Chapter 25: Neurological System Flashcards by Brianna Milley

What two main parts comprise the Central Nervous System?
a) Brain and spinal cord
b) Heart and lungs
c) Nerves and ganglia
d) Cortex and thalamus

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What is the function of the Peripheral Nervous System?
a) Regulates temperature
b) Acts as the sensory relay
c) Coordinates voluntary movements
d) Connects CNS to the rest of the body

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What is the outer layer of the cerebrum called?
a) Cerebral Cortex
b) Cerebellum
c) Thalamus
d) Spinal Cord

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Which lobe is responsible for personality and behavior?
a) Occipital Lobe
b) Parietal Lobe
c) Frontal Lobe
d) Temporal Lobe

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Broca’s area is associated with which function?
a) Vision processing
b) Memory storage
c) Taste recognition
d) Motor speech mediation

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What does the postcentral gyrus primarily center on?
a) Sensation
b) Emotion regulation
c) Voluntary movement
d) Thought organization

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Which lobe serves as the primary visual receptor center?
a) Occipital Lobe
b) Frontal Lobe
c) Temporal Lobe
d) Parietal Lobe

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Where is the primary auditory reception center located?
a) Frontal Lobe
b) Temporal Lobe
c) Cerebellum
d) Occipital Lobe

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What role does Wernicke’s area play?
a) Motor control
b) Language comprehension
c) Visual processing
d) Emotion regulation

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What are the Basal Ganglia primarily involved in?
a) Initiating and coordinating movement
b) Regulating vital functions
c) Transmitting sensory signals
d) Controlling heart rate

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What is the function of the Thalamus?
a) Coordination of balance
b) Relay station for sensory information
c) Regulation of hunger
d) Consciousness control

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Which part of the CNS regulates vital functions like temperature?
a) Basal Ganglia
b) Brain Stem
c) Hypothalamus
d) Cerebellum

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The Cerebellum is responsible for coordinating what?
a) Sensory information relay
b) Emotional responses
c) Visual tracking
d) Voluntary movements and balance

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What basic life functions does the Brain Stem control?
a) Taste and smell
b) Breathing and heart rate
c) Motor skills
d) Language understanding

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What is the primary role of the Spinal Cord?
a) Regulates emotions
b) Processes visual information
c) Coordinates auditory signals
d) Transmits signals between brain and body

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What is the primary function of Wernicke’s Area?
a) Motor coordination
b) Visual processing
c) Language comprehension
d) Sensory relay

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What comprises the Basal Ganglia?
a) Large bands of grey matter
b) White matter tracts
c) Neural pathways
d) Cerebral cortex neurons

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What role does the Thalamus play in sensory pathways?
a) Main relay station for sensory pathways
b) Regulates heart rate
c) Coordinates movement
d) Processes emotions

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Which functions are regulated by the Hypothalamus?
a) Language and memory
b) Visual and auditory processing
c) Mood and behavior
d) Temperature, heart rate, and appetite

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What is the primary responsibility of the Cerebellum?
a) Motor coordination of voluntary movements
b) Language comprehension
c) Pain sensation
d) Emotional regulation

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What is the structure primarily made up of nerve fibers?
a) Cerebellum
b) Brain Stem
c) Cerebral cortex
d) Basal ganglia

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Which parts make up the Brain Stem?
a) Midbrain, Pons, Medulla oblongata
b) Wernicke’s Area, Cerebellum, Thalamus
c) Hypothalamus, Basal Ganglia, Cerebral Cortex
d) Amygdala, Hippocampus, Corpus Callosum

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What is the primary function of the Spinal Cord?
a) Facilitates communication between brain and body
b) Processes sensory input solely
c) Controls muscle coordination
d) Regulates emotional responses

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What is the primary structure of the spinal cord?
a) A long cylindrical structure of nervous tissue.
b) A flat sheet of connective tissue.
c) A network of blood vessels.
d) A cluster of neuron cell bodies.

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Where does the spinal cord extend from? a) From the medulla to lumbar vertebrae L1 to L2. b) From the cranial cortex to sacral vertebrae. c) From the spinal nerves to the cerebellum. d) From the lumbar region to the coccyx.

What is the average width of the spinal cord? a) About the size of a thumb. b) Similar to the width of a pencil. c) Wider than a human fist. d) Approximately the size of a little finger.

What is one of the main functions of the spinal cord? a) Serves as the main highway for fiber tracts connecting the brain. b) Processes sensory information from the skin. c) Controls endocrine functions. d) Regulates body temperature directly.

Which system includes structures outside the brain and spinal cord? a) Peripheral Nervous System. b) Central Nervous System. c) Autonomic Nervous System. d) Somatic Nervous System.

How many pairs of cranial nerves exist? a) 24 pairs of spinal nerves. b) 12 pairs of cranial nerves. c) 5 pairs of vestibular nerves. d) 31 pairs of autonomic nerves.

What is one primary function of the peripheral nervous system? a) Generates conscious thought processes. b) Carries messages from sensory receptors to the CNS. c) Regulates cardiac muscle contractions. d) Produces cerebrospinal fluid.

What defines reflexes in the nervous system? a) Conscious actions performed by the brain. b) Basic defense mechanisms that are involuntary. c) Reflexive actions that require external stimuli. d) Delayed responses to sensory input.

What do deep tendon reflexes primarily involve? a) Involuntary blinking in response to light. b) Increasing heart rate to a stressor. c) Salivation to food stimuli. d) Muscle contraction in response to stretching.

Which reflex type involves internal organs? a) Visceral reflexes. b) Deep tendon reflexes. c) Superficial reflexes. d) Pathological reflexes.

What is NOT a characteristic of reflexes? a) Involuntary actions. b) Quick reactions to stimuli. c) Assist in maintaining muscle tone. d) Require voluntary control.

What is the correct sequence of a reflex arc? a) Motor neuron, sensory fibers, spinal cord, response. b) Spinal cord, response, sensory fibers, motor neuron. c) Response, sensory fibers, spinal cord, motor neuron. d) Sensory fibers, spinal cord, motor neuron, response

What characterizes cranial nerves? a) Nerves that enter and exit the brain. b) Nerves exclusively related to spinal functions. c) Only responsible for sensory input. d) Integrate with autonomic functions only

What are Deep Tendon Reflexes? a) Contraction of a muscle in response to tendon stimulus. b) Involuntary reaction from the heart's muscles. c) Responses triggered by skin stimulation. d) Reflex actions bypassing the spinal cord.

How are Superficial Reflexes elicited? a) Through deep muscle stimulation. b) By stimulating the skin or mucous membranes. c) By internal organ activation. d) Via electrical impulses in the spine.

What characterizes Visceral Reflexes? a) They are always voluntary movements. b) They involve internal organs and are involuntary. c) They involve only the spinal cord. d) They are triggered by external stimuli.

What do Pathological Reflexes indicate? a) Normal functioning of the nervous system. b) Increased reflex response to stimuli. c) Successful nerve regeneration after injury. d) Potential neurological issues when present.

What is the role of Sensory Afferent Fibres? a) They carry messages from receptors to the spinal cord. b) Transmit signals from muscles to the brain. c) Relay motor responses to the body. d) Facilitate communication between neurons.

What pathway does the Dorsal Root provide? a) For sensory information entering the spinal cord. b) For motor signals leaving the spinal cord. c) For communication between cranial nerves. d) For reflex responses bypassing the brain.

What function do Motor Efferent Fibres serve? a) Transmit signals to muscles, causing a response. b) Carry sensory input to the brain. c) Deliver stimuli to vital organs. d) Regulate hormone secretion in glands.

Where do cranial nerves primarily supply? a) Only the spinal cord and limbs. b) The digestive and excretory systems. c) The head and neck, except the vagus nerve. d) The brainstem and cerebellum regions.

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there? a) There are 12 pairs of spinal nerves. b) There are 24 pairs of spinal nerves. c) There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves. d) There are 40 pairs of spinal nerves.

What are spinal nerves classified as? a) Only motor nerves without sensory fibres. b) Only sensory nerves transmitting signals. c) Nerves that are exclusively autonomic. d) Mixed nerves containing both sensory and motor fibres.

What does the Autonomic Nervous System govern? a) Voluntary muscle movements and reflexes. b) Only the sensory functions of the body. c) Higher cognitive functions and processes. d) Smooth muscles, cardiac muscle, and glands.

What role does the Autonomic Nervous System play in the body? a) Facilitates muscle growth during exercise. b) Regulates metabolic rates in tissues. c) Maintains homeostasis within the body. d) Supports conscious thought and decision-making.

How is the nervous system at birth described? a) Not fully developed; requires strong stimuli for responses. b) Highly developed; functions independently. c) Ready to respond to all stimuli instantly. d) Completely dependent on external mechanisms.

What happens to nerve conduction velocity as one ages? a) Increases, improving reflex response speed. b) Stays constant throughout life. c) Decreases by 5% to 10%, slowing reaction times. d) Fluctuates unpredictably with mental health.

Why are subjective and objective assessments important? a) They only assess physical strength. b) They evaluate the neurological system's function and integrity. c) They are not necessary in neurological checks. d) They focus on psychological evaluations only.

What is a key aspect of muscle group assessment? a) Only strength is assessed during inspection. b) Muscle group assessment focuses on reflexes only. c) Symmetry of size, strength, and tone are evaluated. d) Only symmetry of size is considered.

What does the Romberg test evaluate? a) It tests muscle strength while standing. b) It's a measure of reflexes only. c) It assesses balance with eyes closed. d) It examines coordination in walking.

Which activity is NOT included in additional balance tests? a) Performing shallow knee bends. b) Walking backwards to assess balance. c) Hopping in place on one leg. d) Observing gait over a distance.

Which test assesses coordination using fine movements? a) Assessing deep tendon reflexes. b) Evaluating balance during the Romberg test. c) Conducting a shallow knee bend. d) Finger-to-nose test.

What sensation does the Spinothalamic tract assess? a) Vibration and position sense. b) Pain and light touch perception. c) Stereognosis and two-point discrimination. d) Temperature and deep tendon reflexes.

Which assessments fall under the posterior column tract? a) Testing for involuntary movements. b) Vibration and position sense testing. c) Assessing muscle tone and strength. d) Conducting the Romberg and hopping tests.

What does the term 'stereognosis' refer to? a) Testing for reflex actions. b) Identifying objects by touch. c) Assessing balance stability. d) Determining pain thresholds.

What is graded on a four-point scale in reflex assessment? a) Muscle strength and tone. b) Sensory perception in skin testing. c) Deep tendon reflexes. d) Coordination during skilled movements.

Which reflex is NOT part of the deep tendon reflexes test? a) Plantar reflex. b) Quadriceps reflex. c) Biceps reflex. d) Achilles reflex.

What does 'clonus' indicate in reflex assessment? a) A normal reflex response. b) An abnormal sensation perception. c) Possible hyperactivity in reflex responses. d) A sign of poor coordination.

What does a reflex grade of '0' indicate? a) Diminished response in reflex assessment. b) Normal response in reflex assessment. c) No response in reflex assessment. d) Brisk response in reflex assessment.

Which reflex is specifically tested for clonus? a) Reflexes that are diminished. b) Superficial reflexes in general. c) Normal reflex responses. d) Reflexes that are hyperactive.

What is the normal grade for reflex response? a) 0. b) 1. c) 3. d) 2.

What is assessed in the abdominal reflex? a) Deep tendon reflex. b) Superficial reflex. c) Cremasteric reflex. d) Clonus response.

Which reflex is assessed in male patients? a) Plantar reflex. b) Abdominal reflex. c) Clonus response. d) Cremasteric reflex.

1. Which test is used to evaluate balance by having the patient stand still with eyes closed? A. Romberg test B. Finger-to-nose test C. Heel-to-shin test D. Gait assessment

2. What is the last step in the sequence of a complete neurological examination? A. Testing reflexes B. Evaluating cranial nerves C. Assessing mental status D. Inspecting the motor system

3. Which test involves the patient performing shallow knee bends? A. Romberg test B. Motor system assessment C. Cranial nerve assessment D. Coordination test

4. What should be observed during the gait assessment? A. Only walking speed B. Balance and coordination C. Muscle tone D. Cranial nerve function

5. What is the focus of the sensory system assessment? A. Pain and light touch perception B. Muscle strength C. Cranial nerve responses D. Reflexes

6. What does the Romberg test assess? A. Cranial nerve function B. Balance C. Muscle strength D. Sensory perception

7. When should cranial nerve I be tested? A. In all patients B. Only in patients with loss of smell C. In patients with normal mental status D. Only in patients with head trauma

8. What is assessed to evaluate coordination and skilled movements? A. Gait only B. Reflexes only C. Rapid alternating movements D. Cranial nerve function

9. Which of the following is NOT part of the sequence for a complete neurological examination? A. Mental status B. Cranial nerves C. Sensory system D. Cardiovascular assessment

10. What should be noted when assessing the motor system? A. Cranial nerve responses B. Involuntary movements C. Only voluntary movements D. Sensory perception