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A&P 2 > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

what is an endocrine gland?

A

a gland that secretes a hormone or hormones directly into the bloodstream to influence the functions of distant target cells

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2
Q

what is an exocrine gland?

A

a gland that secretes a product through a duct to the external surface of the body or into the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and/or genitourinary tract

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3
Q

what is tropin?

A

a hormone that induces the secretion of other hormones

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4
Q

Thyrotopin-releasing hormone:
- abbrevation
- source
- target
- primary effects

A
  • TRH
  • hypothalamus
  • anterior pituitary
  • stimulates the release of TSH
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5
Q

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
- abbrevation
- source
- target
- primary effects

A
  • GnRH
  • hypothalamus
  • anterior pituitary
  • stimulates the release of LH & FSH
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6
Q

Growth hormone-releasing hormone
- abbrevation
- source
- target
- primary effects

A
  • GHRH
  • hypothalamus
  • anterior pituitary
  • stimulates the release of GH
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7
Q

Follicle-stimulating hormone
- abbrevation
- source
- target
- primary effects

A
  • FSH
  • anterior pituitary
  • male gonades, female gonads
  • production of factors that bind and concentrate testosteone; production of estrogens, maturation of ovarian follicles
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8
Q

Luteinizing hormone
- abbrevation
- source
- target
- primary effects

A
  • LH
  • anterior pituitary
  • male gonads, female gonads
  • male: development of gonads, testosterone production
  • female: development of gonads, production of estrogen and progesterone, ovulation
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9
Q

thyroid-stimulating hormone
- abbrevation
- source
- target
- primary effects

A
  • TSH
  • anterior pituitary
  • thyroid gland
  • growth and development of the thyroid gland; synthesis of thyroid hormones
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10
Q

adrenocorticotopic hormone
- abbrevation
- source
- target
- primary effects

A
  • ACTH
  • anterior pituitary
  • adrenal cortex
  • growth and developement of adrenal cortices; release of adrenal steroids and catecholamines
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11
Q

prolactin
- source
- target
- primary effects

A
  • anterior pituitary
  • mammary gland
  • development of mammary glands; milk production
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12
Q

growth hormone
- abbrevation
- source
- target
- primary effects

A
  • GH
  • anterior pituitary
  • liver, adipose tissue, bone, muscle, cartilage
  • gluconeogenesis, lipolysis, protein breakdown, production of IGF
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13
Q

antidiuretic hormone
- abbrevation
- source
- target
- primary effects

A
  • ADH
  • posterior pituitary
  • kidneys & brain
  • water reabsorption from the kidney tubules; increases blood volume
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14
Q

oxytocin
- source
- target
- primary effects

A
  • posterior pituitary
  • uterus & mammary gland
  • uterine contractions; milk let-down reflex
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15
Q

melatonin
- source
- target
- primary effects

A
  • pineal gland
  • reticular formation of the brainstem
  • regulates thee sleep/wake cycle, promotes sleep
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16
Q

thyroid hormone
- abbrevation
- source
- target
- primary effects

A
  • T3 & T4
  • thyroid gland (follicle cells)
  • nearly every cell in the body
  • ser the basal metabolic rate, thermoregulation, growth and development, synergism with the SNS
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17
Q

calcitonin
- source
- target
- primary effects

A
  • thyroid gland (parafollciular cells)
  • osteoclasts
  • inhibits osteoclasts activity under certain conditions, which transientyly decreases the blood calcium ion concentration
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18
Q

parathyroid horome
- abbrevation
- source
- target
- primary effects

A
  • PTH
  • parathyroid gland (chief cells)
  • bone, kidney, intestines
  • increases calcium ion reabsorption form the fluid in the kidneys, increase calcium ion absoprtion from the contents of the small intestine, indirectly increases osteoclast activity, all effects lead to an increase in blood calcium ion concentration
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19
Q

aldosterone (mineralcorticoids)
- source
- target
- primary effects

A
  • adrennal gland
  • tubules of the kidenys
  • increases sodium ion retention directly and water retention indirectly, increase potassium ion loss in the urine, increases hydrogen ion loss in the urine, regulates blood pressure
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20
Q

cortisol (glucocorticoids)
- source
- target
- primary effects

A
  • adrenal gland
  • liver, muscle, adipose, white blood cells
  • increase gluconeogenesis in the liver, increases protein breakdown in muscle, increases lpolysis in adipose tissue, inhibits the inflammatory repsonse
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21
Q

what causes type 1 diabetes mellitus?

A

the destruction of the insulin-producing beta cells of the pancreas by the immune system

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22
Q

what causes type 2 diabetes mellitus?

A
  • heredity & obesity
  • generally beta cells are still capable of producing insulin but these beta cells do not respond to normal increases to blood glucose, other target cells are less responsibe to insulin (insulin resistant)
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23
Q

what cell secrete insulin?

A

beta cells

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24
Q

what cells secrete glucagon?

A

alpha cells

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25
Q

glucagon
- source
- target
- primary effect

A
  • pancreas
  • most cells, including those of the liver, skeletal and cardiac muscle, and adipocytes
  • stimulate glucose uptake by most target cells, glycogenesis, adn lipogenesis
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26
Q

estradiol
- source
- target
- primary effects

A
  • ovaries
  • female reproductive organs
  • development of female secondary sex characteristics, regulate the menstrual cycle
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27
Q

progesterone
- source
- target
- primary effects

A
  • ovaries
  • multuple other target tissues
  • prepare the body for pregnancy, support fetal development
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28
Q

inhibin
- source
- target
- primary effects

A
  • gransulosa cells
  • ovaries
  • inhibits FSH secretion
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29
Q

testosteron
- source
- target
- primary effects

A
  • testes
  • male reproductive organs, multipleother target tissues
  • androgenic & anabolic effects
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30
Q

inhibin
- source
- target
- primary effects

A
  • sertoli cells
  • testes
  • inhibits FSH secretion
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31
Q

erythropoietin
- source
- target
- primary effects

A
  • kidneys
  • red bone marrow
  • increases rate at which erythrocytes are formed
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32
Q

atrial natriuretic peptide
- abbrevation
- source
- target
- primary effects

A
  • ANP
  • heart
  • smooth muscle cells in blood vessel walls, kidney tubules
  • relaxes smooth muscle cells in blood vessel, causing vasoconstriction; promotoes natriuresis and fluid loss in the kidneys, decreasing blood volume; lowers blood pressure as a result of above effects
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33
Q

describe the pulmonary circuit

A

arteries carry deoxygenated blood and veins transport oxygenated blood

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34
Q

descirbe the systemic circuit

A

arteries carry oxygenated blood and veins transport deoxygenated blood

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35
Q

what are the two AV valves?

A
  • right AV valve or tricupsid
  • left AV valve or bicupsid/mitral
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36
Q

where is the tricupsid valve located?

A

between the right atrium and the right ventricle

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37
Q

where is the bicupsid/mitral valve located?

A

between the left atrium & the left ventricle

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38
Q

what are the two SL valves?

A
  • pulmonary valve
  • aortic valve
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39
Q

where is the pulmonary valve located?

A

betwwen the right ventricle & the pulonary trunk

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40
Q

where is the aortic valve located?

A

between the left ventricle & the aorta

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41
Q

when does S1 occur?

A

during closing of AV valves

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42
Q

when does S2 occur?

A

during the closing of SL valves

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43
Q

what do intercalated discs do?

A

join adjacent cardiac muscle cell; join pacemaker cells to contractile cells, and contractile cell to one another

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44
Q

what occurs at the P wave?

A

atrial depolarization

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45
Q

what occurs at the QRS complex?

A

ventricular depolarization

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46
Q

what occurs at the T wave?

A

ventricular repolarization

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47
Q

what is atrial systole?

A
  • when the atrial side of the heart is contracting
  • occurs durign ventricular filling
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48
Q

what is ventricular systole?

A
  • when the ventral side of the heart is contracting
  • occurs during isovolumetric contraction & ventricular ejection
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49
Q

what is diastole?

A
  • a period of relaxation
  • atrial occurs during isovolumetric contraction & ventricular ejection
  • ventiruclar occurs uring isovolumetric relaxation
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50
Q

what is caridac output?

A

the amount of blood pumped into th epulmonary and system circuits in one minute

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51
Q

what is stroke volume?

A

the amount of blood pumped in one heartbeat

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52
Q

what is ESV?

A

the amount of blood that remains in the ventricle

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53
Q

when does ESV occur?

A

isovolumetric relaxation phase

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54
Q

what is EDV?

A

ventricular volume at the end of ventricular diastole

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55
Q

when does EDV occur?

A

isovolumetric contraction phase

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56
Q

what are the three layers of the blood vessels walls?

A
  • tunica externa
  • tunica media (smooth muscule)
  • tunica intima (endothelium)
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57
Q

what are the three types of arteries?

A
  • elastic arteries
  • muscular arteries
  • arterioles
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58
Q

what is a key feature of elastic arteries?

A

they recoil because they have internal and external elastic lamina on either side of tunica media

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59
Q

what do precapillary sphincters do?

A

control the amount of blood flow into the capillaries

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60
Q

what are the three types of capillaries?

A
  • continuous
  • fenestrated
  • sinusoid
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61
Q

what is special about continuoud capillaries?

A

they have tight junctions

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62
Q

what is special about fenestrated capillaries?

A

they have fenestrations

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63
Q

what is special about sinusoid capillaries?

A

they have irregular lamina and contain large pores and spaces between endothelial cells

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64
Q

what do veins do?

A

carry blood towards the heart

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65
Q

what are dural sinuses?

A

the set of venous channels that are located between two layers of dura mater and drain the cerbral veins

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66
Q

what is the hepatic portal system?

A

allows the liver to have “first dibs” on this venous blood and hte nutrients and chemicals it contains

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67
Q

what are the three types of anastomosis?

A
  • arterial anastomosis
  • venous anastomosis
  • arteriovenous anastomosis (shunt)
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68
Q

what is perfusion?

A

blood flow per area of tissue

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69
Q

where is blood flow the fastest? where is it the slowest?

A

fastest - arteries
slowest - capillaries
increases in veins but still slower then arteries

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70
Q

what is systolic blood pressure?

A

the blood pressure in the arteries when the ventricles are in systole

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71
Q

what is diastolic blood pressure?

A

the blood pressure in the arteries when the ventricles are in diastole

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72
Q

what is hypertension?

A

high blood pressure; systolic pressure of 140 mmHg or higher and/or a diastolic pressure of 90 mmHg or higher

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73
Q

what is hypotension?

A

low blood pressure; systolic pressure lower than 90 mmHg and/or a diastolic pressure lower than 60 mmHg

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74
Q

what is pressure the highest? lowest?

A
  • highest: arteries
  • lowest: veins
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75
Q

what determines blood pressure?

A
  • cardiac output
  • blood volume
  • resistance
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76
Q

what is peripheral resistance?

A

any impedance to blood flow found in the periphery of the vasculature

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77
Q

what is viscosity?

A

the thickness of a liquid; the resistance that all liquids have to flow

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78
Q

how does vessel length effect peripheral resistance?

A

the longer the blood vessel, the greater the resistance

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79
Q

how does the vessel radius effect peripheral resistance?

A

vessel radire increases (vessel dilates), the resistance to blood flow decreases

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80
Q

what is vasoconstriction?

A

the narrowing of a blood vessel due to contraction of vascular smooth muscle

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81
Q

what is vasodilation?

A

the opening of a blood vessel due to relaxation of vascular smooth muscle

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82
Q

what effects does the sympathetic nervous system have?

A
  • causes an increase in heart rate and contracility, which increases cardiac output
  • causes vasoconstriction of all types of vessels, but especially arterioles, which increases peripheral resistance
  • total effect: increase in blood pressure
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83
Q

what effects does the parasympathetic nervous system have?

A
  • slows the heart rate and has a mild effect on contractility
  • decreases cardiac output and blood pressure
  • vasodilation & decrease peripheral resistance
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84
Q

what is renin?

A

a precursor for angiotensin II

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85
Q

what is angiotensin II?

A

very powerful vasoconstrictor that sharply increases peripheral resistance and blood pressure

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86
Q

what is aldosterone?

A

causes the retention of sodium ions and water from the kidneys, increasing blood volume

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87
Q

what is ADH?

A
  • triggers thirst and increases the amount of water retained by the kidneys
  • raises blood volume and blood pressure
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88
Q

what is ANP?

A
  • produced by the atria in response to increased blood volume
  • causes vasodilation, especially of the vessels supplying the kidney
  • causes: mild decrease in peripheral resistance and blood pressure
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89
Q

what happens in filtration?

A

blood hydrostatic pressure drives fluid out of the capillary

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90
Q

what happens in reabsorption?

A
  • blood collois osmotic pressure pulls fluid into the capillary
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91
Q

what composes plasma?

A

matrix of blood; contains plasma proteins *albumins, globulins, fibrinogen), nutrietns, dissolved gases and electrolytes

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92
Q

what is hemotocrit?

A

the percenage of blood that is RBCs

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93
Q

what stimualtes erythropoiesis?

A

low oxygen levels or erythropoietin release

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94
Q

what is known as the graveyarf for RBCs?

A

the spleen

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95
Q

what are the four blood types?

A
  • type A
  • type B
  • type AB
  • type O
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96
Q

what are the three types of granulocytes?

A
  • neutrophils
  • esoinophils
  • basophils
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97
Q

what do neutrophils do?

A

phagocytosis of bacteria

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98
Q

what do eosinophils do?

A

increased in allergies

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99
Q

what do basophils do?

A

release inflammatory mediators

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100
Q

what are the two types of agranulocytes?

A
  • lymphocytes
  • monocytes
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101
Q

what is leukopoiesis?

A

production of WBCs

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102
Q

what is thrombopoiesis?

A

platelet production

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103
Q

what are the steps to hemostasis?

A
  • vascular spasm
  • platelet plug formation
  • coagulation
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104
Q

what occurs in vascular spasm?

A
  • occurs when a blood vessel in injured and blood leaks into the ECF, two immediate responses occur:
  • vasoconstriction & increased tissue pessure
  • both decrease the blood vessel diamete which decreases blood pressure & blood flow, minimizing blood loss from the injured vessel
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105
Q

what is a platelet plug?

A

a group of aggregated platelets that collect over an injured blood vessel to prevent blood loss

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106
Q

what does thrombin do?

A

converts fibrinogen to fibrin

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107
Q

what is a thrombus?

A

a blood clot; a collection of platelets, erythrocytes, fibrin, and other clotting proteins that prevent further loss of blood from a blood vessel

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108
Q

what are the functions of the lymphatic system?

A
  • fluid recovery
  • immunity
  • lipid absorption
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109
Q

what is lymph?

A

the watery liquid located within lymphatic vessels; composition is similiar to that of interstitial

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110
Q

what are the lymphatic cells?

A
  • natural killer cells
  • T lymphocytes (T cells)
  • B lymphocytes (B cells)
  • macrophages
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111
Q

what do B cells differentiate into?

A

plasma cells

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112
Q

what do plasma cells produce?

A

antibodies

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113
Q

what are the lymphatic organs?

A
  • red bone marrow
  • thymus
  • lymph nodes
  • tonsils
  • spleen
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114
Q

what is the majority of lympahtic tissue?

A

mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT)

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115
Q

what are the functions of the respiratory system?

A
  • gas exchange
  • speech
  • regulation of pH
  • hormone production
  • aid in flow of venous blood and lymph
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116
Q

what is the conducting zone?

A

the portion of the respiratory tract that conducts air toward and away form the alveoli

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117
Q

what is the respiratory zone?

A

the portion of the respiratory tract that conducts air toward and away from the alveoli

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118
Q

what type of epithelium is respiratory epithelium?

A

ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium

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119
Q

what are the functions of the nose?

A
  • warm
  • cleanse
  • humidify air
  • smell
  • resonating chamber for speech
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120
Q

what are the parts of the pharynx?

A
  • nasopharynx
  • oropharynx
  • laryngopharynx
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121
Q

what is the purpose of the larynx?

A

keeps food and drink out of the airway

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122
Q

what is the path through the bronchial tree?

A
  • primary bronchi
  • secondary bronchi
  • tertiart bronchi
  • bronchioles
  • alveolar sacs
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123
Q

what are type 1 alveolar cells?

A

squamous cells that allow for rapid gas diffusion

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124
Q

what are type 2 alveolar cells?

A

produce surfactant, which reduces surface tesnion

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125
Q

what do alveolar macrophages do?

A

phagocytize particles

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126
Q

what are the three major parts of the respiratory membrane?

A
  • squamous alveolar cells
  • endothelial cell of capillary
  • shared basal lamina
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127
Q

what is the visceral pleura?

A

continuous with the surface of the lobes of the lungs and dives into each of the lung’s fissures

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128
Q

what is the parietal pleura?

A
  • outer pleural membrane
  • fused to the structures surrounding the lungs, including the rib cage and the diaphragm
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129
Q

what is the pleural cavity?

A

potential space between pleurae; contains pleural fluid to reduce friction

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130
Q

what is the primary mover for pulmonary ventilation?

A

diaphragm

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131
Q

what are some factors that influence pulmonary ventilation?

A
  • diameter of airway has major influence on airflow
  • alveolar surface tension
  • pulmonary compliance
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132
Q

what are some factors that influence pulmonary ventilation?

A
  • diameter of airway has major influence on airflow
  • alveolar surface tension
  • pulmonary compliance
133
Q

what is tidal volume?

A

air inhaled during quiet breathing (or exhaled)

134
Q

what is inspiratory reserve volume?

A

air inhaled after tidial inhalation during forced inhalation

135
Q

what is expiratory reserve volume?

A

air inhaled after tidal exhalation during forced exhalation

136
Q

what is residual volume?

A

air remaining in lungs after max exhalation

137
Q

what is vital capacity?

A

max air that can be ehaled following forced inspiration

138
Q

what is inspiratory capacity?

A

total amount of air that can be inhaled

139
Q

what is functional residual capacity?

A

amount of air remaining in lungs after a tidal exhalation

140
Q

what is the total lung capacity?

141
Q

how does a larger pressure gradient influence the rate of exchange?

142
Q

how does a thicker membrane influence the rate of exchange?

143
Q

how does decreased surface area influence the rate of exchange?

144
Q

what occurs in alveolar gas exchange?

A

the blood unloads CO2 and loads O2

145
Q

what occurs in systemic gas exchange?

A

the blood loads CO2 and unloads O2

146
Q

what is the most common way oxygen is transported?

A

bound to a heme group on hemoglobin

147
Q

what is the most common way CO2 is transported?

A

as a bicarbonate ion

148
Q

what part of the brian controls breathing rate?

A

medulla oblongata

149
Q

how would breathing rate be altered if there was high PCO2 or high H+?

A

hyperventilation

150
Q

how would breathing rate be altered if there was low PCO2 or low H+?

A

hypoventilation

151
Q

what are the functions of the urinary system?

A
  • waste elimination
  • regulates blood pressure, blood volume, osmolarity, pH
  • secretes renin and erythropoietin
152
Q

what is the glomerular capsule?

A

surrounds the glomeruli of the kidneys; encloses the capsular space

153
Q

what are the three layers of the glomerular capsule?

A
  • parietal layer
  • visceral layer
  • capsular space
154
Q

what type of epithelium is the parietal layer?

A

squamous epithelium

155
Q

what is the visceral layer made up of?

156
Q

what is the proximal tubule?

A

the ifrst segment of the renal tubule in which water, electrolytes, and organic nutrients are reabsorbed

157
Q

what is the nephron loop?

A

the second segment of the renal tubule in which water & electrolytes are reabsorbed; consists of a descending limb and ascending limb

158
Q

is the ascending or descending limb thick?

A

ascending limb

159
Q

is the ascending or descending limb thin?

A

descending

160
Q

what is the distal tubule?

A

the final segment of the renal tubule in which filtrate modification is controlled by hormones to fine-tune fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance

161
Q

what is the macula densa?

A

cells in the renal tubule that detect salinity of tubular fluid

162
Q

what are the juxtaglomerular cells?

A

modified smooth muscle in the afferent arteriole and efferent arteriole can constrict or dilate arteriole based on isgnlas from macula densa cells; secrete renin

163
Q

what does most reabsorption occur?

A

n the proximal tubule

164
Q

what is the descending limb permeable to?

A
  • water
  • NOT NaCl
  • water leaves the loop, and tubular fluid becomes very concentrated
165
Q

what is the ascending limb permeable to?

A
  • Na, K, Cl are pumped out
  • impermeable to water
166
Q

what is the vasa recta?

A

blood supply to medulla without removing solutes because of the pathway of the vasa recta and its hairpin turn

167
Q

when is dilute urine produced?

A
  • when there are few aquaporins in the collecting duct
  • tubular fluid is dilute at the end of the nephron loop and is not concentrated by collecting duct but can be excreted from the body as dilute urine
168
Q

what causes the production of concentrated urine?

A
  • ADH leads to insertion of aqauporins in collecting suct
  • water leaves collecting duct and concentrated urine is produced
169
Q

what does renin do?

A

converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin-I

170
Q

what does ACE do?

A

converts angiotensin-I to angiotensin-II

171
Q

what does angiotensin-II do?

A
  • promotes reabsorption of Na+ (and water follows) from the proximal tubules
  • potent vasoconstrictor (raises BP)
  • stimulates release of aldosterone
  • stimulates thirst and leases to release of aldosterone
172
Q

what are the fluid compartments?

A
  • intracellular fluid (ICF)
  • extracellular fluid (ECF)
  • water moves between compartments (osmosis)
173
Q

what is tonicity?

A

a comparison of the ability of two solutions to cause water movement by osmosis

174
Q

what does hypotonic mean?

A
  • causes a cell to gain water
  • ECF has a lower osmotic pressure than the cytosol and so a lesser ability to cause water movement by osmosis
175
Q

what does hypertonic mean?

A
  • causes the cell to lose water
  • ECF has a higher osmotic pressure than that of the cytosol and so has a greater ability to cause water movement by osmosis
176
Q

what regulates thirst?

A

the hyptohalamus

177
Q

what are osmoreceptors?

A

neurons in the thirst center of the hypothalamus that detect hte osmolarity of the ECF

178
Q

what is dehydration? what effect does it have on osmolarity?

A
  • total body water declines
  • osmolarity increases
179
Q

what is overhydration? what effect does it have on osmolarity?

A
  • total body water increases
  • osmolarity decreases
180
Q

what is edema?

A
  • increase of interstitial fluid that is isosmotic
181
Q

what effects does high hydrostatic pressure have?

A
  • hypertension
  • decreased venous return
  • excess sodium ion retention
182
Q

what does low colloid osmotic pressure cause?

A
  • lack of protein in the diet
  • liver disease
183
Q

what does impaired lymphatic function cause?

A
  • removal of lympahtics during surgery
  • blocked lymphatic vessels
184
Q

what is the majority of the ICF made up of?

185
Q

what is the majority of the ECF made up of?

A

sodium, chloride

186
Q

what is the pH of blood?

187
Q

what is pH?

A

a measure of hydrogen ion concentration (does not change becuase of changes in concentration of sodium or other ions - unless they bind or release hydrogen ions

188
Q

what is a buffer?

A

resist change in pH (buffers in the body help to keep the pH near 7.4 and help stabilize a fluid pH

189
Q

what are two examples of physiological buffers?

A

urinary system & respiratory system

190
Q

what are some examples of chemical buffers?

A
  • bicarbonate
  • phosphate
  • protein
191
Q

what is acidosis?

A

pH below 7.35

192
Q

what is rspiratory acidosis?

A

if ventilation is ineffective and carbon dioxide builds up

193
Q

what is metabolic acidosis?

A
  • excess acid production
  • loss of bases
  • prolonged diarrhea
194
Q

what is alkalosis?

A

pH above 7.45

195
Q

what is respiratory alkalosis?

A
  • hyperventilation
  • urinary system can help compensate
196
Q

what is metabolic alkalosis?

A
  • consuming excessive antacids
  • respiratory compensation = retain carbon dioxide (hypoventilation)
  • renal compensation = retain hydrogen ions & secrete bicarbonate ions
197
Q

what are the basic functions of the digestive system?

A
  • ingestion
  • secretion
  • propulsion
  • digestion
  • absorption
  • defacation
198
Q

what are some of the accessory organs of the digestive system?

A
  • teeth
  • tongue
  • salivary glands
  • liver
  • gallbladder
  • pancreas
199
Q

what are the tissue layers?

A
  • mucosa
  • submucosa
  • muscularis externa
  • serosa
200
Q

what are mesenteries?

A

double folds of visceral peritoneum located around certain abdominal organs, such as the small and large intestines

201
Q

what is the greater omentum?

A
  • consists of four layers of folded visceral peritoneum
  • covers the abdominal organs like an apron
202
Q

what is the lesser omentum?

A

extends from the medial surface of the stomach to the liver

203
Q

what is the enteric nervous system?

A

a self-contained branch of the autonomic nervous system that extends from the esophagus to the anus and regulates secretion and motility of the digestive organs

204
Q

what is the labial frenulum?

A

a narrow band of mucosa that attaches the internal surface of the upper and lower lips to the gums on the midline

205
Q

what is the vestibule?

A

the narrow space between the teeth and gums and the internal surfaces of the lips and cheeks

206
Q

what epithelium makes up the mouth?

A

stratified squamous epithelium

207
Q

what makes up the hard palate?

A
  • maxillae bones
  • palatine bones
208
Q

what makes up the soft palate?

209
Q

what is the uvula?

A

a portion of the soft palate suspended in the posterior oral cavity; seals off the nasopharynx during swallowing to prevent food and liquid from entering the nasal cavity

210
Q

what are the major parts of the tongue?

A
  • lingual frenulum
  • papillae
  • extrinsic muscles
  • intrinsic muscles
211
Q

what is the lingual frenulum?

A
  • attaches the tongue to the floor of the oral cavity
  • prevetns the tongue from moving too far posteriorly
212
Q

what are papillae?

A

finger-like protrusions on the surface of the tongue, some of which contain taste buds

213
Q

what do the extrinsic muscles do?

A

control the position of the tongue

214
Q

what do the intrinsic musles do?

A

control the shape and size of the tongue

215
Q

what is the purpose of salivary amylase?

A
  • first digestive enzyme that ingested fod encounters
  • catalyzes the beginning of carbohydrate digestion, breaking down large polysaccharides into smaller polysaccharides
216
Q

what is the purpose of lysozymes?

A
  • catalyzes the perforation of bacterial plasma membranes
  • allows bacteria-killing substances in the saliva to enter and kill the bacteria
217
Q

what are the three salivary glands?

A
  • parotid
  • submandibular
  • sublingual
218
Q

what is the parotid gland?

A

large salivary gland located over the lateral mandible that secrete watery saliva

219
Q

what is the submandibular gland?

A

small salivary glands that are located on the medial side of the mandible

220
Q

what is the sublingual gland?

A

salivary glands that are located under the tongue that secrete mucus-rich saliva

221
Q

what is the upper esophageal sphincter?

A

junction of the pharynx and the esophagus

222
Q

what is the lower esophageal sphincter?

A
  • regulates the passage of the bolus into the sotmach
  • prevents the contents of the stomach from re-entering the esophagus
223
Q

what are the phase of deglutition (swallowing)

A
  • voluntary phase
  • pharyngeal phase
  • esophageal phase
224
Q

what is the greater curvature of the stomach?

A

the concave side

225
Q

what is the lesser curvature of the stomach?

A

convex side

226
Q

what does the pyloric sphincter do?

A

regualtes the flow of materials between the stomach and the small intestine

227
Q

what epithelium is the stomach?

A

simple columnar epithelium

228
Q

what are gastric pits?

A

deep structures of mucosa of the stomach that is heavily indented

229
Q

what do parietal cells secrete?

A
  • HCl
  • intrinsic factor
230
Q

what do chief cells secrete?

A
  • gastric lipase
  • pepsinogen
231
Q

what are the parts of the small intestine?

A
  • duodenum
  • jejunum
  • ileum
232
Q

what are circular folds?

A

increase surface area but also slow down the transit of chyme through the small intestine, which gives the nutrients more time to be digested, and the enterocytes more time to absorb nutrients

233
Q

what is segmentation?

A
  • intestinal churning
  • involves contractions of only the circular layer of smooth muscle, which produces a squeezing motion
  • mechanical digestion
234
Q

what is peristalsis?

A
  • alternating contractions of the longitudinal and circular layers of smooth muscle in the muscularis externa
  • propel chyme toward the ileum
235
Q

what are some functions of the large intestine?

A
  • secretion
  • propulsion
  • defacation
236
Q

what is the cecum?

A

a blind pouch that is the first portion of the large intestine

237
Q

what is the appendix?

A

a blind-ended extension from the cecum of the large intestine that contains lymphatic nodules

238
Q

what are the parts of the colon?

A
  • ascending
  • transverse
  • descending
  • sigmoid
239
Q

what are taenia coli?

A

the longitudinal layer that is gathered into three bands or ribbons of muscle

240
Q

what is a haustra?

A

pockets that are createed due to the constant tension of taenia coli which bunches up parts of the colon

241
Q

what is the rectum?

A

the portion of the large intestine between the sigmoid colon and the anal canal; located along the sacrum

242
Q

what is the anal canal?

A

the terminal portion of the latge intesting that contains sphincters to regulate the passage of feces during defefcation

243
Q

is the internal anal sphincter voluntary or involuntary?

A
  • involuntary
  • supplied by the parasympathetic NS
244
Q

is the external anal sphincter voluntary or involuntary?

A
  • voluntary
  • composed of skeletal muscle
245
Q

what are two types motility?

A
  • haustral contractions
  • mass movements
246
Q

what are mass movements?

A
  • multiple haustra undergo peristalsis which propels their content toward the distal large intenstine
  • occurs 3-4 times per day
  • appear to be trigger by food consumption
247
Q

what are feces?

A

the collection of indigestible or undigested food, bacteria, and water in the large intestine that is eliminated via defecation

248
Q

what are the endocrine functions of the pancreas?

A

secrete insulin & glucagon

249
Q

what are the exocrine functions of the pancreas?

A

enzymes secreted primarily by clusters of acinar cells

250
Q

what is pancreatic juice?

A

a liquid ocnsisting of water, bicarbonate ions, and enzymes produced by pancreatic acinar cells and released a liquid consisting of water, bicarbonate ions, and enzymes produced by pancreatic acinar cells are released

251
Q

what separates the right and left lobes of the liver?

A

falciform ligament

252
Q

what are some functions of hepatocytes?

A
  • absorb glucose and other nutrinets from the blood after digestion
  • removes and degrades hormones, toxins and drugs
  • produces albumin and clotting factor then secretes them into the blood
  • glycogenolysis
253
Q

what makes up the hepatic triad?

A
  • hapatic artery
  • hepatic portal vein
  • bile ductule
254
Q

what is glycogenesis?

A

the formation of glycogen from glucose monomers

255
Q

what is glycogenolysis?

A

the breakdown of glycogen to release glucose monomers into the blood

256
Q

what is gluconeogenesis?

A

the formation of new glucose from noncarbohydrate precursors, including glucogenic amino acids and glycerol

257
Q

what are some functions of the liver?

A
  • glycogenesis, glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis
  • produces VLDLs, HDLs, rids body of excess cholestrol
  • produces urea after breakdown of amino acids, produce nonessential amino acids
  • synthesizes plasma proteins
  • produces bile
  • detoxifies alcohol and many other drugs
258
Q

what are some functions of the gallbladder?

A
  • stores and concentrates bile
  • cystic duct
  • bile release stimulated by CCK
259
Q

what is salivary amylase?

A
  • catalyzes the reactions that break long polysaccharides into shorter oligosaccharides
  • located in the mouth
260
Q

what is pancreatic amylase?

A
  • catalyzes the reactions that break the remaining polysaccharides into oligosaccharides
  • located in the small intestine
261
Q

what is gastric lipase?

A
  • starts lipid digestion in the stomach
  • catalyzes the reactions that remove one fatty acid from triglycerides, leaving some free fatty acids and diglycerides
262
Q

what is pancreatic lipase?

A
  • catalyzes lipid breakdown
  • triglycerides are digested into monoglycerides and free fatty acids
263
Q

what is emulsification?

A

breaking fat into smaller droplets

264
Q

what are micelles?

A

ferry lipids from intestinal lumen to absorptive cell so that the lipids can be absorbed

265
Q

what are chylomicrons?

A

triglycerides fromed in absorptive cells are packages into chylomicrons

266
Q

what is lacteal?

A

the chylomicrons are too large to enter blood capillaries and are absorbed into the lacteals (lacteals are lymphatic capillaries found in the core of the villus)

267
Q

what are fat-soluble vitamins?

A
  • fat is required for absorption of these vitamin s
  • A, D, E, and K
268
Q

what are water soluble vitamins?

A

B complex and C

269
Q

what is glycolysis?

A

breakdown of glucose

270
Q

what is lipogenesis?

A

production of lipids

271
Q

what is lipolysis?

A

breakdown of lipids

272
Q

what is an essential amino acid?

A
  • must be supplied by the diet
  • total of 9 of them
273
Q

what is a nonessential amino acid?

A
  • can be synthesized from carbon skeletons
  • total of 11 of them
274
Q

what is a complete protein?

A

supplies all the essential amino acids

275
Q

what is an incomplete protein?

A

lack one or more in supply of essential amino acids

276
Q

what are chylomicrons?

A
  • similar to micelles in that their nonpolar lipids face the inside and their polar portions face the outside
  • lipids are reassembled into triglycerides and packaged into chylomicrons
  • can travel with the polar water molecules in blood
277
Q

what is VLDL?

A
  • produced in the liver
  • it transports triglycerides to adipose tissue, once triglycerides are removed it becomes LDL
278
Q

what is LDL?

A
  • low density lipoprotein
  • delivers cholestrol to cells
  • cells need cholestrol for steroid hormone production and cell membranes
  • termed “bad” cholestrol - is NOT cholesterol, but a lipoprotein that delivers cholestrol to cells
279
Q

what is HDL?

A
  • high density lipoprotein
  • empty shell produced in the liver that picks up cholesterol then takes it to the liver to be eliminated in bile
  • termed “good” cholesterol - is NOT cholestrol, but a lipoprotein that removes excess cholesterol
280
Q

what are the male gonads?

281
Q

what do the testicles produce?

A
  • gametes
  • sperm
282
Q

what are the secondary sex characteristics of males?

A
  • pubic, facial, axillary hair
  • voice changes
283
Q

what are the secondary sex characteristics of females?

A
  • pubic, facial, axillary hair
  • breast development
284
Q

what is the gener that creates the Y chromosomes?

A

SRY gene that leads to testosterone production

285
Q

what binds the perineum?

A
  • pubic symphysis
  • ischial tuberosities
  • coccyx
286
Q

what is the scrotum?

A

pouch containing testicles

287
Q

what is the spermatic cord made up of?

A
  • ductus deferns
  • lymphatics
  • testicular artery
  • pampiniform plexus
  • cremaster muscle
  • testicular nerve
288
Q

what does the cremaster muscle do?

A

controls height of the testes

289
Q

what does the dartos muscle do?

A

contracts to wrinkle the scrotal skin

290
Q

what is the pampiniform plexus?

A

the coller blood that passes through the testis

291
Q

what is spermatogenesis?

A

production of sperm in seminiferous tubules

292
Q

what is spermiogenesis?

A

spermatids develop into spermatoxoa

293
Q

what occurs in the epididymis?

A

sperm maturation and storage

294
Q

what occurs in the ductus deferens?

A

ampulla - wide portion at the terminal end

295
Q

what is the ejaculatory duct?

A

passes through the prostate gland, empties into urethra

296
Q

what does the prostate gland produce?

A

thin, white secretion

297
Q

what does the bulbourethral gland produce?

A

small amount of lubricating fluid

298
Q

what makes up semen?

A

sperm & seminal fluid

299
Q

what is the fuel for sperm?

300
Q

what are prostaglandins?

A

chemical messengers for the female

301
Q

what neutralizes acidic conditions in the vagina?

A

bicarbonate

302
Q

what are the parts of the penis?

A
  • root = internal portion
  • shaft = external portion
  • glans = terminal portion
  • prepuce = foreskin
  • erectile tissue = engore with blood duirng ejaculation
303
Q

what makes up the erectile tissue?

A
  • corpus spongiosum - encloses spongy urethra
  • corpora cavernosa
304
Q

what does GnRH do?

A

stimulates the release of FSH & LH

305
Q

what does FSH do?

A

stimulates release of androgen-binding protein (ABP) - it binds androgens (testosterone)

306
Q

what does ABP stimulate?

A

spermatogenesis

307
Q

does LH stimulate?

A

interstitial cells to produce testosterone

308
Q

what does inhibin do?

A

inhibits FSH

309
Q

what are the female gonads?

310
Q

what is ovulation?

A

the process by which the ovary expels a secondary oocyte

311
Q

what is fimbriae?

A
  • located at the end of the infundibulum
  • ciliated, finger-like projections
  • drape over the ovary and “catach” an oocyte that is released from an ovary during ovulation
312
Q

what is a uterus?

A

organ in which a conceptus implants and develops until birth

313
Q

what are the parts of the uterus?

A
  • fundus
  • body
  • cervix
314
Q

what is the cervix?

A

the narrow neck, or outlet, of the uterus that projects into the vagina inferiorly

315
Q

what is the perimetrium?

A

outermost serous layer and is an extension of the parietal peritoneum

316
Q

what is the myometrium?

A

the thick middle layer, composed of bundles of smooth muscle

317
Q

what is the endometrium?

A

the innermost tissue layer of the uterus composed of simple columnar epithelium on a layer of connective tissue called the lamina propria

318
Q

what is the hymen?

A

an incomplete partition formed by the mucosa near the distal vaginal orifice

319
Q

what is the vulva?

A

the collective term for external genitalia

320
Q

what are the phases of the ovarian cycle?

A
  • follicular phase
  • ovulation
  • luteal phase
321
Q

what happen sin the follicular phase?

A

growht of follicles, which produce estrogen

322
Q

what happens during ovulation?

A
  • release of secondary oocyte and cells
  • surge in LH
323
Q

what happens during ovulation?

A
  • release of secondary oocyte and cells
  • surge in LH
324
Q

what happens in the luteal phase?

A

corpus luteum secretes progesterone and estrogen (hormone levels drop off at end of phase due to corpus luteum involution ofrming corpus albicans)

325
Q

what are the phases of the uterine cycle?

A
  • menstrual phase
  • proliferative phase
  • secretaory phase
326
Q

what happens during the menstrual phase?

A

discharge of menstrual fluid from vagina

327
Q

what happens during the proliferative phase?

A
  • cell division in stratum basalis builds up the stratum funtionalis
  • estrogen from developing follicles
328
Q

what happens during the secretaory phase?

A
  • thickening of endometrium due to secretion and fluid accumulation
  • progesterone from corpus luteum
  • corpus luteum involutes at the end of this phase and progesterone levels drop off

A&P 2 (21 decks)

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