GRAM POSITIVE (+) AEROBIC BACILLI Flashcards

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1
Q

Aerobic gram-positive, spore-forming rods; catalase positive;’ most (but not all) are motile

A

Bacillus

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2
Q

The only truly pathogenic Bacillus

A

B. anthracis

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3
Q

The main host of B. anthracis:

A

Domesticated animals (e.g cows)

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4
Q

What disease is caused by B. anthracis

A

Anthrax

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5
Q

Enumerate types of anthrax:

A
  1. Cutaneous anthrax
  2. Gastrointestinal anthrax
  3. Inhalation anthrax
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6
Q

Most common anthrax type; characteristic central black painless eschar (ulcer) at the site of inoculation with surrounding edema; can lead to sepsis

A

Cutaneous anthrax

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7
Q

Most lethal and deadly anthrax type:

A

Inhalation anthrax

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8
Q

Other name of inhalation anthrax

A

“woolsorter’s disease”

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9
Q

The capsule of B. anthracis is made up of:

A

Poly-D-glutamic acid

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10
Q

Action of poly-D-glutamic acid in the capsule of B. anthracis

A

Antiphagocytic

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11
Q

Three proteins that makes up the anthrax toxin

A
  1. Protective Antigen (PA)
  2. Edema Factor (EF)
  3. Lethal Factor (LF)
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12
Q

EF + PA; responsible for cell and tissue edema:

A

Edema toxin

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13
Q

LF + PA; cause of death in infected animals and humans:

A

Lethal toxin

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14
Q

Bacillus anthracis on sheep blood agar at 24 hours:

A

Non-motile and Non-hemolytic

Tip: Read Bacillus anthracis as “Bacillus NONthracis”

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15
Q

Colony appearance of B. anthracis on blood agar:

A

“Medusa head” appearance of colonies

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16
Q

Microscopic appearance of B. anthracis:

A

Bamboo pole arrangement
“Boxcar” appearance (Centrally located spore)

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17
Q

Bacillus species that can cause food poisoning:

A

Bacillus cereus

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18
Q

2 distinct form of food poisoning caused by B. cereus:

A
  1. Emetic type
  2. Diarrheal type
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19
Q

Associated with fried rice, milk and pasta; caused by ingestion of preformed emetic toxin

A

Emetic type

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20
Q

Associated with meat dishes and sauces; ingested spores develop into vegetative cells that secrete enterotoxins

A

Diarrheal type

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21
Q

Difference between B. anthracis and B. cereus

A

B. anthracis:
- Non-hemolytic
- Non-motile

B. cereus:
- Beta-hemolytic
- Swarming motility (similar to proteus)

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22
Q

Other name of Corynebacterium diptheriae

A

Diphtheria bacillus/ Kleb Loeffler’s bacillus

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23
Q

An acute contagious disease characterized by the production of a systematic toxin and a false membrane lining on the throat (pseudomembranous)

A

Diphtheria

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24
Q

Appearance of C. diphtheriae on Loeffler’s serum agar:

A

(+) Poached egg colonies

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25
Q

Skin test for C. diptheriae susceptibility

A

Schick’s test

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26
Q

In vitro virulence test for C. diphtheriae:

A

ELECK METHOD

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27
Q

positive result for Elec method:

A

precipitin lines (+)

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28
Q

Nonlipophilic coryneform bacteria; Also known as Hoffman’s bacillus:

A

C. pseudodiphtheriticum
- Normal flora of human nasopharynx

29
Q

Lipophilic coryneform bacteria:

A
  1. C. jeikeium
  2. C. urealyticum
30
Q

Gram positive or gram variable coccobacillus (resembling Haemophilus), or diphtheroid-like rods

A

Listeria monocytogenes

31
Q

Motility of L. monocytogenes:

A

Tumbling motility

32
Q

CAMP (+) pattern of L. monocytogenes:

A

“shovel” pattern CAMP (+)

33
Q

In motility medium, L. monocytogenes is positive with a characteristic “_______” shaped pattern:

A

“umbrella” shaped pattern in motility medium

34
Q

Virulence test; culture instilled in rabbit eye causes purulent conjunctivitis; stimulates monocytes in rabbits:

A

Anton test

35
Q

Differentiate L. monocytogenes and Corynebacteria:

A

L. monocytogenes
- Tumbling motility (+)/motile
- Salicin (+)

Corynebacteria
- Non-motile
- Salicin (-)

36
Q

Diseases caused by L. monocytogenes:

A
  • Gastroenteritis
  • Meningitis
  • Infection in pregnancy
  • Granulomatosis Infantiseptica
37
Q

Bacteria that causes Erysipeloid, aka “seal finger” and “whale finger”

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathie

38
Q

Test that differentiates E. rhusiopathie from L. monocytogenes:

A

H2S

E. rhusiopathie - H2S (+)
L. monocytogenes (-)

39
Q

Erysupelothrix rhusiopathie in motility medium is described as having:

A

“test tube brush” shape

40
Q

Culture media incubation requirements for isolation of Mycobacterium:

A

Incubate in 5-10% CO2 (Capnophilic)

41
Q

Culture media for isolation of Mycobacterium:

A
  1. Lowenstein-Jensen (L-J)
  2. Middlebrook 7H10 or 7H11 agar
42
Q

Culture media for Mycobacterium that contains egg glycerol; more species grow, less drying out, good for niacin test; Difficult to prepare.

A

Lowenstein-Jensen (L-J)

43
Q

Culture media for Mycobacterium that has clear agar and fewer contaminants; it’s clear agar can allow to see the colonies early through the microscope.

A

Middlebrook 7h10 or 7h11 agar

44
Q

Stains for Mycobacterium:

A
  1. Acid-Fast stain
  2. Auramine-rhodamine fluorescent stain (Truant)
45
Q

Best/preferred test for the identification of mycobacteria:

A

Niacin test

46
Q

In Nitrate reduction test, which Mycobacterium is positive and which is negative:

A

Nitrate reduction test for Mycobacterium:

M. tuberculosis (+)
M. bovis (-)

47
Q

Described as rough, wrinkled, dry, elevated, buff-colored (“cauliflower-like) at 35-37C

A

M. tuberculosis

48
Q

The primary spread of the organism 9M. tuberculosis) is via ___________.

A

via aerosol droplets from coughing

49
Q

True or false

The immunologic response to this infection (M. tuberculosis) is humoral rather than cellular.

A

False

The immunologic response to M. tuberculosis is cellular (rather than humoral)

50
Q

Most common presentation of TB is as a ____________.

A

Chronic pulmonary disease

51
Q

M. tuberculosis infection - In those with intact cell-mediated immunity, T cells and macrophages limit the multiplication and dissemination of the organism by forming _________.

A

Granulomas

52
Q

Other tests for Mycobacterium tuberculosis:

A
  1. Mantoux Tuberculin skin test (TST)
  2. Interferon-gamma release assays (IGRAS)
53
Q

Test used to determine whether an individual has been exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis; uses Purified protein derivative (PPD), which is a heat-killed, filtered, ammonium sulfate-precipitated organism; injected intradermally into the forearm.

A

Mantoux Tuberculin Skin test (TST)

54
Q

Whole blood tests to detect tiuberculosis infection; including both latent TB infection (LTBI) and tuberculosis (TB) disease.

A

Interferon-gamma release assays (IGRAS)

55
Q

two (2) approved IGRAS test:

A
  1. QuantiFERON-TB Gold In-Tube test (QFT-GIT)
  2. T-SPOT TB test (T-Spot)
56
Q

Most common non-Tb mycobacterial infection (second to tuberculosis); Causes disseminated disease in HIV/AIDS with low CD4 count (<50)/Systemic disease

A

Mycobacterium avium complex

57
Q

mycobacterium avium complex includes:

A
  • M. avium
  • M. intercellulare
58
Q

Obligate intracellular organism’ reservoir is armadillos; causes HANSEN’S Disease (leprosy)

A

Mycobacterium leprae (Hansen’s Bacillus)

59
Q

These are macrophages containing acid-fast bacilli described as “smears of tissue juice”:

A

Lepra cells

60
Q

Milder disease; strong cell-mediated TH1 response contains infection; patches of hypopigmented skin with loss of sensation over affected area; (+) granuloma

A

Tuberculoid leprosy

61
Q

Severe disease; depressed cell-mediated immunity; diffuse skin lesions with often deformed, thickened skin (Leonine facies); (-) granuloma

A

Lepromatous leprosy

62
Q

Skin test for leprosy using a sterile extract from lepromatous nodules:

A

Lepronin test

63
Q

Two (2) types of reaction of lepronin test:

A
  1. Early Fernandez reaction (24 to 48 hours)
  2. Late or Mitsuda reaction (3 to 4 weeks )
64
Q

Diagnosis of Mycobacterium leprae:

A

Acid-fast organisms on skin biopsy

65
Q

Causes Buruli ulcers in Africa

A

Mycobacterium ulcerans

66
Q

Thin, branching and beaded modified acid fast-positive rods

A

Nocardia

67
Q

Disease caused by Nocardia:

A

Nocardiosis

68
Q

Causative organisms are soil-inhabiting (exogenous) Nocardia:

A
  • N. asteroides
  • N. brasiliensis