LATG 15: Diagnostic Techniques Flashcards

1
Q

What term means “the determination of the nature and cause of a disease, injury, or congenital defect”?

A

diagnosis

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2
Q

What term means “to predict the outcome of a disease”?

A

prognosis

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3
Q

True or False: Serological tests are used to determine the type of organisms present in a skin scraping sample.

A

False- PCR is used

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4
Q

What test is a quick method, though not very accurate, for detecting endoparasites?

A

direct fecal smear

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5
Q

Smears can be used to determine the presence of endoparasites in what kind of samples?

A

fecal, blood, sputum

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6
Q

What are signs that might be an indication that an animal has ectoparasites?

A

itching, skin lesions, and hair loss

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7
Q

Where are endoparasites most commonly found in laboratory animals?

A

in the intestinal tract

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8
Q

True or False: Direct smear is the primary method used to detect protozoan parasites in an animal.

A

True

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9
Q

By what method are most endoparasites detected?

A

fecal examination

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10
Q

True or False: PCR is more sensitive than a tape test for the detection of pinworm species.

A

True

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11
Q

Fecal flotation is used to determine if ________________ and/or ______________ are present in the sample.

A

parasite eggs. coccidian oocysts

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12
Q

True or False: Testing with a fecal analysis kit does not require centrifugation.

A

True

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13
Q

True or False: An animal may need to be sedated to swab its ear to check for ear mites.

A

True

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14
Q

True or False: To detect endoparasites by fecal flotation, sugar may be mixed with the fecal specimen.

A

True

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15
Q

True or False: The fecal flotation test requires a larger sample than the one needed for the direct smear.

A

True

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16
Q

True or False: Mites in a fur sample are visible by eye.

A

False- lice can be seen with the naked eye

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17
Q

True or False: Ectoparasites leave a dead body as it cools.

A

True

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18
Q

Lymphocytes are produced by the:

A

lymph nodes

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19
Q

What test provides information on blood cell morphology?

A

peripheral blood smear

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20
Q

In most species, what type of white blood cells are the most numerous?

A

neutrophils/heterophils

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21
Q

What best describes plasma?

A

the liquid portion of unclotted blood

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22
Q

A hematocrit is used to determine what?

A

packed cell volume

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23
Q

What function is served by basophils?

A

initiation of inflammatory response

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24
Q

True or False: A white blood cell count includes quantification for all types of white blood cells.

A

False- a differential is needed

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25
Hemoglobin is the:
oxygen-carrying component of RBCs
26
True or False: The neutrophil to lymphocyte ratio varies among healthy animals of different species.
True
27
True or False: In most institutions, a generic antibody test is performed as an initial screen to quickly identify which antibodies are present in the blood.
False
28
True or False: Serum should be stored at -18 to 0 °C.
False- -50 to -70 C
29
Serology is testing of serum for the presence or absence of:
antibodies
30
True or False: The enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a test used to quantify antibodies or antigens in the research laboratory.
True
31
True or False: Even at proper temperatures, serum samples cannot be used after 6 weeks of freezer storage.
False- at ultra-low temps serum can be stored indefinitely
32
True or False: Serum chemistry tests help the veterinarian determine which organ is affected in a sick animal.
True
33
What is indicated by the red top tubes usually used for serum chemistry testing?
the use of serum for testing
34
True or False: When measuring antibody titers, the lower the titer, the less antibody is present.
True
35
True or False: A higher urine specific gravity indicates that the urine is less concentrated.
False
36
True or False: The best way to obtain a sterile urine sample is to use a catheter inserted into the urethra of the animal.
False- cystocentesis
37
Paper strips used to evaluate urine samples are known as:
dipsticks or reagent strips
38
True or False: The measurement of specific gravity is expressed with no units (like mg or ml).
True- term of relative density
39
True or False: To examine the urinary sediments, the urine should be left undisturbed for several hours before being stained.
False
40
True of False: Urinalysis can aid in the diagnosis of diseases other than those of the urinary system.
True
41
True or False: Most bacteria can be identified based on their growth patterns on agar plates.
False
42
True or False: Microbial pathogens are usually identified after being inoculated into nutrient media and left to grow.
True
43
Viruses can be cultured in what?
tissue or cell cultures
44
True or False: Samples obtained for microbiological analyses should be treated with antibiotics before being inoculated on nutrient media.
False
45
True or False: Fungal diseases cannot be diagnosed by culturing a sample because they don't grow in culture.
False
46
If a sample contains both bacteria and fungi, what will happen?
bacteria will grow faster than fungi
47
Why can't viruses be co-identified with bacteria if inoculated on the same agar plate?
viruses can't grow on artificial media
48
True or False: A case history is the complete list of findings obtained during necropsy.
False- findings up until necropsy
49
What is the term for the examination of an animal after its death?
necropsy
50
True or False: An examination of the animal's cage should be part of the development of the case history of the animal being necropsied.
True
51
To preserve tissues for further examination, what is the usual ratio of tissue to fixative used by weight?
1 to 50
52
What items of personal protective equipment should be worn by personnel working with radiation?
film badge, thyroid shield, lead apron, lead gloves
53
For a ventrodorsal view, which part of the animal do the X-rays strike first?
ventral
54
True or False: Thermal control is important during diagnostic imaging to prevent the introduction of artifact.
True
55
True or False: Contrast media are used to change the way organs are seen on a radiograph.
True
56
What imaging technique allows the observation of metabolic processes as they occur?
Positron emission tomography
57
During magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), what happens to the hydrogen atoms after they realign with the magnetic field?
They emit a radiofrequency wave that is recorded as an image.
58
True or False: In bioluminescence, a fluorophore is oxidized and produces a light signal.
False- luciferin is oxidized and produces a light signal.
59
True or False: X-rays cannot penetrate the body but the electrons they produce can.
False
60
Fluorescent imaging may use a genetically modified animal to express a _______ that emits a colored light that can be used to measure biological changes.
fluorophore
61
What technique allows real time moving images to be observed?
Fluoroscopy
62
What imaging modality uses molecules that produce a certain light wavelength when exposed to ultraviolet light?
Fluorescence
63
True or False: Dense areas of the body absorb the most X-rays.
True
64
True or False: Fluorescence imaging is also known as fluoroscopy.
False
65
True or False: Infrared radiation is emitted from all objects.
True
66
Under which condition will viruses grow?
cell culture
67
In what technique is the x-ray beam rotated 360° around the patient to allow precise location of lesions?
computed tomographgy
68
Body cells secrete antibodies in reaction to what?
presence of an antigen
69
Hemoglobin is the:
oxygen-carrying component of red blood cells.
70
What method is most commonly used for the detection of pinworm species?
cellophane tape test
71
To examine fur, what substance is used to prepare the glass slide?
mineral oil
72
A white blood cell differential is also known as a:
leukogram
73
By what method are most endoparasites detected?
fecal examination
74
For a complete blood count, what substance is mixed with the whole blood sample?
anticoagulant
75
During magnetic resonance imaging, what ions realign with the magnetic field?
hydrogen
76
If there is a delay before the animal is necropsied, what is the best approach to preserve the body?
Refrigerate the animal’s body to prevent rapid decomposition.
77
The buffy coat in the hematocrit tube can be collected and used to determine what?
morphology of WBCs
78
Platelets are a source of what?
clotting factors
79
What means to predict the outcome of a disease?
prognosis
80
What is the primary evaluation procedure used to determine if an animal has ectoparasites?
gross visual exam
81
Where are heartworms most often found in adult dogs?
pulmonary artery and right ventricle
82
What diagnostic test is based on the fact that nematode larvae will accumulate at the bottom of a funnel?
fecal sedimentation
83
yellow plasma
jaundice
84
What can a low hematocrit indicate?
anemia
85
Where are the white blood cells located in a hematocrit?
buffy coat
86
The measurement obtained when you perform a hematocrit represents:
a percentage
87
In most species, which type of white blood cells are the most numerous?
neutrophils/heterophils
88
The presence of parasites and allergic reactions are two conditions that often cause an elevation in the numbers of which WBCs?
eosinophils
89
What test gives information on blood cell morphology?
peripheral blood smear
90
True or False: Clinical serum chemistries are tests that determine the chemical composition of the blood cells.
False
91
What is the difference between plasma and serum?
plasma is the noncellular portion of whole/unclotted blood, serum is the liquid obtained from clotted blood
92
Skin of the mucus taken from an aquatic species under a microscope is known as:
wet mount
93
True or False: The best way to obtain a sterile urine sample is to use a catheter inserted into the urethra of the animal.
False
94
What can measuring an antibody titer give you information about?
active infection, past infections
95
True or False: To examine urinary sediments, the urine should be left undisturbed for several hours before being stained.
False
96
Why can't viruses be co-identified with bacteria if inoculated on the same agar plate?
viruses do not grow on artificial media
97
True or False: An examination of the animal's cage should be part of the development of the case history of the animal being necropsied.
True
98
Why should the carcasses of an animal never be frozen before necropsy?
formulation of ice crystals disrupts cell structures and makes tissue exam impossible
99
True or False: X-rays can penetrate through most body tissues.
True
100
True or False: Infrared radiation is emitted from all objects.
True
101
In dorsoventral recumbency, which part of the animal do the X-rays strike first?
the back
102
True or False: Physiological control is important during diagnostic imaging to prevent the introduction of artifact.
True
103
What imaging method would be best to use to follow in real time the progress of a catheter from a peripheral blood vessel to the heart?
fluoroscopy
104
What imaging technique uses a radioisotope to provide images of in vitro biological processes?
Positron emission tomography