Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RUSVM Anesthesiology > Lab Exam > Flashcards

Lab Exam Flashcards

1
Q

describe a basic anesthetic machine setup

A

oxygen cylinder→pressure reduction valve→ flowmeter→vaporizer→fresh gas inlet →breathing circuit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the metabolc requirement/ minimum O2 flow required

A

5-10ml/kg/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

E-cylinders

A

usually single

attached directly to anesthesia machine via yoke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

H- cylinder

A

often in banks

supply central O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

pressure in the O2 tank is measured in _______

A

psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

breathing system pressure is measured in _______

A

cmH20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the capacity of most commonly used E-cylinders

A

660 L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what pressure are O2 tanks filled to?

A

2200 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are some safety systems in place for different tanks

A

color-coded tanks

labellig

diameter index safety system

pin index safety system

quick connectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is a regulator

A

pressure-reducing valve

decreases tank pressure (approx 50 psi) which is supplied to flowmeter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is a flowmeter

A

controls rate of gas flow through vaporizer (L/min)

enters at 50 psi leaves at 15 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

T/F flowmeters are gas specific

A

True

O2 flowmeter is not accurate if used for N20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the minimum % O2 that should be delivered to patient

A

35%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

T/F the quick flush bypasses the vaporizer

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is a possible complication of the quick flush

A

pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

anesthetic vaporizers

A

changes liquid into vapor

deliver selected % of anesthesitic vapour to fresh gas outlet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

types of re-breathing systems

A

circle

universal F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

types of non-rebreathing system

A

mapleson A-F

most common- bain/modified mapelsonD, mapelson F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how can you calculate bag size for small animal

A

body weight (in kgs) X 90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

O2 flow rate for small animal induction and recovery

A

50-100 mL/kg/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

maintenance O2 flow rate for small animals

A

20-50 mL/kg/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

O2 flow rate for large animal induction and recovery

A

20-50 mL/kg/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

maintenance O2 flow rate for large animal

A

10-20 mL/kg/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

when are non-rebreathing systems used

A

< 3kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how high should th eO2 flow rate be with non-rebreathing

A

2-3x tidal volume

~300 mL/kg/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

types of ET tubes

A

PCV, rubber, silicone

cuffed or uncuffed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

murphy ETT

A

cuffed or uncuffed

has “murphy eye” - allows gas flow if end in obstructed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

cole ETT

A

uncuffed

commonly used in avian patients - has shoulder that seals agaisnt the glottis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

T/F ETT can be inflated without checking for leaks in ruminants

A

True

high risk of regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

types of passive scavenging

A

exhaust directly into atmosphere - window/hole in wall

F air canister

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

ventilation is defined by ____

A

PaCO2

normal ≈ 35-45 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

ventilation is monitored via ____

A

arterial blood gas

capnography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

oxygenation is defined by _____

A

PaO2 or SpO2

monitored with arterial blood gas or pulse ox

hypoxemia: PaO2 < 60 mmHg, SpO2 < 90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

types of ventilation

A

spontaneous - patient determines, when and how

assisted - patient determines when and ventilator determines how

manditory - ventilator determines when and how

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

IPPV

A

intermittent positive pressure ventilation

positive pressure maintaned only during inspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

IMV

A

intermittent manditory ventilation

predetermined number of positive breaths but patient can breath freely between mechanical breaths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

CPAP

A

continuous positive airway pressure

spontaneous breathing with positive pressure during both inspiration and expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

PIP

A

peak inspiratory pressure

inflates alveoli, opens atelactasis, causes barotrauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

indicationd for mechanical ventilation under anesthesia

A

decreased PaCO2

hypoxemia - breathing air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

hypercapnia may be acceptable ____

A

up to 60-70 mmHg fr purpose to improve circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

tidal volume, resp rate, and inspiratory time in healthy lungs

A

TV: 10-15 ml/kg

RR: 6-10 breaths/min

IT: 1-2 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

2 modes of mechanical ventilation

A

volume controlled

pressure controlled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

blood gas analysis measures:

A

pH

PaCO2

PaO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

normal pH of blood

A

7.35-7.45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

normal HCO3 value

A

24 +/- 4 mEq/L

cats tend to be lower

herbivores tend to be higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

normal PaCO2 value

A

35-45 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

normal base excess (BE)

A

0 +/- 4 mEq/L

positive = metabolic alkalosis

negative = metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what can effect PaCO2 value

A

resp rate, tidal volume, breathing effort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

PaO2 is interpreted in light of …

A

FiO2

ambient pressure

PaCO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

if breathing 100% O2, PaO2 should be…

A

> 500 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

A-a difference if breathing 100% O2

A

<110 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

causes for a high A-a difference

A

V/Q mismatch

right to left shunt

diffusion impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

normal PaO2 / FiO2 ratio

A

>500 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

5 causes for hypoexemia (low PaO2)

A

Low FiO2

hypoventilation

diffusion impairment

V/Q mismatch

right to left shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is the common method for monitoring anesthetic depth

A

subjective monitoring of subcortical activities/reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

EEG gives information about

A

cortical but not subcortical activities

57
Q

cental + dilated pupil can indicate ….

A

the patient is either too light or too deep

58
Q

T/F CV adverse effects are possible even if iso is not overdosed

A

True

59
Q

most surgeries and intubation are performed at what stage

A

Stage 3 planes 2-3

60
Q

stage 3 plane 1

A

light anesthesia

nystagmus

61
Q

stage 3 plane 2

A

medium plane of anesthesia

weak palpebral, strong corneal reflexes

adequate muscle relaxation

62
Q

stage 3 plane 3

A

deep anesthesia

some patients may have to be maintained at this stage but ideally should decrease to plane 2

63
Q

T/F HR does not aid in determining anesthetic depth

A

true

64
Q

spontaneous RR is high (> 20 br/min) may indicate

A

too light anesthesia

low lung volume

65
Q

ACVAA monitoring guidelines at least ____, _____, ______, and ______ should be monitored

A

circulation

oxygenation

ventilation

temperature

66
Q

pulse palpation in small animals

A

labial, digital, dorsal pedal

67
Q

pulse palpation in large animals

A

auricular, transverse facial, facial

68
Q

esophageal stethoscope

A

assess: heart sounds, rate, and rhythm and resp sounds and rate

insert at midline dorsal to ET tube, along palatine raphe

69
Q

T/F ECG indicated that the heart is contracting

A

False

70
Q

conduction system of small animals

A

mammalian type A - base to apex current flow

positive R wave

71
Q

conduction system of large animals

A

mammalian B type - apex to base

negative R wave

72
Q

normal HR and strong pulses indicate _____

A

adequate CO

73
Q

common arrhythmias under anesthesia

A

sinus bradycardia and tachycardia

AV blocks (1st & 2nd degree)

74
Q

hypotension in small animals

A

mean <60

systolic < 80

75
Q

hypotnesion in large animals

A

mean < 70

systolic < 90

76
Q

BP changes with respiration indicates

A

hypovolemia

77
Q

crucial elements of CV function

A

HR (and rhythm)

contractility

circulating volume

vasconstriction

78
Q

invasive BP

A

continuously via arterial catheter

gold standard- most accurate

79
Q

non-invasive BP

A

intermittently using a pressure cuff

oscillometric and doppler

80
Q

IBP should be used in horses if they are anesthetized longer than _____

A

45 min

81
Q

arteries used for IBP in K9

A

dorsal pedal

metatarsal

82
Q

artery used in IBP in sheep and goats

A

median

auricular

83
Q

oscillometric cuff’s width should be about

A

40% of the circumference of the limb

84
Q

advantages of oscillometry

A

provides systolic, mean and diastolic BP

85
Q

placement of doppler sensor in sheep and goats

A

over median artery

86
Q

if you can only afford a single anesthesia monitor, you should choose a ______

A

doppler

87
Q

SaO2 if breathing pure O2

A

> 98%

88
Q

pulse ox readings are affected by

A

hypoperfusion

pigmentation

movement

abnormal Hb species

89
Q

when is it important to use a pulse ox

A

breathing room air

V/Q mismatch

resp disease

90
Q

capnograph

A

continuously displays ETCO2 vs time on a graph

91
Q

how can core body temp be measured

A

esophageal temp probe entered into mid thorax

92
Q

normal temp for all species under anesthesia

A

98 -102.5

93
Q

normal resp rate for all species

A

10-20 br/min

94
Q

normal HR for K9 under anesthesia

A

50-160 bpm

95
Q

normal HR for sheep under anesthesia

A

60-150 bpm

96
Q

which dog breed has prolonged recovery with thiobarbituates, propfol, and alfaxalone

A

sighthounds

97
Q

what premeds are typically used in K9 anesthesia

A

opioid + sedative IM before catheter placement

98
Q

which species is the easiest to intubate

A

dogs

99
Q

blood volume of K9

A

~90 ml/kg

100
Q

how can aspiration be prevented under anesthesia

A

proper ETT cuff lube and inflation

101
Q

what should be done if reguritation occurs in K9

A

postural drainage while anesthestized

swab or suction caudal oropharynx before extubation

keep cuff inflated or partially inflated for extubation

place in sternal recumbency ASAP

102
Q

how long should sheep and goats be fasted

A

NPO 12-18 hrs

no water for 4 hours

103
Q

common problems with ruminant anesthesia

A

reguritation and aspiration

ruminal tympany

salivation

cardio-resp effects

104
Q

catheter size for sheep and goats

A

16-18 gauge

105
Q

because of its pulmonary effects, _________ are not recommended in sheep and goats

A

alpha 2 agonists

bronchoconstriction, increase pulmonary vascular resistance, pulmonary edema

106
Q

T/F atropine can be used to reduce production of saliva

A

False

does not reduce saliva production but makes it more viscid

107
Q

T/F intubation of small ruminants can be blind or by direct visualization with a laryngoscope

A

True

108
Q

what can effect the accuracy of the capnograph readings with ruminants

A

exhaled methane

109
Q

how should ruminants be recovered

A

ETT removed with cuff inflated - regurge & aspiration

support in sternal - tympany

check temp & use heating blankets in small ruminants/calves

110
Q

acepromazine duration of action

A

long acting

4-8hrs, 48 for liver patients

111
Q

phenothiazines act on which receptor(s)

A

dopamine

serotonin

alpha 1

histamine

112
Q

main indications for phenothiazines

A

sedatiion (++)

antiemetic effect

antiarrhythmic

no analgesia

113
Q

CV & resp effects of phenothiazines

A

vasodilation

hypotension

114
Q

phenothiazine: contraindications

A

hypovolemia, hemodynamically instable

boxers - sensitive (bradycardia)

breeding stallions- penile prolapse

115
Q

butorphanol is what class of opioid

A

mixed agonist antagonist

116
Q

butorphanol acts on which receptor(s)

A

kappa - agonist

mu - antagonist

117
Q

CV & resp effects of opioids

A

minimal bradycardia

118
Q

main indication for propofol

A

injectable anesthestic

status epilepticus

119
Q

propofol acts on which receptor(s)

A

GABA agonist

120
Q

CV and resp effects with propofol

A

hypotension

vasodilation

apnea possible (give slow)

121
Q

main indication for isoflurane

A

inhalant anesthetic - vapor

122
Q

MAC of isoflurane for a dog

A

1.3%

123
Q

duration of action for isoflurane

A

short induction and recovery

124
Q

what is the main muscarinic receptor that acts on the heart

A

M2

bradycardia

125
Q

T/F atropine crosses the BBB and placenta but glycopyrrolate does not

A

True

126
Q

T/F glycopyrrolate can be used during emergency cases

A

False

slow onset (1-5 min, compared to ~1min with atropine)

127
Q

common class 1B anti-arrhythmic

A

lidocaine

128
Q

MOA of lidocaine

A

Na channel blocker

129
Q

Main indication for lidocaine as an anti-arrhythmic

A

hypotension/ inadequate perfusion

R on T phenomenon

multiple VPCs

HR >180

130
Q

what are the mixed inotropes and pressors

A

dopamine

ephedrine

norepi

epi

131
Q

adverse effects for ephedrine

A

reflex bradycardia - vasconstriction

CNS stimulation

increases MAC

132
Q

indications for epi

A

CPR or anaphylactic shock

133
Q

vasopressin

A

aka ADH
non-adrenergic sympathomimetic - vasoconstriction via V1 receptor

indicated for refractory shock or non-responsive hypotension as CRI

134
Q

blood volume of dogs

A

90 mL/kg

135
Q

blood volume of sheep

A

60 mL/kg

136
Q

maintenance fluid rate under anesthesia

A

10mL/kg/hr

137
Q

10mL/kg fluid boluses (within 15min) can be given in cases of _____

A

hypotension

138
Q

what would be the fluid rate for a 45kg sheep (drops/sec) if using a 15 d/mL administration set

A

≈2 drops/sec

  • 45kg X 10mL/kg/hr = 450mL/hr*
  • (450mL/hr)/(60min/hr) = 7.5mL/min*
  • (7.5mL/min)/(60 sec/min) = 0.125 mL/sec*
  • 0.125 mL/sec x 15 drops/mL = 1.875 drops/sec ≈ 2 drops/sec*

RUSVM Anesthesiology (39 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions