Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

What are the steps in the central dogma?

A
  1. Replication
  2. Transcription
  3. Translation
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2
Q

____ is a polymer consisting of deoxyribonucleoside monophosphate covalently linked by ____

A

3’-5’ phosphodiester bone

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3
Q

Histones has a high content of what amino acid?

A

arginine and lysine

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4
Q

What are your pyrimidine bases?

A

Uracil
Thymine
Cytosine

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5
Q

What are your your purine bases?

A

Adenine

Guanine

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6
Q

What is the DNA base pair of adenine?

A

Adenine-Guanine

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7
Q

What is the DNA base pair of cytosine?

A

Cytosine-Guanine

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8
Q

___ are highly repetitive sequences of TG

A

telomeres

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9
Q

[Structural forms of DNA]

Right handed
11 base pairs per turn

A

A DNA

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10
Q

[Structural forms of DNA]

Right handed
10 residues per turn

A

B DNA

AB = right
A = 11bp/turn
B = 10bp/turn
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11
Q

[Structural forms of DNA]

left handed
12 base pairs per turn

A

Z DNA

Z = left 12

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12
Q

Base pairing with 3 hydrogen bonds

A

GC

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13
Q

Base pairing with 2 hydrogen bonds

A

AT

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14
Q

[DNA/RNA]

Chargaff Rule applies

A

DNA

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15
Q

In RNA, the bond is linked together by ____

A

3’-5’ Phosphodiester bond

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16
Q

What are the purine components of RNA?

A

Adenine

Guanine

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17
Q

What are the pyrimidine components of RNA?

A

Cytosine

Uracil

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18
Q

RNA can be easily hydrolyzed by alkali to ____

A

2’ to3’ cyclic diesters of the mononucletides

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19
Q

What is the RNA cap at the 5’ end?

A

methylguanosine

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20
Q

What is the sequence at the 3’ end to of the RNA

A

Poly A tail

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21
Q

[Guess the RNA]

contribute to the formation and function of ribosomes

A

rRNA

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22
Q

What are the sedimentation coefficients of the ribosomes of the prokaryotes?

A

50S

30S

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23
Q

What are the sedimentation coefficients of eukaryotes?

A

60S

40S

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24
Q

The specific sedimentation coefficient of the ribosomes of a eukaryote is ___

A
  1. 18S
  2. 28S
  3. 5S
  4. 5.8S
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25
Q

The specific sedimentation coefficient of the ribosomes of a prokaryote is ___

A
  1. 16S
  2. 23S
  3. 5S
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26
Q

[Guess the RNA]

___ adapter molecule that translate the nucleotide sequence of mRNA into specific amino acids

A

tRNA

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27
Q

The tRNA is composed of how many nucleotides?

A

74 to 95

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28
Q

In tRNA, which part of the structure terminates in the nucleotides -CCA

A

acceptor arm

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29
Q

[Guess the RNA]

involved in rRNA and mRNA processing and gene regulation

A

snRNA

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30
Q

[Guess the RNA]

involved in removal of introns

A

snRNA

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31
Q

[Guess the RNA]

small, noncoding regulatory RNA

A

miRNA

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32
Q

[Guess the RNA]

small non coding RNA that in inhibit gene expression

A

siRNA

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33
Q

[Guess the RNA]

long noncoding regulatory RNA

A

lncRNA

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34
Q

DNA replication occurs in what phase of the cell cycle?

A

S phase

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35
Q

[DNA replication]

unwinds the double helix

A

helicase

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36
Q

[DNA replication]

what maintains the separation of the parent strand?

A

single-stranded DNA binding proteins

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37
Q

[DNA replication]

what relieves the torsional strain that results from helicase-induced unwinding

A

topoisomerase

Type I - Swivelase
Type II - Gyrase

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38
Q

[DNA replication]

synthesizes short segments of complementary RNA primers

A

primase

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39
Q

[DNA replication]

elongates DNA strand by adding new deoxyribonucleotide

A

DNA polymerase III

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40
Q

What is the direction of DNA replication?

A

5’ to 3’

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41
Q

[DNA replication]

What proofreads DNA replication?

A

3’ to 5’ exonuclease

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42
Q

[DNA replication]

when another primer is reached, DNA polymerase 1 remove the ribonucleotide using what enzyme

A

5’ to 3’ exonuclease

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43
Q

[DNA replication]

what fills the gap with deoxyribonucleotides after DNA polymerase I removes a primer?

A

DNA polymerase I

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44
Q

[DNA replication]

What seals the nick by catalyzing the formation of last phosphodiester bond requiring hydrolysis of AT:

A

DNA ligase

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45
Q

[DNA polymerase: E. coli]

Gap filling, repair, and recommendation

A

I

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46
Q

[DNA polymerase: E. coli]

DNA proofreading and repair

A

II

47
Q

[DNA polymerase: E. coli]

Processive, leading strand synthesis

A

III

48
Q

[DNA polymerase: E. coli]

primase

A

DnaG

49
Q

[DNA polymerase: Eukaryotes]

DNA repair

A

beta

50
Q

[DNA polymerase: Eukaryotes]

mitochondrial DNA synthesis

A

gamma

51
Q

[DNA polymerase: Eukaryotes]

processive, leading strand synthesis

A

epsilon

52
Q

[DNA polymerase: Eukaryotes]

primase

A

alpha

53
Q

[DNA polymerase: Eukaryotes]

processive, lagging strand synthesis

A

gamma

54
Q

[DNA lesion]

Errors that escaped proofreading

A

mismatch

55
Q

[DNA lesion]

HNPCC (lynch syndrome)

A

Mismatch

56
Q

[DNA lesion]

DNA damage due to exposure to light can be repaired by____

A

nucleotide excision repair

57
Q

[DNA lesion]

xeroderma pigmentosusm is due to what lesion

A

pyrimidine dimers

58
Q

[DNA lesion]

MUTYH-associated polyposis is due to ___

A

base alteration

59
Q

[DNA lesion]

Anti-tumor drugs cause this DNA damage

A

double strand breaks

60
Q

[DNA lesion]

SCID is an example of what DNA error

A

Double strand breaks

61
Q

[Cancer chemotherapy]

Methotrexate prevents the formation of what

A

tetrahydrofolate

62
Q

[Cancer chemotherapy]

contains series of rings that intercalate between DNA base pairs

A

Adriamycin

63
Q

[Cancer chemotherapy]

inhibits topoisomerase

A

etoposide

64
Q

___ synthesis of RNA using DNA as template

A

Transcription

65
Q

What is the enzyme used in transcption?

A

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

66
Q

[What RNA molecule is synthesized by this polymerase]

Pol I

A

rRNA

67
Q

[What RNA molecule is synthesized by this polymerase]

Pol III

A
  1. mRNA
  2. lncRNA
  3. miRNA
  4. snRNA
68
Q

[What RNA molecule is synthesized by this polymerase]

Pol III

A
  1. tRNA

2. 5s rRNA

69
Q

[Transcription]

stimulate transcription rate

A

enhancers

70
Q

[Transcription]

inhbit transcription

A

silencers

71
Q

[Steps in RNA synthesis]

RNA polymerase binds to DNA promoter sequences

A

Iniitaion

72
Q

[Steps in RNA synthesis]

what are the promoter sequences in prokaryotic RNA?

A
  1. -35 sequence (TTGACA)

2. Pribnow box (TATAAT) - 10bp

73
Q

[Steps in RNA synthesis]

What are the promoter sequence in eukaryotes

A
  1. TATA or Hogness box, -25bp

2. CAAT box, -70 to 80 bp

74
Q

[Steps in RNA synthesis]

local unwinding of DNA in elongation continues in what direction

A

5’ to 3’

75
Q

[Steps in RNA synthesis]

In p independent termination, RNA should form

A

hairpin loop

76
Q

[Steps in RNA synthesis]

In p-dependent termination, it requires ___ to release RNA from DNA

A

p protein

77
Q

[Postranslational Modification]

What ribosomes remove introns in an mRNA transcript

A

snRNA

78
Q

[Lactose Operon]

which part of the chromosome encodes beta galactosidase?

A

z gene

79
Q

[Lactose Operon]

which part of the chromosome encodes galactoside permease?

A

Y gene

80
Q

[Lactose Operon]

which part of the chromosome encodes thiogalactoside transacetylase?

A

A gene

81
Q

___ refers to synthesis of proteins in ribosomes using mRNA as template

A

translation

82
Q

[Steps in Translation]

how many codons are there?

A

64

83
Q

What is the initiating codon and its corresponding amino acid in eukaryotes

A

AUG - methionine

84
Q

What is the initiating codon and its corresponding amino acid in eukaryotes

A

AUG - formylmethioninE

85
Q

What are the characteristics of the genetic code?

A
  1. Degenerate
  2. Unambigous
  3. Non-overlapping
  4. Universal
86
Q

[Steps in Translation]

What is the site of the incoming aminoacyl-tRNA?

A

A-site

87
Q

[Steps in Translation]

what occupies the P site of the ribosome?

A

peptidyl-tRNA

88
Q

[Steps in Translation]

The first aminoacyl-tRNA (methionine) binds to which part of the ribosome?

A

P site

89
Q

[Steps in Translation]

What enzyme catalyzes the elongation of protein sequence?

A

peptidyltransferase

90
Q

[Keypoints in Translation]

accurate base pairing is required only in how many base nucleotides to say that translation can be okay

A

First 2

91
Q

[Keypoints in Translation]

tRNA aminoacylation requires what type of energy source?

(ATP/GTP)

A

ATP

92
Q

[Keypoints in Translation]

loading of tRNA onto ribosimes require what type of energy?

(ATP/GTP)

A

GTP

93
Q

[Keypoints in Translation]

Translocation requires what type of energy?

(ATP/GTP)

A

GTP

94
Q

[Clinical correlates]

Amanita mushroom poisoning inhibits what ____

A

RNA polymerase II

95
Q

[Clinical correlates]

exotoxin of corynebacterium diphteriae inactivates what factor preventing translocation?

A

EF 2

96
Q

[Pharma]

binds to the bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase (anti TB)

A

Rifampicin

97
Q

[Pharma]

binds to the DNA template, interferes with the movement of RNA polymerase during transcription

A

Dactinomycin

98
Q

[Pharma]

binds to 30s subunit

A
  1. Streptomycin

2. Aminoglycoside

99
Q

[Pharma]

prevents binding of aminoacyt-tRNA to the A site

A

tetracycline

100
Q

[Pharma]

inhibit prokaryotic peptidyltransferase

A

chloramphenical

101
Q

[Pharma]

inhibit eukaryotic peptidyltransferase

A

cycloheximide

102
Q

[Pharma]

binds to 50s subunit, inhibits translocation

A

clindamycin and macrolides

103
Q

[Mutation]

purine to purine OR
Pyrimidine to pyrimidine changes

A

Transition

point mutation

104
Q

[Mutation]

purine to pyrimidine OR
pyrimidine to purine

A

Transversion

point mutation

105
Q

[Mutation]

new codon codes for same amino acid; no effect on protein

A

Silen mutation

106
Q

[Mutation]

new codon codes for different amino acid

A

missense mutation

107
Q

[Mutation]

new codon is a stop codon

A

nonsense mutation

108
Q

[Mutation]

deletion or addition of bases that should not be multiples of 3

A

frameshift mutation

109
Q

[Mutation]

large areas of chromosomes during unequal crossover in meiosis; loss of function, shorter than normal or entirely missing

A

large segment deletion

110
Q

[Mutation]

splice site is lost; adding or deletion of few amino acids OR deletion of an entire exon

A

splice donor or acceptor

111
Q

[Mutation]

expansion in coding regions cause protein product to be longer than normal and unstable; anticipation in pedigree

A

triple repeat expansion

112
Q

[Mutation]

huntington disease

A

CAG

113
Q

[Mutation]

Fragile X

A

fraGile X

CGG

114
Q

[Mutation]

myotonic dystrophy

A

CTG repeats