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URO 2 > formative > Flashcards

formative Flashcards

1
Q

Which organism is commensal in the bull but causes pregnancy loss in the cow?

A

Campylobacter fetus

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2
Q

The binding of spermatozoa to the oocyte stimulates the completion of which process?

A

meiosis 2

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3
Q

During the first stage of parturition in the mare, the hormone ……… softens the ligaments in the pelvic region widening the birth
canal

A

relaxin

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4
Q

the california mastitis tests reactis with ……… cells in the milk sample

A

WBC OR immune OR epithelial OR somatic

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5
Q

In the developing male reproductive tract, the main endocrine factor causing regression of the paramesonephric ducts is ………. produced by the Sertoli cells.

A

anti mullerian hormone

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6
Q

This factor is responsible for de-feminisation of the brain during fetal development.

A

oestradiol

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7
Q

This factor is responsible for sex determination in mammals.

A

SRY gene

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8
Q

This factor will prevent a sex steroid from crossing the blood brain barrier.

A

alpha foetoprotein

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9
Q

Which steriodogenic cells are recruited during the formation of secondary follicles?

A

theca

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10
Q

Which cell type produces oestradiol in response to follicle stimulating hormone stimulation?

A

granulosa

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11
Q

Which cell type is found in the testes and responds to luteinising hormone to produce testosterone?

A

leydig

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12
Q

Oxytocin receptors are up-regulated in which cell type as part of the initiation of the luteolytic mechanism?

A

luminal epithelial (epithelial cells of the endometrium)

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13
Q

Within this schematic picture, which structure best represents the position of the bulbo-urethral glands?

A

E

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14
Q

Which of the terms below best describes the embryonic developmental stage in the this image?

A

OOtid

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15
Q

Which species is depicted in this anatomical photograph of the female reproductive tract?

A

Sow

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16
Q

During spermatogenesis, which ONE of the following correctly describes the formation of spermatids?

A

After the 2nd meiotic division, following differentiation of secondary spermatocytes.

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17
Q

Which ONE of the following descriptions best describes the type of placenta of the queen?

A

Endotheliochorial, zonary, deciduate.

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18
Q

Which ONE of the following time periods best describes when the majority of pregnancy loss occurs in domestic species?

A

Between fertilisation and the maternal recognition of pregnancy.

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19
Q

Between fertilisation and the maternal recognition of pregnancy.

A

200-250 ml.

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following describes the action of interferon tau during maternal recognition of pregnancy in sheep?
A

Suppresses endometrial oxytocin receptor expression

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21
Q

During the milk ejection reflex, oxytocin acts on which cells?

A

Alveolar myoepithelial cells.

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22
Q

Which parameter is increased when a dairy cow is in negative energy balance?

A

Non esterified fatty acids.

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23
Q

Which ONE of the following statements about avian reproductive endocrinology is CORRECT?

A

The ovulatory LH surge can only occur if progesterone is high enough during the open period.

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24
Q

What would be the effect of administering GnRH to a cow in the immediate post-ovulatory period (day 1-2 of the cycle)?

A

Stimulate the emergence of the new follicular wave (through FSH) but no ovulation.

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25
Q

Which ONE of the following hormones is critical for the pig blastocyst to secrete in order to establish pregnancy?

A

Oestradiol

26
Q

Which ONE of the following statements describing a transgenic animal is CORRECT?

A

An animal carrying genetic material from a different species.

27
Q

Which ONE of the following statments describing early folliculogenesis is CORRECT?

A

Preantral follicle development takes several months.

28
Q

On the following image of the bull reproductive tract, the arrow points to which ONE of the following?

A

ampulla

29
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes resumption of ovarian activity following parturition in suckler beef cows?
A

The duration of the postpartum aoestrus is strongly influenced by the presence of the calf
The suckling calf suppresses the reproductive axis but many other factors contribute to the postpartum anœstrus

30
Q

Which fetal membrane should normally be present at the vulva during parturition in the cow?

A

amnion
The fluid filled amnion should appear at the vulva after rupture of the chorioallantois

31
Q

In most species, the time to be born is determined by which ONE of the following?

A

the fetus (fetal cortsiol)

32
Q

With respect to the Angiotensin II, which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A

Release of Angiotensin II elicits peripheral vascular vasoconstriction and aldosterone release.

33
Q
A

1= renal vein
2= ureter

34
Q

The following is a photomicrograph which represents a cross-section of the renal cortex from the cat

A

1 = distal convoluted tubule
2= fat vaculoe
3 = macula densa
4 = proximal convoluted tubule
5= urinary space

35
Q

What percentage of body weight must be lost as water before clinical signs become apparent?

A

5%

36
Q

Which of the following factors greatly increases the reaction between carbon dioxide and water within the nephron?

A

The enzyme carbonic anhydrase.

37
Q

Regarding the glomerular filtrate that enters Bowman’s capsule, which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

A

It is essentially a protein-free plasma.

38
Q

Which of the following classes of diuretics must be administered intravenously?

A

osmotic diuretics

39
Q

Which one of the following terms best represents the anatomical structure indicated by the black arrow in this ventro-dorsal radiograph of a dog undergoing
an intravenous excretory urogram?

A

renal pelvic recess

40
Q

Intra renal blood flow is protected in the face of low blood pressure by which one of the following tubuloglomerular feedback mechanisms?

A

A decrease in the delivery of NaCl to the macula densa leads to vasodilatation of the afferent arteriole.

41
Q

Which of the following statements regarding antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is CORRECT?

A

ADH is released in response to changes in osmolarity and circulating volume.

42
Q

Acidification of urine in the proximal tubules of the kidney is mainly due to which of the following mechanisms?

A

A sodium/hydrogen antiporter in the luminal membrane.

43
Q

Which of the following is a property of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)?

A

ANP is released from the cardiac atria when the ECF volume is increased.

44
Q

Which of the following classes of diuretic drugs inhibits the luminal renal tubular Na+/K+/Cl- carrier?

A

Loop diuretics.

45
Q

Damage to the rostral spinal cord will generate an ‘Upper Motor Neurone Bladder’. What is this clinically seen as?

A

High volume urine retention with enhanced sphincter tone.

46
Q

What diet would be suitable for a cat with renal failure?

A

Low sodium, low phosphorus, low protein.

47
Q

You are presented with a male entire, 9 month old, golden retriever. You notice urine staining around the prepuce. The owner reports that the dog is drinking
normal quantities and is dripping small quantities of urine. A urine specific gravity test measures 1.020.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

ectopic ureter

48
Q

Delilah is a 9 year old, female neutered domestic shorthair cat who is presented to your clinic for
vaccination. You see her regularly for vaccines and flea and worm treatment and she is usually healthy
with no problems reported by her owner.
Today she has lost weight, weighing 3.1kg with a body condition score (BCS) 2/9 compared to 6 months
ago when she was 3.8kg with a BCS 4/9. Her owner reports she seems to be very hungry and is
drinking a lot more than normal, including out of the sink and bathtub!
When you examine Delilah, she appears clinically well, heart rate 190bpm and regular, pale pink gums
with capillary refill time (CRT) of 2 seconds. Her gums are very slightly tacky and she has a mild skin
tent present.
List the three most likely causes of PUPD in Delilah and for each explain the method by which PUPD is
caused.

A

Renal insufficiency, chronic renal disease, chronic kidney disease (1) – any of: impaired
countercurrent mechanism, loss of medullary hypertonicity, osmotic diuresis, secondary
nephrongenic diabetes insipidus (1)
Diabetes Mellitus (1) – osmotic diuresis (1)
Hyperthyroidism (1) - loss of medullary hypertonicity or Psychogenic polydipsia (1)

49
Q

Delilah is a 9 year old, female neutered domestic shorthair cat who is presented to your clinic for
vaccination. You see her regularly for vaccines and flea and worm treatment and she is usually healthy
with no problems reported by her owner.
Today she has lost weight, weighing 3.1kg with a body condition score (BCS) 2/9 compared to 6 months
ago when she was 3.8kg with a BCS 4/9. Her owner reports she seems to be very hungry and is
drinking a lot more than normal, including out of the sink and bathtub!
When you examine Delilah, she appears clinically well, heart rate 190bpm and regular, pale pink gums
with capillary refill time (CRT) of 2 seconds. Her gums are very slightly tacky and she has a mild skin
tent present.
Based on her clinical examination findings, assess and comment on her hydration status

A

Mildly dehydrated (1)
Approximately 5-8% (or any variation therein) (1)

50
Q

List three ways to obtain a urine sample from Delilah, with a benefit of each.

A

Free-catch – easy, cheap (1)
Floor collection – easy, cheap, not stressful (1)
Cystocentesis – sterile (1)

51
Q

What is the most appropriate imaging method to assess the soft tissue architecture of the kidneys and
bladder in general practice?

A

ultrasound

52
Q

Assess Delilah’s renal function using the blood and urine results.

A

Likely normal/good renal function (1)
Due to:
-
Normal urea and creatinine; no azotaemia (1)
-
Normal electrolytes (1)
-
No protein in urine, UP:C normal (1)
Appreciation that urine is subobtimally concentrated at 1.016 (approaching isosthenuric) (1)
-
May be an indicator of reduced renal function (1)
-
Likely just due to osmotic diuresis due to glucosuria (1)

53
Q

List the indicators on urine dipstick which are NOT reliable in animals.

A

USG, specific gravity
Nitrites
Leucocytes
Urobilinogen

54
Q
A

A= prostate
B= tail of epididymis

55
Q

A client has bought their Newfoundland bitch, Mull, to your practice to determine the optimum time for a
single mating to take place. You measure progesterone concentrations.
How can this be used to indicate that the bitch will soon ovulate and explain the underlying biology of
this?

A

A slight increase in progesterone [1 mark] that occur as a result of the pre-luteinisation of the ovulatory
follicle that occurs just prior to ovulation [1 mark]

56
Q

Explain the changes in progesterone concentrations that occur during gestation.

A

Plasma progesterone concentaration increas for the first 25 days due to the primary CL secrete
increasing amounts of progesterone [1 mark]
on ~ day 35 the endometrial cups form and start to secrete equine chorionic gonadorrophin (ECG) [1
mark]
This will stimulate increased progesterone from the primary CL and the formation of the seconday CL [1
mark]
After the endometrial cups regress (~d140) ECG levels will decrease and consequently so fo
progesterone concentrations [1 mark]
For the remainder of pregnancy local progestogens are produced by the placenta [1 mark]
Award marks as stated to a maximum of 4 marks in total

57
Q
A

The placenta associated with aborted lambs are necrotic [1 mark]
Have thickened areas bewtween the cotyledons [1 mark]
and a brownish exudate over the surface [1 mark]

58
Q
A

Presentation = cranial longitudinal [1 mark]
Position = ventral [1 mark]
Posture = head normal [1 mark] left forelimbs flexed caudally at carpus [1 mark]

59
Q
A

Luteal phase/dioestrus [1 mark]
because the right ovary has a CL and this is the dominant structure [1 mark]

60
Q

Describe the effect of administering a pharmacological dose of the following hormones to a cow.
a) GnRH to a cow in the follicular phase with a dominant follicle present and a regressing CL. [2 marks]
b) PGF2a to a cow in the early luteal phase. [2 marks]

A

a) GnRH will induce a LH surge causing the DSF to ovulate [1 mark] and the formation of a primary CL
within 2 days [1 mark] NO MARKS GIVE FOR OESTRUS.
b) There will be no effect [1 mark] as there are no PGF recetors present in the CL to act on [1 mark]

URO 2 (107 decks)

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