False
42
True or False: Bupivicaine has a longer duration of action than lidocaine.
True
43
What must be used in conjunction with neuromuscular blockers during surgical procedures?
an anesthetic agent
44
True or False: Bupivicaine has a faster onset of action than lidocaine.
False
45
True or False: When using a neuromuscular blocker, the palpebral reflex can be used to check that the animal has reached the correct stage of anesthesia.
False- HR, RR, and BP have to be used due to lack of reflexes
46
Adding an analgesic sedative to ketamine administration has what effects?
helps prevent muscle rigidity
47
True or False: Open bottles of propofol should be discarded after 24 hours.
False- manufacturer recommends 6 hours
48
Why is alpha-chloralose used in experiments on animal physiology?
It does not depress the respiratory or cardiovascular systems.
49
True or False: Tricaine methanesulfonate is used as a euthanizing agent for many aquatic species.
True
50
What is another name for neuromuscular blocking drugs?
paralytic drugs
51
What is another name for neuromuscular blocking drugs?
paralytic drugs
52
What is a common anesthetic for use with fish and amphibians?
Tricaine methanesulfonate
53
True or False: Sevoflurane has a faster onset of action than isoflurane.
True
54
True or False: Isoflurane has a quicker recovery time than sevoflurane.
False
55
What drugs are a dissociative agent?
ketamine, tiletamine
56
By what factor are barbiturate agents classified?
duration of activity
57
True or False: Color coding for tanks holding medical gasses is required by the FDA.
False
58
True or False: Inhalant anesthetics are liquid agents that are vaporized.
True
59
True or False: A nonrebreathing system is usually used for cats.
True
60
True or False: The pressure-limiting (pop-off) valve should be closed before flushing an anesthesia system with oxygen.
False- must be open to prevent lung damage
61
On what part of a rebreathing anesthesia system can the pressure of the oxygen tank be read?
pressure gauge
62
True or False: When using a rebreathing system, carbon dioxide must be removed before an animal rebreathes any exhaled gases.
True
63
True or False: A slight odor from waste anesthetic gases is safe and acceptable.
False
64
True or False: One branch of the Y-shaped tubing on a nonrebreathing system carries oxygen, and the other branch carries the anesthetic gas.
False- one carries oxygen and anesthetic, the other carries waste gasses
65
True or False: The function of the expandable cuff of the endotracheal tube is to allow the gas to flow through around the tube.
False- the cuff is to seal the tube to the wall of the trachea
66
When using nonrebreathing anesthesia systems, what reaches the animal's lungs?
only anesthetic gas
67
In rebreathing machines, the size of the rebreathing bag should be determined by what?
size of the animal
68
True or False: Check valves on each branch of tubing on a nonrebreathing system allow the flow of gas in one direction only.
True
69
True or False: If pressure in the circuit becomes too great, the animal's lungs could rupture.
True
70
True or False: Ceiling exhaust fans are the most effective and efficient means of removing waste anesthetic gases.
False- WAGs are heavier than air so ceiling fans wont remove them
71
True or False: The pressure gauge on an O2 tank provides a good approximation of the amount of gas remaining in the tank.
True
72
True or False: If an anesthesia machine is used infrequently, water may collect in the carbon dioxide absorbent canister and cause corrosion.
True
73
What is a characteristic of an open-drop system for anesthesia induction?
A perforated false bottom and an anesthetic-soaked cotton ball beneath
74
What is a characteristic of an open-drop system for anesthesia induction?
A perforated false bottom and an anesthetic-soaked cotton ball beneath
75
True or False: For assisted ventilation, the pressure-limiting (pop-off) valve is closed, the rebreathing bag squeezed, and the valve re-opened.
True
76
True or False: A mask can successfully maintain an animal on a gas anesthetic without being intubated.
True
77
True or False: Nonrebreathing systems are cheaper to use.
False
78
What anesthetic gas can produce a compound that may be toxic to the kidneys when it passes through a soda lime canister?
sevoflurane
79
True or False: Chambers can be used to anesthetize animals as large as cats and rabbits before intubation.
True
80
True or False: The same vaporizer can be used for all anesthetic gases.
False- vaporizers are different for each anesthetic agent
81
True or False: Use of a nose cone and an activated charcoal canister is an effective scavenger system for rodents.
True
82
True or False: Rabbits should be intubated before being placed into an induction chamber
False
83
True or False: A charcoal filter canister can be used as a passive scavenging method to collect waste anesthetic gases.
True
84
What is the role of the pop-off valve in a rebreathing system?
it prevents animal's lungs from over inflating
85
True or False: The pop-off valve should be set at the minimum setting necessary to keep the rebreathing bag partially inflated.
True
86
True or False: Shutting off the flow meter on a rebreathing anesthesia system stops the flow of oxygen completely.
False- doesn't always stop flow completely, when no longer in use oxygen should be shut off at the tank
87
True or False: For animals that undergo long procedures under anesthesia, the use of warm saline bags is the best way to prevent hypothermia.
False- fluid bags will cool off
88
What reflex is not a good indicator of anesthetic depth in rodents?
palpebral
89
What animals are more susceptible to hypothermia while under anesthesia?
rodents
90
Heating devices used to maintain the body temperature of anesthetized animals should be ___________ the animal's normal body temperature.
1-2 degrees F higher than
91
What best describes the palpebral reflex?
eye/blink reflex
92
What reflex should be checked to determine if the animal can be intubated?
Laryngeal
93
If an animal's blood oxygen level is normal, its mucous membranes will appear what color?
pink
94
How often should vital parameters be recorded on an anesthetic log?
every 5-10 minutes
95
True or False: Heat lamps are the best equipment to use to help maintain the animal's body temperature during long surgical procedures.
False- heat lamps should be avoided due to potential to cause thermal burns
96
What type of respiration is seen in normal, awake animals?
thoracic
97
True or False: An animal's pulse rate can be determined by monitoring its electrocardiogram.
True
98
What part of the body moves first when a normal awake animal takes a breath?
center of thorax
99
True or False: Temperature monitoring should be continued during the recovery period following anesthesia.
True
100
As an animal's anesthetic state becomes deeper, the area of breath initiation moves: __________.
caudally
101
True or False: The duration of buprenorphine in mice is only 3 to 5 hours.
True
102
True or False: A transdermal liquid fentanyl has been approved for use in dogs.
True
103
True or False: All opioids are controlled substances.
True
104
True or False: Oxymorphone and hydromorphone produce less respiratory depression than morphine.
True
105
What opioid is available as a transdermal patch?
Fentanyl
106
True or False: A transdermal fentanyl patch can deliver analgesia for 72 or more hours.
True
107
True or False: Oxymorphone and hydromorphone have shorter durations of action than morphine.
False
108
True or False: Buprenorphine has been essentially eliminated from veterinary medicine in the United States
False- most widely used in research animals
109
What procedure should be followed to prevent an unintended recovery from euthanasia when using inhalants?
confirm death with secondary method
110
Which type of drug is a reversal agent?
Antagonist
111
Where is the desired concentration of anesthetic gas set in a rebreathing system?
at the dial on vaporizer
112
At what stage of anesthesia does it become necessary to begin procedures to resuscitate the animal?
stage 4
113
What type of respiration is seen in normal, awake animals?
thoracic
114
Xylazine is which type of drug?
Alpha-2 adrenergic agonist
115
What is the definition of tidal volume?
The amount of air taken into the lungs in one breath
116
Post-anesthetic behavioral changes can persist for up to ___ hours in animals administered dissociative anesthetics.
24
117
What best describes nociceptors?
Specialized nerve endings in tissues that transmit signals to the brain
118
What is the US color code for oxygen hoses and fixtures?
green
119
When should you replace the soda lime canister in a rebreathing system?
when the indicator turns blue/purple
120
When using rebreathing anesthesia systems, what reaches the animal's lungs?
A mixture of fresh and exhaled gases
121
Upon what factor are the four stages of general anesthesia based?
Degree of depression in central nervous system (CNS)
122
Why is it generally unnecessary to fast rodents and rabbits prior to anesthesia?
they dont have a vomiting reflex
123
Which of the four stages of anesthesia should be attained before surgery on an animal begins?
stage 3
124
What is a characteristic of an anesthesia induction chamber?
Inlet and outlet ports connected to an anesthesia machine
125
What reflex should be checked to determine if the animal can be intubated?
Laryngeal
126
How do you recover an animal that was anesthetized with tricaine methanesulfonate?
immerse the animal in untreated water
127
What information is gained from continuous monitoring of blood pressure?
cardiac output
128
If active scavenging is used, the scavenging system is connected to what part of the rebreathing system?
pop-off valve
129
What must be used in conjunction with neuromuscular blockers during surgical procedures?
anesthetic
130
What is an advantage of barbiturate agents?
rapid loss of consciousness
131
Yohimbine is which type of drug?
Alpha-2 adrenergic antagonist
132
What route can be used to give anesthetics "to effect"?
IV
133
When using narcotics or tranquilizers as preanesthetic treatment, the amount of anesthetic needed is:
decreased
134
In what species does the administration of morphine frequently induce vomiting and defecation?
dogs
135
True or False: It is generally recommended to perform a preoperative blood test on rodents.
False
136
True or False: All animals should be routinely fasted prior to anesthesia.
False
137
True or False: Guinea pigs should be fasted overnight if an ET tube will be done as part of the surgical procedure.
True
138
True or False: An animal's pulse rate can be determined by monitoring its ECG.
True
139
True or False: For animals that undergo long procedures under anesthesia, warm saline bags are the best method to use to prevent hypothermia.
False
140
What stage of anesthesia is appropriate for surgical procedures?
Stage 3-Surgical anesthesia
141
If fasting rodents is necessary, what characteristic of this group of animals should be taken into consideration?
coprophagy
142
What 2 parameters are used to monitor the respiratory pattern of an anesthetized animal?
depth of respiration, character of respiration (rate and area of initiation)
143
Heating devices used to maintain the body temperature of anesthetized animals should be _____ F higher than the animal's normal body temperature.
1-2
144
What information is gained from measuring the capillary refill time?
if the heart is functioning normally- perfusion
145
What is the common name for the pedal reflex?
toe pinch reflex
146
What reflex would prevent the placement of an ET tube when ketamine is the sole anesthetic used?
laryngeal
147
What are the 3 phases of anesthesia administration?
induction, maintenance, recovery
148
What is the purpose of the balloon cuff on an ET tube?
it seals the trachea around the tube
149
What are the 2 effects of anticholinergics?
prevent heartrate reduction, decrease salivary and respiratory secretions
150
True or False: Phenothiazine tranquilizers can be used as analgesics.
False
151
True or False: Benzodiazepines do not have analgesic properties.
True
152
True or False: A vaporizer can be used with a variety of inhalant anesthetics.
False
153
True or False: The use of ether for anesthesia has been essentially eliminated from veterinary use in the US.
True
154
What anesthetic is most commonly administered with xylazine?
Ketamine
155
Describe a good way to give an anesthetic "to effect" using the IV route.
The drug is injected cautiously and continuously as needed until the desired stage of anesthesia is reached
156
Yohimbine is an example of what class of drug?
alpha-2 adrenergic antagonist
157
What anesthetic agent has been used in procedures related to transgenic mouse technology but may require scientific justification and IACUC approval?
nonpharmaceutical grade "Avertin" (tribromoethanol)
158
Why should rabbits not be treated with atropine as an anticholinergic?
rabbits have an enzyme (atropinase) in blood that metabolizes atropine
159
Why should neuromuscular blockers not be used as the sole form of anesthesia?
does not induce unconsciousness or block pain
160
What color code is oxygen?
green
161
What color code is nitrous oxide?
blue
162
What color code is medical air?
yellow
163
What color code is carbon dioxide?
gray
164
What is tidal volume?
The amount of air taken into the lungs in 1 breath
165
If you anesthetize a 10kg dog using a rebreathing system, what size rebreathing bag would you use?
1 L
166
True or False: Nonrebreathing systems only produce a small amount of WAGs.
False
167
True or False: Opioids are narcotics.
True
168
What are the 2 basic types of analgesics used in veterinary medicine?
opioids, NSAIDs
169
True or False: Alpha-chloralose should only be used in long procedures that end with euthanasia of the animal.
True
170
How long can behavioral changes persist after an animal is administered a dissociative anesthetic?
24 hours
171
Why should diazepam not be administered IM?
it contains propylene glycol, which can cause pain and irritation if given IM
172
What kind of tranquilizer is acepromazine?
phenothiazine