LATG 14: Common Health Problems of Laboratory Animals Flashcards
1
Q
An early sign of infestation with mites, fleas, and ticks is:
A
excessive scratching
2
Q
How is rabies most often transmitted?
A
bite from an infected animal
3
Q
Wild-caught animals are likely to carry which ectoparasites?
A
fleas, ticks, mites
4
Q
Wild-caught animals are likely to carry which ectoparasites?
A
fleas, ticks, mites
5
Q
True or False: Fleas do not infest reptiles.
A
False
6
Q
True or False: Treatment for diarrhea often includes anticholinergic and antisecretory drugs.
A
True
7
Q
True or False: The use of antibiotics that are mainly effective against gram positive organisms should be avoided in guinea pigs.
A
True
8
Q
Among all animals used in research, which are at the greatest risk for contracting rabies?
A
Wild caught animals
9
Q
True or False: Once clinical signs are observed, rabies is almost always fatal.
A
True
10
Q
What is the common name for a gastric trichobezoar?
A
hairball
11
Q
Which agent has been identified as the cause of scaly skin disease in athymic nude mice?
A
Corynebacterium bovis
12
Q
True or False: The female Syphacia pinworm lays its eggs on the perineum; the Aspiculuris tetraptera lays its eggs in the animal’s colon.
A
True
13
Q
Helicobacter spp. are most commonly diagnosed with which technique?
A
PCR test
14
Q
True or False: Adult mice infected with epizootic diarrhea of infant mice (EDIM) have watery, yellow stools.
A
False
15
Q
What clinical sign would suggest that young mice may have epizootic diarrhea of infant mice (EDIM)?
A
yellow stains around base of tail
16
Q
True or False: Although rarely seen anymore, Mycoplasma pulmonis can be exacerbated by stress due to overcrowding.
A
True
17
Q
Sialodacryoadenitis is which type of virus?
A
corona virus
18
Q
True or False: Syphacia spp. can be detected by finding eggs on the perineum of the affected animal.
A
True
19
Q
What system is primarily affected by Mycoplasma pulmonis?
A
respiratory
20
Q
True or False: Pinworm eggs are easy to destroy by chemicals or dessication.
A
False- highly resistant
21
Q
What is the most common detection method of Mouse Hepatitis Virus in a colony?
A
serology of sentinel animals
22
Q
True or False: C57BL/6 and C57BL/10 mice are the strains most likely to be affected by idiopathic ulcerative dermatitis.
A
True
23
Q
True or False: Idiopathic ulcerative dermatitis is caused by protozoan infestation.
A
False
24
Q
True or False: Mouse parvovirus causes severe diarrhea.
A
False
25
True or False: Infection with Mycoplasma pulmonis can result in a severe head tilt.
True
26
True or False: An immunodeficient mouse that has contracted mouse norovirus may have pneumonia, hepatitis, and meningitis.
True
27
True or False: Mycoplasma pulmonis is rarely seen among laboratory rats.
True
28
True or False: All pinworm infections in rodents can be detected by the anal tape test.
False
29
Which is the best method of preventing bumblefoot?
using clean, dry, substrate and proper flooring
30
Sore nose in gerbils is caused by what kind of pathogen?
Bacteria
31
Pododermatitis is also known by what name?
Bumble foot
32
Increased porphyrin secretion from the Harderian glands or high humidity causes what problems in gerbils?
nasal dermatitis
33
Pasteurellosis is spread by what routes of transmission?
direct contact and aerosolized
34
What causes coccidiosis?
protozoan
35
True or False: Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus (LCMV) is a zoonotic organism found in mice and hamsters.
True
36
What is the best method of controlling pasturellosis in rabbits?
purchase from a Pasteurella-free vendor
37
True or False: Tyzzer's disease is effectively treated with sulfa drugs.
False- there is no effective treatment
38
In what organ of the body are insulinomas found in ferrets?
pancreas
39
What is the BEST way to prevent canine distemper in ferrets?
vaccination
40
What is the BEST way to prevent canine distemper in ferrets?
vaccination
41
What is a correct summary of how aplastic anemia develops in female ferrets?
If intact females are not allowed to breed, estrogen levels remain high and the imbalance affects the bone marrow.
42
True or False: Dogs suffering with parvovirus typically have a temperature of at least 40 degrees Celsius.
False- puppies usually have a high temperature whereas older dogs are lower
43
Canine parvovirus is an acute infection affecting what part of the gastrointestinal system?
small intestine
44
True or False: An ELISA test can be used to diagnose heartworm infection in dogs.
True
45
True or False: Cleaning and drying the ear canal should always be done for dogs with externa otitis.
True
46
How is heartworm infection spread?
Mosquitos
47
True or False: Otitis externa in dogs is always caused by a bacterial infection.
False
48
True or False: Canine parvovirus is found only in very young animals.
False
49
Where are Dirofilaria immitis (heartworms) found in a dog's body?
right atrium and pulmonary artery
50
True or False: Canine distemper virus often causes fatal respiratory infections in ferrets as well as dogs.
True
51
Otitis externa in cats may be associated with infestation by what arthropod?
Notoedres cati
52
What is the condition in cats characterized by frequent, painful, or difficult urination; hematuria; and straining?
Feline lower urinary tract disease
53
Excessive grooming in cats can lead to what?
Gastric trichobezoars
54
True or False: Medication that raises the pH of the urine is used to treat feline lower urinary tract disease.
False- medication that lowers pH is used to treat FLUTD
55
What human virus is a retrovirus that is said to have its origin in nonhuman primates?
HIV
56
In most cases, nonhuman primates contract tuberculosis through contact with what?
infected humans
57
True or False: Intradermal tuberculin testing is used to test nonhuman primates for tuberculosis.
True
58
To test nonhuman primates for tuberculosis, the tuberculin is injected intradermally in what part of the body?
upper eyelid
59
True or False: Radiographs are generally not useful in diagnosing tuberculosis in nonhuman primates.
True
60
True or False: An employee who works with nonhuman primates and has been exposed to measles outside of the facility should notify the animal facility supervisor as soon as possible.
True
61
What zoonotic viral disease often remains asymptomatic in infected macaques and can be fatal in humans?
B Virus
62
Nonhuman primates are highly susceptible to what zoonotic respiratory disease?
Tuberculosis
63
All personnel having contact with nonhuman primates should be vaccinated against what zoonotic contagious disease?
measles
64
What should a bite kit in a facility housing NHP should contain:
viral culture swabs, disinfectant, wound cleaning instructions, sample collection tubes
65
What is a common cause of rumen stasis?
sudden diet change, grain-heavy diet with insufficient roughage
66
True or False: Humans with Q fever usually have conjunctivitis and blisters around their nose and mouth.
False- humans are asymptomatic to symptoms of influenza
67
To reduce the chance of contracting orf, what precaution should always be taken by personnel handling sheep?
wear gloves
68
True or False: Pasteurellosis may cause septicemia, an infection of the bloodstream.
True
69
Coxiella burnetii is the causative agent for which disease?
Q fever
70
What type ruminants present the greatest risk for transmitting Q-fever to humans?
Pregnant or postpartum females
71
What symptoms may be due to infection with Pasteurella multocida?
septicemia, respiratory disease, mastitis
72
True or False: Orf is also known as contagious erythremia.
False- cutaneous erythremia
73
True or False: In rumen stasis, a change in the pH of the rumen results in putrefaction of feed.
True
74
Orf usually affects humans on their:
hands
75
How is rumen stasis generally treated?
administration of warm saline and electrolytes
76
True or False: Q fever is found only in sheep.
False
77
Laminitis is a condition affecting the:
hooves
78
True or False: Q fever spreads mainly by inhalation of aerosol.
True
79
True or False: Coxiella burnetii can easily be eliminated from an animal facility by regular disinfection of the area where ruminants are kept.
False
80
True or False: Contagious ecthyma is a zoonotic disease that can be life threatening to humans.
False
81
True or False: Porcine circovirus may be transmitted by the aerosol, fecal-oral, and contact routes.
True
82
What is the cause of malignant hypothermia in swine?
gene mutation
83
What health problem would cause a pig to appear oblivious to its surroundings and to have seizures?
salt toxicity
84
An infection with Pseudocapillaroides xenopi is called:
cutaneous capillariasis.
85
What disease causes lethargy and excessive mucus and white spots on the skin of fish?
Ich
86
What is a diseases of aquatic species is caused by a fungus?
Chytridiomycosis
87
Ich is caused by what pathogen?
Ichthyopthirius multifilis
88
What fish disease is also known as fin rot?
bacterial gill disease
89
What agent is associated with red leg in amphibians?
Aeromonas hydrophila
90
True or False: Xenopus with hard bloat can be successfully treated with Epsom salt baths.
False- soft bloat can be treated with Epsom salts
91
True or False: Cutaneous capillariasis can be treated successfully with bactericidal antibiotics.
False- anthelmintics
92
True or False: Chytridiomycosis can lead to a loss of the righting reflex in affected amphibians.
True
93
A bacterial septicemia that occurs frequently in frogs and that can cause erosion of the toes, feet, and jaws is called:
Red Leg
94
True or False: Many wild frogs and salamanders have died due to chytridiomycosis.
True
95
True of False: Atabrine and sea salt baths are used in the treatment of velvet disease in fish.
True
96
What pathogen causes velvet disease?
Piscinoodinium pillulare
97
What pathogen causes velvet disease?
Piscinoodinium pillulare
98
True or False: The difference between hard and soft bloat in amphibians is where the excess fluid is held in the body.
True- in hard bloat the fluid is in the body cavity, in soft bloat the fluid is within the body tissues
99
What term is used for the stones that can be found in the bladders of some cats?
uroliths
100
Pododermatitis in guinea pigs is frequently seen in what situation?
housed on wire flooring
101
What clinical sign would suggest that young mice may have epizootic diarrhea of infant mice (EDIM)?
yellow stains around tail base
102
What step should be taken by an employee who works with nonhuman primates and has been exposed to measles outside of the facility?
notify your supervisor
103
Which swine disease can be prevented by vaccination?
Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome virus
104
What disease may result in the sudden death of large numbers of fish in the aquaria?
gas bubble disease
105
An infection with Pseudocapillaroides xenopi is called:
cutaneous capillariasis
106
A goat that is staggering and kicking their belly most likely has what condition?
grain overload
107
In most cases, nonhuman primates contract tuberculosis through contact with what?
contact with an infected human
108
What is another name for infectious tracheobronchitis in dogs?
kennel cough
109
What disease in fish is caused by a protozoan species?
Ich
110
If swine are unable to access water, they may develop:
salt toxicity
111
What mouse viral infection is considered the most widespread in facilities in the United States and Canada?
Mouse norovirus
112
If fighting occurs among an aquatic species, what is usually the cause?
overcrowding
113
Insufficient dietary fiber in rabbits can cause what?
Trichobezoars
114
What disease causes lethargy and excessive mucus and white spots on the skin of fish?
Ich
115
What disease of rodents affects the salivary glands and the Harderian glands?
Sialodacryoadenitis
116
What tissue type is used to test for mouse parvovirus?
lymph nodes
117
Microsporidiosis in fish is caused by what type of pathogen?
fungus
118
The mouse norovirus is spread by what route of transmission?
fecal-oral
119
What is described as the cessation or reduction in the motility of a ruminant's stomach due to indigestion caused by a change within the animal?
rumen stasis
120
Aplastic anemia can be caused by what in ferrets?
bone marrow suppression from high estrogen levels
121
What method is BEST for preventing infectious tracheobronchitis in dogs?
vaccination
122
At necropsy, whar finding is most likely in an animal infected by Mycoplasma pulmonis?
scarred lungs
123
What type of medication may help eliminate signs of coccidiosis?
sulfa drugs
124
What agent is associated with red leg in amphibians?
Aeromonas hydrophila
125
What treatment is recommended for dogs diagnosed with canine parvovirus?
Intravenous fluids, antibiotics, and analgesics
126
What treatment may successfully treat aplastic anemia in ferrets?
Ovariohysterectomy
127
Where are Dirofilaria immitis (heartworms) found in a dog's body?
right atrium and pulmonary artery
128
Otitis externa in cats may be associated with infestation by what arthropod?
Notoedres cati
129
Mycobacteriosis in fish is thought to spread how?
Cannibalism of dead tank mates
130
New tank systems may develop high levels of __________ in the water that may kill fish.
ammonia
131
What causes most of the illness of pasteurellosis in ruminants?
bacterial endotoxin
132
What disease is characterized by fish rubbing their sides and flipping around in the corners of the tank?
velvet disease
133
A bacterial septicemia that occurs frequently in frogs and that can cause erosion of the toes, feet, and jaws is called:
red leg
134
Among all animals used in research, which are at the greatest risk for contracting rabies?
wild caught animals
135
What is the BEST way to prevent canine distemper in ferrets?
vaccination
136
What is the causative agent of Tyzzer's disease?
Clostridium piliforme
137
To test nonhuman primates for tuberculosis, the tuberculin is injected intradermally in what part of the body?
upper eyelid
138
What is the primary sign of orf?
blisters
139
How is rumen stasis generally treated?
administration of warmed saline and electrolytes
140
Pseudocapillaroides xenopi is what type of organism?
nematode
141
What zoonotic agent can be harbored by hamsters for an extended period of time, often without clinical signs?
Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus
142
Orf mainly affects what animals?
sheep and goats
143
The most common method used to detect the presence of mouse hepatitis virus (MHV) in a colony is:
serology testing of sentinels or colony animals
144
True or False: Mouse parvovirus in rats and mice is always subclinical.
True
145
What changes in the appearance of young mice would indicate that they suffer from epizootic diarrhea of infant mice?
yellow staining around tail base
146
Bacterial diarrhea of hamsters is known by what common name?
wet-tail disease
147
Which viral disease of rodents affects the salivary glands and Harderian glands?
sialodacryoadenitis virus (SDAV)
148
True or False: Syphacia spp. can be detected by finding eggs on the perineum of the affected animal.
True
149
True or False: Rabies can be transmitted by mosquitoes.
False
150
True or False: Antibiotics against gram-positive organisms should be avoided in guinea pigs.
True
151
What are the 2 main causes of hairballs in rabbits?
self grooming, insufficient dietary fiber
152
What is often a fatal disease in ferrets?
Canine distemper
153
What is a disease of ferrets that only affects the females of the species?
aplastic anemia
154
Canine parvovirus is an acute infection affecting what part of the GI system?
lining of the small intestine
155
In most cases, how do NHPs contract tuberculosis?
via infected human
156
True or False: Intradermal tuberculin testing is used to test NHPs for tuberculosis.
True
157
What precautions should the staff take when performing a necropsy on an animal suspected of having tuberculosis?
wear appropriate PPE, including respirator
158
What is the primary cause of fighting in aquatic species?
overcrowding
159
True or False: Q-fever is only found in sheep.
False
160
What are the 2 common names for Orf?
sore mouth, contagious ecthyma
161
Why is Corynebacterium bovis clinically relevant in the vivarium?
high degree of virulence, environmental persistence, high potential for reinfection even after treatment
162
What pathogen causes velvet disease?
Piscinoodinium pillulare
163
What causes gas bubble disease in fish?
too much air dissolved in water (supersaturation)
