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Jarvis: Physical Examination & Health Assessment, 4th Canadian Edition > Chapter 15: Eyes > Flashcards

Chapter 15: Eyes Flashcards

1
Q

What protects each eye from injury and light?
a) The conjunctiva and eyelashes.
b) The lacrimal apparatus and eye muscles.
c) The palpebral fissure and tarsal plate.
d) Bony orbital cavity and cushion of fat.

A

D

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2
Q

Which eyelid is larger and more mobile?
a) The upper eyelid.
b) The lower eyelid.
c) Both eyelids are equal.
d) Neither eyelid is mobile.

A

A

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3
Q

What is the function of eyelashes?
a) Filter out dust and dirt.
b) Protect from strong light.
c) Aid in tear drainage.
d) Provide lubrication to the eye.

A

A

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4
Q

What describes the palpebral fissure?
a) The elliptical space between the eyelids.
b) The corner where eyelids meet.
c) The fleshy mass at the inner canthus.
d) The connective tissue in the eyelid

A

A

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5
Q

What is located at the inner canthus of the eye?
a) The caruncle.
b) The tarsal plate.
c) The palpebral fissure.
d) The conjunctiva.

A

A

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6
Q

What gives shape to the upper eyelid?
a) The tarsal plate.
b) The eyelashes.
c) The bony orbital cavity.
d) The conjunctiva.

A

A

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7
Q

What does the conjunctiva do?
a) Protects the exposed part of the eye.
b) Drains tears from the eyes.
c) Provides lubrication to the eyelids.
d) Supports the muscles of the eye.

A

A

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8
Q

What is the role of the lacrimal apparatus?
a) Shapes the bony orbital cavity.
b) Provides constant irrigation to the eye.
c) Filters dust and dirt from tears.
d) Supports the eyelids’ structure.

A

B

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9
Q

Where do tears drain from the eye?
a) Through the eyelashes.
b) Out of the palpebral fissure.
c) Into the tarsal plate.
d) Into the puncta at the inner canthus.

A

D

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10
Q

How many muscles attach the eyeball to its orbit?
a) Six muscles.
b) Four muscles.
c) Eight muscles.
d) Three muscles.

A

A

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11
Q

Which muscle is NOT part of the eye muscles?
a) Medial Rectus.
b) Inferior Oblique.
c) Lateral superior.
d) Superior Oblique.

A

C

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12
Q

Where do tears drain in the eye?
a) Into the puncta on the eyelids.
b) Into the cornea.
c) Into the retina.
d) Into the iris.

A

A

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13
Q

Which cranial nerve controls the superior rectus muscle?
a) Oculomotor nerve (III).
b) Optic nerve (II).
c) Facial nerve (VII).
d) Trochlear nerve (IV).

A

A

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14
Q

What is the sclera?
a) A transparent layer at the front.
b) A muscle controlling the pupil.
c) A tough protective covering of the eye.
d) A layer that absorbs light.

A

C

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15
Q

What part of the eye does the cornea cover?
a) The retina.
b) The iris and the pupil.
c) The lens.
d) The sclera.

A

B

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16
Q

What is the primary function of the choroid layer?
a) Absorbs oxygen for the eye.
b) Produces tears for eye lubrication.
c) Prevents internal light reflection.
d) Controls eye movement.

A

C

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17
Q

What does the ciliary body control?
a) The diameter of the pupil.
b) The movement of the eyeball.
c) The thickness of the lens.
d) The shape of the cornea.

A

C

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18
Q

What role does the iris play in vision?
a) Transmits nerve impulses to the brain.
b) Produces aqueous humor.
c) Focuses light on the retina.
d) Regulates light entry into the retina.

A

D

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19
Q

What is the function of the retina?
a) Protects the eye from injury.
b) Regulates eye pressure.
c) Covers the eye’s surface.
d) Converts light waves into nerve impulses.

A

D

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20
Q

What is the definition of the Pupillary Light Reflex?
a) Increased pupil size in dim light.
b) Fixation of the eye on moving objects.
c) Adjustment of the eye for distant vision.
d) Normal constriction of the pupils in bright light.

A

D

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21
Q

What defines the fixation reflex in eye function?
a) Direction of the eye toward an attention-attracting object.
b) Contraction of the pupils in response to light.
c) Adjustment of vision for near objects.
d) Movement coordination in newborns.

A

A

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22
Q

What does accommodation in eye function refer to?
a) Adjustment for far vision clarity.
b) Direction of the eye to follow motion.
c) Pupil constriction in bright light.
d) Adjustment of the eye for near vision.

A

A

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23
Q

What is a notable eye function change at birth?
a) Eye movement is well coordinated.
b) Mature macula present at birth.
c) Eyeball reaches adult size.
d) Peripheral vision is intact in newborns.

A

D

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24
Q

When does the macula mature in infants?
a) By age 3 months.
b) By age 8 months.
c) By age 1 year.
d) At birth.

A

B

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25
Q

When do eye movements mature in infants?
a) At birth.
b) By age 8 months.
c) By age 3 to 4 months.
d) By age 12 months.

A

C

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26
Q

At what age does the eyeball reach adult size?
a) By age 4 years.
b) By age 8 years.
c) By age 10 years.
d) At birth.

A

B

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27
Q

What effect does lacrimal gland involution have on older adults?
a) Increased tear production causes blurry vision.
b) Causes hyper-sensitive peripheral vision.
c) Decreased tear production leads to dry eyes.
d) Enhances near vision.

A

C

28
Q

How does pupil size change with aging?
a) Pupil size remains the same.
b) Pupil size increases in older adults.
c) Pupil size decreases with age.
d) Pupil size fluctuates unpredictably.

A

C

29
Q

What happens to the lens of the eye as one ages?
a) Loses elasticity, causing presbyopia.
b) Becomes clearer and thinner.
c) Increases in elasticity.
d) Maintains youthful flexibility.

A

A

30
Q

What is a typical visual change after age 50?
a) Sharp increase in peripheral vision.
b) Total loss of eye coordination.
c) Visual acuity may diminish gradually.
d) Enhanced night vision capabilities.

A

C

31
Q

Which condition is NOT a common cause of decreased visual functioning in older
adults?
a) Cataracts.
b) Perfect vision.
c) Glaucoma.
d) Macular Degeneration.

A

B

32
Q

What is emphasized in assessing eye function?
a) Overreliance on subjective assessments only.
b) Only objective assessments are essential.
c) Importance of subjective and objective assessments.
d) Visual assessments are unnecessary.

A

C

33
Q

At what age may visual acuity start to decline?
a) After age 40
b) After age 50
c) After age 60
d) At any age

A

B

34
Q

Which condition is NOT a common cause of decreased visual function?
a) Astigmatism
b) Cataracts
c) Glaucoma
d) Macular degeneration

A

A

35
Q

What is strabismus commonly referred to as?
a) Blurred vision
b) Double vision
c) Cloudy vision
d) Crossed eyes

A

D

36
Q

What subjective data should be collected regarding vision difficulty?
a) Headaches and eye strain
b) Tearing and redness
c) Nausea and dizziness
d) Decreased acuity, blurring, blind spots

A

D

37
Q

Which symptoms would you inquire about in subjective assessments?
a) Nosebleeds and sore throat
b) Eye pain and watering
c) Back pain and headaches
d) Arm weakness and fatigue

A

B

38
Q

What test is used to measure central visual acuity?
a) Tonometer
b) Snellen chart
c) Peripheral vision test
d) Retinoscope

A

B

39
Q

What additional test should be performed for those over age 40?
a) Near vision test
b) Color blindness test
c) Peripheral vision test
d) Depth perception test

A

A

40
Q

Which ocular issue involves seeing double?
a) Astigmatism
b) Myopia
c) Diplopia
d) Hyperopia

A

C

41
Q

Which of the following is NOT a self-care behavior for vision changes?
a) Wearing appropriate glasses
b) Regular eye check-ups
c) Utilizing coping strategies
d) Ignoring changes

A

D

42
Q

What should be included in the history of ocular problems?
a) Recent travel history
b) Family income level
c) Past eye surgeries or conditions
d) Physical exercise routine

A

C

43
Q

What does the Confrontation Test assess?
a) Eye alignment using a mirror test.
b) Visual fields by comparing patient’s vision to examiner’s.
c) Pupil reaction to light and accommodation.
d) Overall health of the optic nerve.

A

B

44
Q

What does the Hirschberg Test evaluate?
a) Alignment of the eyes using corneal light reflex.
b) Clarity of the cornea and lens.
c) Size and shape of the pupils.
d) Motion of the eyes in different directions.

A

A

45
Q

What condition does the Cover-Uncover Test detect?
a) Strabismus or misalignment of the eyes.
b) Infection in the lacrimal apparatus.
c) Cataracts in the lens.
d) Changes in retinal vessels.

A

A

46
Q

What is the purpose of the Diagnostic Positions Test?
a) Evaluate movement of the eyes in all directions.
b) Examine the pupillary light reflex.
c) Inspect the outer appearance of eyes.
d) Assess clarity of the cornea.

A

A

47
Q

What should be observed during general inspection of the eyes?
a) The overall appearance of the eyes.
b) Specific measurements of the pupils.
c) Thickness of the ocular lens.
d) Color of the sclera only.

A

A

48
Q

What aspect of eyebrows is checked during an eye examination?
a) Thickness and hair color of the eyebrows.
b) Skin texture surrounding the eyebrows.
c) Symmetry and condition of the eyebrows.
d) Presence of makeup on the eyebrows.

A

C

49
Q

What is assessed in eyelids and lashes during inspection?
a) Length of the eyelashes only.
b) Presence of abnormalities or lesions.
c) Pupil dilation reaction.
d) Color of the conjunctiva.

A

B

50
Q

Why is upper lid eversion performed?
a) To check for strabismus.
b) To evaluate alignment of the pupils.
c) To inspect the lacrimal apparatus.
d) To assess the inner surface of the eyelid.

A

D

51
Q

What should be evaluated in the lacrimal apparatus?
a) Signs of obstruction or infection.
b) The shape of the cornea.
c) Reaction to light from the pupils.
d) Symmetry of eyelids.

A

A

52
Q

What is assessed regarding the cornea and lens?
a) Clarity and presence of opacities.
b) Color and size of the pupils.
c) Pressure within the eye.
d) Functionality of ocular muscles.

A

A

53
Q

What aspects of the iris and pupil are assessed?
a) Refractive power and length.
b) Color and transparency.
c) Presence of strabismus symptoms.
d) Size, shape, and equality of pupils.

A

D

54
Q

What is the importance of using an ophthalmoscope?
a) To measure the visual acuity.
b) To assess eyelid swelling.
c) To evaluate the ocular muscle function.
d) To examine the back of the eye.

A

D

55
Q

What key features are noted in the optic disc?
a) Presence of cataracts around the lens.
b) Conditions of the lacrimal system.
c) Colour, shape, and margins of the disc.
d) Thickness of the retinal vessels.

A

C

56
Q

What is assessed in retinal vessels?
a) Number, colour, and calibre of vessels.
b) Shape and size of the cornea.
c) Alignment of the optic nerve.
d) Pupil dilation reaction to light

A

A

57
Q

What should be evaluated regarding fundus colour?
a) Size of the pupils.
b) Clarity of the cornea.
c) Shape of the optic disc.
d) Overall health of the fundus.

A

D

58
Q

What is the macula inspection performed last?
a) To assess the clarity of the lens.
b) To minimize discomfort and pupil constriction.
c) To evaluate ocular muscle function.
d) To observe eyelid symmetry.

A

B

59
Q

Which tool is suitable for visual acuity assessment in children?
a) Picture Chart.
b) Cover-Uncover Test.
c) Snellen E Chart.
d) Fundus Camera.

A

A

60
Q

What factor influences the adaptation of examination techniques?
a) The experience level of the examiner.
b) The developmental status of the patient.
c) The location of the examination.
d) The type of eye disorder present.

A

B

61
Q

Why should the macula be inspected last during an eye examination?
a) It may cause watering and pupil constriction.
b) It is the least important part to check.
c) It leads to better light sensitivity assessment.
d) It reduces patient discomfort overall.

A

A

62
Q

What should be considered when adapting examination techniques?
a) The patient’s developmental status.
b) The examination room’s lighting conditions.
c) The type of equipment used for examinations.
d) The patient’s previous medical history.

A

A

63
Q

What types of tools should be used for older children?
a) Snellen E chart.
b) Picture chart.
c) Vision screening device.
d) Tumbling E chart.

A

A

64
Q

How should expected findings be adjusted in eye examinations?
a) According to the patient’s gender.
b) By the patient’s previous vision problems.
c) Based on the time of the examination.
d) Based on the patient’s age.

A

D

65
Q

What is a key component to incorporate during eye assessments?
a) Health promotion concepts.
b) Financial evaluation of services.
c) Patient’s family history of diseases.
d) Use of advanced imaging technology.

A

A

66
Q

Why should regular comprehensive examinations be encouraged?
a) To limit the number of appointments.
b) To monitor changes in eye color.
c) To facilitate timely recognition of visual impairment.
d) To determine the effectiveness of glasses.

A

C

Jarvis: Physical Examination & Health Assessment, 4th Canadian Edition (38 decks)

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