Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

What are the steps in the central dogma?

A
  1. Replication
  2. Transcription
  3. Translation
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2
Q

____ is a polymer consisting of deoxyribonucleoside monophosphate covalently linked by ____

A

3’-5’ phosphodiester bone

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3
Q

Histones has a high content of what amino acid?

A

arginine and lysine

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4
Q

What are your pyrimidine bases?

A

Uracil
Thymine
Cytosine

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5
Q

What are your your purine bases?

A

Adenine

Guanine

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6
Q

What is the DNA base pair of adenine?

A

Adenine-Guanine

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7
Q

What is the DNA base pair of cytosine?

A

Cytosine-Guanine

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8
Q

___ are highly repetitive sequences of TG

A

telomeres

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9
Q

[Structural forms of DNA]

Right handed
11 base pairs per turn

A

A DNA

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10
Q

[Structural forms of DNA]

Right handed
10 residues per turn

A

B DNA

AB = right
A = 11bp/turn
B = 10bp/turn
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11
Q

[Structural forms of DNA]

left handed
12 base pairs per turn

A

Z DNA

Z = left 12

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12
Q

Base pairing with 3 hydrogen bonds

A

GC

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13
Q

Base pairing with 2 hydrogen bonds

A

AT

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14
Q

[DNA/RNA]

Chargaff Rule applies

A

DNA

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15
Q

In RNA, the bond is linked together by ____

A

3’-5’ Phosphodiester bond

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16
Q

What are the purine components of RNA?

A

Adenine

Guanine

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17
Q

What are the pyrimidine components of RNA?

A

Cytosine

Uracil

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18
Q

RNA can be easily hydrolyzed by alkali to ____

A

2’ to3’ cyclic diesters of the mononucletides

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19
Q

What is the RNA cap at the 5’ end?

A

methylguanosine

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20
Q

What is the sequence at the 3’ end to of the RNA

A

Poly A tail

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21
Q

[Guess the RNA]

contribute to the formation and function of ribosomes

A

rRNA

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22
Q

What are the sedimentation coefficients of the ribosomes of the prokaryotes?

A

50S

30S

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23
Q

What are the sedimentation coefficients of eukaryotes?

A

60S

40S

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24
Q

The specific sedimentation coefficient of the ribosomes of a eukaryote is ___

A
  1. 18S
  2. 28S
  3. 5S
  4. 5.8S
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25
The specific sedimentation coefficient of the ribosomes of a prokaryote is ___
1. 16S 2. 23S 3. 5S
26
[Guess the RNA] ___ adapter molecule that translate the nucleotide sequence of mRNA into specific amino acids
tRNA
27
The tRNA is composed of how many nucleotides?
74 to 95
28
In tRNA, which part of the structure terminates in the nucleotides -CCA
acceptor arm
29
[Guess the RNA] involved in rRNA and mRNA processing and gene regulation
snRNA
30
[Guess the RNA] involved in removal of introns
snRNA
31
[Guess the RNA] small, noncoding regulatory RNA
miRNA
32
[Guess the RNA] small non coding RNA that in inhibit gene expression
siRNA
33
[Guess the RNA] long noncoding regulatory RNA
lncRNA
34
DNA replication occurs in what phase of the cell cycle?
S phase
35
[DNA replication] unwinds the double helix
helicase
36
[DNA replication] what maintains the separation of the parent strand?
single-stranded DNA binding proteins
37
[DNA replication] what relieves the torsional strain that results from helicase-induced unwinding
topoisomerase Type I - Swivelase Type II - Gyrase
38
[DNA replication] synthesizes short segments of complementary RNA primers
primase
39
[DNA replication] elongates DNA strand by adding new deoxyribonucleotide
DNA polymerase III
40
What is the direction of DNA replication?
5' to 3'
41
[DNA replication] What proofreads DNA replication?
3' to 5' exonuclease
42
[DNA replication] when another primer is reached, DNA polymerase 1 remove the ribonucleotide using what enzyme
5' to 3' exonuclease
43
[DNA replication] what fills the gap with deoxyribonucleotides after DNA polymerase I removes a primer?
DNA polymerase I
44
[DNA replication] What seals the nick by catalyzing the formation of last phosphodiester bond requiring hydrolysis of AT:
DNA ligase
45
[DNA polymerase: E. coli] Gap filling, repair, and recommendation
I
46
[DNA polymerase: E. coli] DNA proofreading and repair
II
47
[DNA polymerase: E. coli] Processive, leading strand synthesis
III
48
[DNA polymerase: E. coli] primase
DnaG
49
[DNA polymerase: Eukaryotes] DNA repair
beta
50
[DNA polymerase: Eukaryotes] mitochondrial DNA synthesis
gamma
51
[DNA polymerase: Eukaryotes] processive, leading strand synthesis
epsilon
52
[DNA polymerase: Eukaryotes] primase
alpha
53
[DNA polymerase: Eukaryotes] processive, lagging strand synthesis
gamma
54
[DNA lesion] Errors that escaped proofreading
mismatch
55
[DNA lesion] HNPCC (lynch syndrome)
Mismatch
56
[DNA lesion] DNA damage due to exposure to light can be repaired by____
nucleotide excision repair
57
[DNA lesion] xeroderma pigmentosusm is due to what lesion
pyrimidine dimers
58
[DNA lesion] MUTYH-associated polyposis is due to ___
base alteration
59
[DNA lesion] Anti-tumor drugs cause this DNA damage
double strand breaks
60
[DNA lesion] SCID is an example of what DNA error
Double strand breaks
61
[Cancer chemotherapy] Methotrexate prevents the formation of what
tetrahydrofolate
62
[Cancer chemotherapy] contains series of rings that intercalate between DNA base pairs
Adriamycin
63
[Cancer chemotherapy] inhibits topoisomerase
etoposide
64
___ synthesis of RNA using DNA as template
Transcription
65
What is the enzyme used in transcption?
DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
66
[What RNA molecule is synthesized by this polymerase] Pol I
rRNA
67
[What RNA molecule is synthesized by this polymerase] Pol III
1. mRNA 2. lncRNA 3. miRNA 4. snRNA
68
[What RNA molecule is synthesized by this polymerase] Pol III
1. tRNA | 2. 5s rRNA
69
[Transcription] stimulate transcription rate
enhancers
70
[Transcription] inhbit transcription
silencers
71
[Steps in RNA synthesis] RNA polymerase binds to DNA promoter sequences
Iniitaion
72
[Steps in RNA synthesis] what are the promoter sequences in prokaryotic RNA?
1. -35 sequence (TTGACA) | 2. Pribnow box (TATAAT) - 10bp
73
[Steps in RNA synthesis] What are the promoter sequence in eukaryotes
1. TATA or Hogness box, -25bp | 2. CAAT box, -70 to 80 bp
74
[Steps in RNA synthesis] local unwinding of DNA in elongation continues in what direction
5' to 3'
75
[Steps in RNA synthesis] In p independent termination, RNA should form
hairpin loop
76
[Steps in RNA synthesis] In p-dependent termination, it requires ___ to release RNA from DNA
p protein
77
[Postranslational Modification] What ribosomes remove introns in an mRNA transcript
snRNA
78
[Lactose Operon] which part of the chromosome encodes beta galactosidase?
z gene
79
[Lactose Operon] which part of the chromosome encodes galactoside permease?
Y gene
80
[Lactose Operon] which part of the chromosome encodes thiogalactoside transacetylase?
A gene
81
___ refers to synthesis of proteins in ribosomes using mRNA as template
translation
82
[Steps in Translation] how many codons are there?
64
83
What is the initiating codon and its corresponding amino acid in eukaryotes
AUG - methionine
84
What is the initiating codon and its corresponding amino acid in eukaryotes
AUG - formylmethioninE
85
What are the characteristics of the genetic code?
1. Degenerate 2. Unambigous 3. Non-overlapping 4. Universal
86
[Steps in Translation] What is the site of the incoming aminoacyl-tRNA?
A-site
87
[Steps in Translation] what occupies the P site of the ribosome?
peptidyl-tRNA
88
[Steps in Translation] The first aminoacyl-tRNA (methionine) binds to which part of the ribosome?
P site
89
[Steps in Translation] What enzyme catalyzes the elongation of protein sequence?
peptidyltransferase
90
[Keypoints in Translation] accurate base pairing is required only in how many base nucleotides to say that translation can be okay
First 2
91
[Keypoints in Translation] tRNA aminoacylation requires what type of energy source? (ATP/GTP)
ATP
92
[Keypoints in Translation] loading of tRNA onto ribosimes require what type of energy? (ATP/GTP)
GTP
93
[Keypoints in Translation] Translocation requires what type of energy? (ATP/GTP)
GTP
94
[Clinical correlates] Amanita mushroom poisoning inhibits what ____
RNA polymerase II
95
[Clinical correlates] exotoxin of corynebacterium diphteriae inactivates what factor preventing translocation?
EF 2
96
[Pharma] binds to the bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase (anti TB)
Rifampicin
97
[Pharma] binds to the DNA template, interferes with the movement of RNA polymerase during transcription
Dactinomycin
98
[Pharma] binds to 30s subunit
1. Streptomycin | 2. Aminoglycoside
99
[Pharma] prevents binding of aminoacyt-tRNA to the A site
tetracycline
100
[Pharma] inhibit prokaryotic peptidyltransferase
chloramphenical
101
[Pharma] inhibit eukaryotic peptidyltransferase
cycloheximide
102
[Pharma] binds to 50s subunit, inhibits translocation
clindamycin and macrolides
103
[Mutation] purine to purine OR Pyrimidine to pyrimidine changes
Transition | point mutation
104
[Mutation] purine to pyrimidine OR pyrimidine to purine
Transversion | point mutation
105
[Mutation] new codon codes for same amino acid; no effect on protein
Silen mutation
106
[Mutation] new codon codes for different amino acid
missense mutation
107
[Mutation] new codon is a stop codon
nonsense mutation
108
[Mutation] deletion or addition of bases that should not be multiples of 3
frameshift mutation
109
[Mutation] large areas of chromosomes during unequal crossover in meiosis; loss of function, shorter than normal or entirely missing
large segment deletion
110
[Mutation] splice site is lost; adding or deletion of few amino acids OR deletion of an entire exon
splice donor or acceptor
111
[Mutation] expansion in coding regions cause protein product to be longer than normal and unstable; anticipation in pedigree
triple repeat expansion
112
[Mutation] huntington disease
CAG
113
[Mutation] Fragile X
fraGile X | CGG
114
[Mutation] myotonic dystrophy
CTG repeats