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Microbiology 39 > Lab exam 2 > Flashcards

Lab exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the effect of temperature on bacterial growth?

A
  • 37 C- body temp

- 24 C- room temperature

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2
Q

Growth rates for a given species grown at 37oC (normal human body temperature)

A

positive

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3
Q

Growth rates for a given species grown at 24oC (room temperature)

A

positive

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4
Q

Growth rates for a given species grown at 4oC (refrigerated temperature)

A

positive

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5
Q

Hand washing- What three species inhabits human skin?

A
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Staphylococcus epidermidis
  • Micrococcus luteus
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6
Q

Hand washing- What are the distinct colony morphologies (color) of these species?

A
  • S. aureus- small, round gold or pale yellow
  • S. epidermis- small round cream colonies
  • M. luteus- Small, round bright yellow
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7
Q

Compare and contrast clinical and routine hand-washing

A

Primary weapon in infection control policies that removes all microbes from skin.

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8
Q

What is the function and mechanism of action of hibiclens?

A

Contains chlorhexidine, which binds to negatively charged microbial surfaces to inhibit or lysis

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9
Q

What is the function and mechanism of action of betadine?

A
  • Contains iodine in an alcohol-based solution to kill 90% of microbes in 90 seconds, including spores
  • Iodine binds to tyrosine and or histidine to denature proteins
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10
Q

What is the function and mechanism of action of ethanol as antiseptic? (same as hand sanitizer)

A 
Is an antiseptic at concentrations of 70% by denaturing:
-surface-bound proteins
-lipids 
Found in:
-bacterial cell wall
-viral envelopes
-capsids

-Spores are resistant

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11
Q

Define: pyrimidine dimer

A

Dimers represent non-strandard DNA configurations and inhibit both replication and transcription

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12
Q

Explain how UV light damages DNA

A
  • Functions as a mutagen

- Physically and chemically changing the genetic material of DNA

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13
Q

What are the cause of pyrimidine dimers and how they are formed? (Diagram the process)

A
  1. It excites electrons in DNA
  2. Forms extra covalent bonds
  3. Give rise to pyrimidine dimer
  4. This inhibits replication and transcription
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14
Q

Explain failure of excision repair

A

A high mutation load in microsatellite repeat sequences.

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15
Q

What is the clinical application of UV light?

A
  • Black light is used
  • Sterilizing surfaces contaminated with bacteria
  • Surgical rooms for infectious control
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16
Q

What are the benefits of using UV in a clinical setting?

What are the limitations of using UV light in a clinical setting?

A
  • UV can can rid of bacteria on inanimate surfaces

- Can not be used directly on patients as it will cause skin cancer

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17
Q

Define: gastroenteritis

A
  • When your stomach and intestines are irritated and inflamed:
  • Diarrhea
  • Vomiting
  • Abdominal cramps
  • Typically a viral or bacterial infection
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18
Q

What is the significance of microbiology and foodborne illnesses?

A
  • Biological hazards include: -Bacteria
  • Viruses
  • Parasites

-Bacteria and viruses are responsible for most foodborne illnesses

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19
Q

What is the incidence and mortality of foodborne illnesses in the US?

A
  • About 48-80 million people a year in U.S. contract food poisoning or food borne disease
  • 128,000 hospitalized
  • 3,000 deaths
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20
Q

What is the pediatric mortality rate of dysentery worldwide?

A

Diarrheal illness from contaminated food and water cause 2 million deaths in young children

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21
Q

List the six most common bacteria associated with foodborne illness

A
  1. Salmonella
  2. Campylobacter Jejuni
  3. Shigella
  4. Escherichia coli
  5. Staphylococcus aureus
  6. Bacillus cereus
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22
Q

Define: bacteriophage

A

Bacterial viruses that is a specific bacterial species used to propagate the virus

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23
Q

Define: plaque

A

Infections that spreads into a hole or an empty space in the host-cell lawn

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24
Q

Define: bacterial lawn

A

The cell layer for a bacteriophage

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25
Q

How are plaques formed and what happens during the plaque assay?

A
  1. Viruses are introduce into the cell lawn
  2. Releases virions that infect host cells
  3. Infection spreads creating a hole
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26
Q

Understand a plaque represent bacteriophage replication and cell death.

A
  1. Absorption
  2. Penetration
  3. Replication
  4. Maturation
  5. Release
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27
Q

What is the procedure of the plaque assay?

A
  • Phage dilution series

- 1/10–>1/100–>1/1000

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28
Q

What is the purposes of the top agar?

A

Low percentage agar to immobilize bacteria and assist in plaque integrity

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29
Q

Why was it safe to work with the T4 phage?

A

It’s a lytic phage and interacts with E. coli that mirror those of human lytic viruses

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30
Q

Define: yeast, mold

A

Multicellular, filamentous fungi as known as molds

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31
Q

Define the function and structural component of mycelium

A
  • Mass of branched filaments (hyphae)

- Hyphae- threadlike filaments that form mycelium

32
Q

Define the function and structural component of vegetative hyphae

A

-Secretes digestive enzymes, break down and absorb nutrients from environment

33
Q

Define the function and structural component of aerial hyphae

A
  • Spore bearing structure
  • Tips are asexual spores
  • Mycelium is embedded on
34
Q

Define the function and structural component of Conidiaphore

A

Speciallized cells/stalks from which spores form

35
Q

Define the function and structural component of conidia/spores/conidiospores

A
  • Produced by mitosis
  • Asexual spores
  • Disseminated by wind
  • Colored
  • Unicellular
36
Q

Distinguish among Aspergillus niger

A
  • Soil fungus

- Causes pulmonary infection and allergies

37
Q

Distinguish among Rhizopus

A
  • Soil fungus

- Spoilage of foods, plant pathogens

38
Q

Distinguish among Penicillium

A
  • Soil fungus

- Important in cheese and antibiotic production (penicillin), agent of food spoilage

39
Q

Define: dermatophyte

A
  • Trichophyton and Microsporum

- Digest keratin, the material found in outer layer of skin, hair, nails

40
Q

Define: dermatophytosis

A

Or ringworm is a clinical condition caused by fungal infection of the skin in humans

41
Q

Define: onychomycosis

A

Nails that thicken, discolor, crumble and fall off

42
Q

What are the types of syndromes associated wih dermatophytes?

A
  1. Tinea pedis
  2. Tinea unguium
  3. Tinea corporis
  4. Tinea cruris
  5. Tinea capitis
43
Q

How are dermatophytes diagnosed?

A

Enlarging raised red rings of ring worm, infection on the skin on feet or groin

44
Q

What makes skin an ideal environment for fungal infections?

A
  • Warm
  • Moist
  • Outsides of hair shafts or in interiors
45
Q

Visually identify the clinical syndromes associated with dermatophytes

A
  1. Tinea pedis (Feet)
  2. Tinea unguium (Fingernails and Toenails)
  3. Tinea corporis (arms, legs, and trunk)
  4. Tinea cruris (Groin area)
  5. Tinea capitis (Scalp)
46
Q

Define: yeast and pseudohyphae

A

String connected budding cells

47
Q

What is the clinical significance of the yeast Candida albicans?

A
  • Urogenital yeast infection
  • Thrush (oral yeast infection)
  • Skin infection
48
Q

Under what circumstances would Candida become pathogenic?

A

When there is a decline in normal bacterial populations due to antibiotic use or immunocompromised status

49
Q

Visually identify the clinical syndromes associated with yeast

A
  • Thrush (oral)

- Skin lesion

50
Q

What distinguishes molds from yeast?

A
  • Mold is a type of fungus that grows in multicellular filaments called hyphae
  • Yeast is a type of fungus that grows as a single cell
51
Q

What is the selective toxicity and mechanism of action of polyenes and azoles?

A
  • Polyenes target cell membrane
  • Amphoteracin B, kidney toxicity
  • Arzoles targets cell membrane
  • Imidazole, clotrimazole, miconazole topical; ketoconazole-systemic, broad spectrum (taken orally)
52
Q

Define: protozoan and helminth

A

-Protozoa are identified on the basis of cellular morphology

53
Q

Define: trophozoite (trophs)

A

-Trophs are vegetative form, metabolically active, feeding, growing

54
Q

Define: Cyst

A

metabolically inactive, protective when environment lacks food, moisture, oxygen

55
Q

What are the morphologies, clinical significance, presentation and transmission of Giardia lamblia

A
  • Fecal smears
  • Parasite of small intestine
  • Abdominal cramping and diarrhea
  • Contaminated water
  • Block lipid absorption
  • Yellow, foamy diarrhea known as streatorrhea
  • Troph symmetrical nuclei, cysts with 4 nuclei (face)
56
Q

What are the morphologies, clinical significance, presentation and transmission of Plasmodium vivax

A
  • Cause- Malaria
  • Transmit by mosquito
  • Progeny lyse RBC
  • Aquired by Anopheles
  • Ring forms within RBC
57
Q

What are the morphologies, clinical significance, presentation and transmission of Trichomonas vaginalis

A
  • Cause- Trichomoniasis
  • Most common pathogenic protozoan infection of human
  • 180 million cases annually
  • Sexually transmitted (mainly females)
  • Live up to 24 hours in urine, semen
  • No cyst
  • Face one eye
58
Q

What is the definitive host for Plasmodium?

A

Anopheles Mosquito

59
Q

What are the 3 major groups of parasitic worms?

A
  1. Trematodes (flatworms)
  2. Cestodes (tapeworms)
  3. Nematodes (round worms)
60
Q

Flatworm (Trematode): Schistosomes

a) Cite the numbers of cases worldwide

A

> 200 million persons infected worldwide

61
Q

Flatworm (Trematode): Schistosomes

a) What clinical presentation is associated with schistosome infestation

A

Live in the blood stream of humans and animals

62
Q

Tapeworm intestinal and neural cysticercosis (Cestodes): Taenia solium

a)Explain the clinical presentation of each

A

Grow in the intestinal tract 12-60 feet

63
Q

Roundworm (Nematode): Ascaris lumbercoides.

a) Cite the numbers of cases worldwide

A

1-2 billion people worldwide

64
Q

Roundworm (Nematode): Ascaris lumbercoides.

b) Explain the clinical presentation

A
  1. Duodenum
  2. Bloodstream
  3. Heart
  4. Pulmonary Circulation
  5. Alveoli
  6. Respiratory system
  7. Cough up and recycle
65
Q

Define agglutination

A

Visible clumping of cell bound (or particle bound) antigen with specific antibody

66
Q

Define antigen

A
  • Any cell, particle, or chemical that includes a specific immune response by B cells or T cells and can stimulate resistance to an infection or a toxin
  • Non-self
67
Q

Define antibody

A

-A large protein molecule evoked in response to an antigen that interacts specifically with that antigen

68
Q

Define antibodies

A
  • Antibodies of a particular type collectively.

- Also called immunoglobulin.

69
Q

What are the blood cells?

A

It has four main components: plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.

70
Q

What are the significance of agglutination in blood typing?

A

Identification of blood group antigens and red blood cell disorders

71
Q

Know the differences between blood types A, B and O?

A
  • Type B blood, you could get a transfusion from someone with B or O blood, but not A or AB.
  • Type A blood, you could get a transfusion from someone with A or O blood, but not B or AB.
  • Type AB or -Type O blood. If you have both A and B markers on the surface of your cells (Type AB blood) universal receiver
  • Type O blood universal donor
72
Q

What is the D (Rh) antigen?

A

The commonly used terms Rh factor, Rh positive and Rh negative refer to the D antigen only.

73
Q

How is that these antigens are expressed on the surface of the RBC cell membrane?

A

Extended out from the surface of the cell into the environment so they are available for antibody recognition and binding

74
Q

How is the blood typing procedure performed and what constitutes a positive result?

A
  • Add a drop anti-A antibody to RBC
  • Add a drop anti-B antibody to RBC
  • Add a drop anti-D antibody to RBC
  • Gently rock slide to mix and wait 30-60 sec
  • Check for visible agglutination for positive results
75
Q

How is the anti-A, B, and D antibodies can be used to determine the blood type?

A

Using the agglutination reactions to determine the ABO, Rh(D) type

76
Q

Know the purpose of Elisa and how is done

A
  • Test that detects and measures antibodies in your blood
  • 4 columns; 1 Negative, 2 Positive, 3 Donor 1, 4 Donor 2
  1. Drop antigen into each circle (let stand for 5 min)
  2. Drop (-) sample on (-) column and same for the rest
  3. Let sit for 5 min
  4. Drop secondary antibody onto each circle
  5. Let sit for 5 min
  6. Drop substrate onto each circle
  7. Observe for color change (bright pink)

Microbiology 39 (77 decks)

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