Ch. 18 Flashcards

1
Q

Which one of the following descriptions of patient information contains only vital signs?

A) Chief complaint of dizziness, blood pressure 110/76 mmHg, breath sounds clear and equal
B) Heart rate 88, respiratory rate 14, blood glucose level 98 mg/dL
C) Blood pressure 114/76, heart rate 74, respiratory rate 18
D) Chief complaint of dizziness, skin cool and clammy, respiratory rate 16

A

C) Blood pressure 114/76, heart rate 74, respiratory rate 18

Page Ref: 450
Objective: 18.1 Define key terms introduced in this chapter.

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2
Q

You are dispatched to a residence where a three-year-old boy presents with a fever. His parents state that he has had diarrhea and vomiting for two days. The patient has not eaten in 24 hours. To BEST assess his peripheral perfusion status, you should evaluate:

A) fingertip sensation.
B) respiratory rate.
C) blood pressure.
D) capillary refill.

A

D) capillary refill.

Page Ref: 458
Objective: 18.2 Discuss the importance of accurate assessment and documentation of vital signs over the course of contact with the patient to identify problems and changes in the patient’s condition; 18.25 Relate the methods, techniques, and equipment for obtaining a blood pressure measurement to differences in findings and potential errors in blood pressure measurement.

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3
Q

Skin color is BEST evaluated at the:

A) wrists and neck.
B) limbs and torso.
C) cheeks and nose.
D) nail beds and eyes.

A

D) nail beds and eyes.

Page Ref: 462
Objective: 18.3 Perform the steps required to assess the patient’s respiration, pulse, skin, pupils, blood pressure, and oxygen saturation; 18.16 Recognize normal and abnormal findings in the assessment of skin and mucous membrane color, skin temperature and condition, and capillary refill time; 18.17 Associate abnormal findings in skin color, temperature, and condition with potential underlying causes.

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4
Q

The AEMT is correctly calculating a patient’s breathing rate when he:

A) asks the patient to describe how he feels when he breathes.
B) counts breaths for 15 seconds and multiplies by four.
C) obtains a heart rate and divides it by three.
D) assesses the patient for any sign of breathing difficulty.

A

B) counts breaths for 15 seconds and multiplies by four.

Page Ref: 460
Objective: 18.3 Perform the steps required to assess the patient’s respiration, pulse, skin, pupils, blood pressure, and oxygen saturation.

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5
Q

Which one of the following pieces of equipment would the EMT need to obtain a patient’s vital signs?

A) Oxygen
B) Glucometer
C) Automated defibrillator
D) Stethoscope

A

D) Stethoscope

Page Ref: 450
Objective: 18.3 Perform the steps required to assess the patient’s respiration, pulse, skin, pupils, blood pressure, and oxygen saturation.

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6
Q

While auscultating the chest, you hear sounds that sound like the initial “fizzing” sounds after a can of soda is opened. This is indicative of:

A) normal lung sounds.
B) atelectasis.
C) a hypoinflated lung.
D) crackles.

A

D) crackles.

Page Ref: 461
Objective: 18.8 Auscultate breath sounds to determine the presence and equality of breath sounds and to detect abnormal breath sounds; 18.9 Associate abnormal breath sounds with their likely underlying causes.

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7
Q

You are examining a patient who complains of difficulty breathing. Upon auscultation of the lung fields, you notice a light, popping, nonmusical sound. This is known as:

A) crackles.
B) rhonchi.
C) wheezing.
D) stridor.

A

A) crackles.

Page Ref: 461
Objective: 18.8 Auscultate breath sounds to determine the presence and equality of breath sounds and to detect abnormal breath sounds; 18.9 Associate abnormal breath sounds with their likely underlying causes.

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8
Q

Stridor is a high-pitched sound indicating:

A) pneumothorax.
B) normal air movement.
C) bronchoconstriction.
D) partial airway obstruction.

A

D) partial airway obstruction.

Page Ref: 461
Objective: 18.8 Auscultate breath sounds to determine the presence and equality of breath sounds and to detect abnormal breath sounds; 18.9 Associate abnormal breath sounds with their likely underlying causes.

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9
Q

An AEMT is correctly assessing a patient’s radial pulse when she:

A) uses her thumb to feel for the pulse on the patient’s lower arm.
B) simultaneously checks for a heart rate on both sides of the neck.
C) uses her fingertips to feel for a pulse at the patient’s wrist.
D) uses the palm of his hand to feel the pulse on the upper arm.

A

C) uses her fingertips to feel for a pulse at the patient’s wrist.

Page Ref: 451
Objective: 18.10 Assess the pulse at each of the following pulse points: carotid, femoral, radial, brachial, popliteal, posterior tibial, and dorsalis pedis.

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10
Q

Which one of the pulses listed below is palpated in the groin?

A) Pedal
B) Inguinal
C) Carotid
D) Femoral

A

D) Femoral

Page Ref: 451
Objective: 18.10 Assess the pulse at each of the following pulse points: carotid, femoral, radial, brachial, popliteal, posterior tibial, and dorsalis pedis.

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11
Q

Which one of the following is the location of the popliteal pulse?

A) Behind the knee
B) Top of foot
C) Posterior ankle
D) Upper arm

A

A) Behind the knee

Page Ref: 451
Objective: 18.10 Assess the pulse at each of the following pulse points: carotid, femoral, radial, brachial, popliteal, posterior tibial, and dorsalis pedis.

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12
Q

You have been called to assess a conscious infant whose chief complaint is vomiting for the past two hours. When assessing his pulse, you should FIRST check which pulse?

A) Brachial
B) Carotid
C) Radial
D) Pedal

A

A) Brachial

Page Ref: 451
Objective: 18.10 Assess the pulse at each of the following pulse points: carotid, femoral, radial, brachial, popliteal, posterior tibial, and dorsalis pedis; 18.11 Consider the patient’s age and level of responsiveness when selecting a site to palpate the pulse.

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13
Q

Pulse quality refers to:

A) strength.
B) rate.
C) rhythm.
D) output.

A

A) strength.

Page Ref: 454
Objective: 18.12 Differentiate between normal and abnormal findings when assessing a patient’s pulse to include the pulse rate, quality of the pulse, and rhythm of the pulse.

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14
Q

You determine a pulse is readily palpable at the radial artery but has uneven intervals between beats. This should BEST be documented on the prehospital care report as:

A) strong and irregular.
B) thready and regular.
C) prominent and bounding.
D) bounding and regular.

A

A) strong and irregular.

Page Ref: 453-454
Objective: 18.12 Differentiate between normal and abnormal findings when assessing a patient’s pulse to include the pulse rate, quality of the pulse, and rhythm of the pulse.

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15
Q

When assessing a patient’s pulse, you note that it is irregular. To get an accurate heart rate, the AEMT should:

A) feel the carotid pulse for 30 seconds and multiply by 2.
B) count the number of beats that occur in one minute.
C) listen to the pulse with a stethoscope.
D) double the number of beats obtained in 30 seconds.

A

B) count the number of beats that occur in one minute.

Page Ref: 452
Objective: 18.12 Differentiate between normal and abnormal findings when assessing a patient’s pulse to include the pulse rate, quality of the pulse, and rhythm of the pulse.

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16
Q

You determine an adult patient’s heart rate to be 48 beats per minute. That heart rate would be categorized as:

A) bradycardic.
B) normal.
C) tachypneic.
D) tachycardic.

A

A) bradycardic.

Page Ref: 452
Objective: 18.13 Differentiate among normal heart rates for adults, children, infants, and newborns.

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17
Q

You are assessing a 34-year-old woman who appears to be in hypovolemic shock. You would expect her pulse to be:

A) bradycardic and irregular.
B) tachycardic and weak.
C) tachycardic and bounding.
D) bradycardic and strong.

A

B) tachycardic and weak.

Page Ref: 452, 454
Objective: 18.14 Associate abnormalities in the assessment of pulses with possible underlying causes.

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18
Q

A drop in the systolic pressure of greater than 10 mmHg during inspiration is called:

A) pulsus alternans.
B) paradoxical movement.
C) pulsus paradoxus.
D) mean arterial pressure.

A

C) pulsus paradoxus.

Page Ref: 455
Objective: 18.15 Describe pulsus alternans and pulsus paradoxus.

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19
Q

You suspect that a patient is dehydrated. When checking for skin turgor, you should:

A) palpate the skin for dryness.
B) press the nail beds, then release and observe for blanching.
C) use the backs of the fingers to determine temperature.
D) pick up a fold of skin and then release it, looking for tenting.

A

D) pick up a fold of skin and then release it, looking for tenting.

Page Ref: 463
Objective: 18.17 Associate abnormal findings in skin color, temperature, and condition with potential underlying causes.

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20
Q

Assessment of a patient’s skin color reveals a bluish discoloration. As a knowledgeable AEMT, you should identify:

A) cyanosis caused by inadequate oxygenation of the tissues.
B) pallor caused by a decrease in blood flow to the tissues.
C) pallor caused by a decrease in body temperature.
D) jaundice caused by an increase in blood flow to the extremities.

A

A) cyanosis caused by inadequate oxygenation of the tissues.

Page Ref: 463
Objective: 18.16 Recognize normal and abnormal findings in the assessment of skin and mucous membrane color, skin temperature and condition, and capillary refill time.

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21
Q

A patient with pancreatic cancer exhibits a yellow discoloration to his entire body. The AEMT would correctly document this condition as:

A) pallor.
B) flushed.
C) cyanotic.
D) jaundice.

A

D) jaundice.

Page Ref: 463
Objective: 18.16 Recognize normal and abnormal findings in the assessment of skin and mucous membrane color, skin temperature and condition, and capillary refill time; 18.17 Associate abnormal findings in skin color, temperature, and condition with potential underlying causes.

22
Q

To test a patient’s capillary refill, the AEMT will:

A) apply gentle pressure to the radial pulse and watch color changes to the hand.
B) apply pressure and then release that pressure from the arm.
C) examine the inside lining of one or both eyelids.
D) firmly compress and then release pressure on the nail bed.

A

D) firmly compress and then release pressure on the nail bed.

Page Ref: 458
Objective: 18.16 Recognize normal and abnormal findings in the assessment of skin and mucous membrane color, skin temperature and condition, and capillary refill time; 18.18 Explain factors that can affect capillary refill time.

23
Q

Which one of the following patients should the AEMT recognize as having a normal skin temperature?

A) 36-year-old man complaining of nausea with warm skin.
B) 25-year-old woman who is dizzy with cool skin.
C) 88-year-old man who is weak with skin that is cool and dry.
D) 47-year-old woman with chest pain and hot skin.

A

A) 36-year-old man complaining of nausea with warm skin.

Page Ref: 463
Objective: 18.16 Recognize normal and abnormal findings in the assessment of skin and mucous membrane color, skin temperature and condition, and capillary refill time.

24
Q

When assessing a patient’s pupils, the AEMT should:

A) instruct the patient to blink several times and observe the size of the pupils.
B) cover one eye and shine a light in the other, watching for changes to the size of the pupil.
C) shine a light in one eye and watch for the pupil to dilate.
D) determine the size of the pupil and then look for a change in pupillary size as you shine a light in the eye.

A

D) determine the size of the pupil and then look for a change in pupillary size as you shine a light in the eye.

Page Ref: 464
Objective: 18.21 Assess the pupils for size, equality, and reactivity to light.

25
Q

Friends called 911 for a 37-year-old woman who intentionally overdosed on a narcotic drug. Which one of the following eye findings would reinforce that the patient did indeed take a narcotic?

A) Non-reactive pupils that are unequal
B) Bloodshot eyes with large pupils
C) Pupils that are constricted
D) Pupils that constrict to light

A

C) Pupils that are constricted

Page Ref: 464
Objective: 18.19 Differentiate among normal, dilated, and constricted pupils; 18.22 Associate abnormal pupil findings with potential underlying causes.

26
Q

The AEMT is CORRECT when he makes which one of the following statements about assessment of the pupils?

A) “Dilated pupils are less of a concern than pupils that are constricted.”
B) “Constricted pupils are less of a concern than are dilated pupils.”
C) “Some people naturally have unequal pupils, but both should react to light.”
D) “If a patient’s pupils are dilated but react to light, the pupillary exam is considered normal.”

A

C) “Some people naturally have unequal pupils, but both should react to light.”

Page Ref: 464
Objective: 18.20 Recognize anisocoria (inequality of pupils) greater than 2 mm; 18.21 Assess the pupils for size, equality, and reactivity to light.

27
Q

A blood pressure is reported as 116/68 mmHg. Which one of the following is TRUE?

A) The systolic blood pressure is 116 mmHg.
B) The top number reflects the diastolic blood pressure.
C) The diastolic blood pressure is 48 mmHg.
D) The systolic pressure is determined by subtracting 68 from 116.

A

A) The systolic blood pressure is 116 mmHg.

Page Ref: 455
Objective: 18.23 Explain the underlying physiological processes being evaluated by measuring systolic and diastolic blood pressure.

28
Q

An AEMT has an accurate understanding of the systolic blood pressure when he tells you that the systolic blood pressure is:

A) the pressure in the veins.
B) represented by the bottom number.
C) produced when the heart contracts.
D) caused by constriction of the arteries.

A

C) produced when the heart contracts.

Page Ref: 455
Objective: 18.23 Explain the underlying physiological processes being evaluated by measuring systolic and diastolic blood pressure.

29
Q

Your partner reports that a patient’s blood pressure is 156/78 mmHg. From this reading, what should the AEMT recognize?

A) The pulse pressure is 224 mmHg.
B) The blood pressure in the veins is 156 mmHg.
C) The systolic blood pressure is 78 mmHg.
D) The diastolic blood pressure is 78 mmHg.

A

D) The diastolic blood pressure is 78 mmHg.

Page Ref: 455
Objective: 18.23 Explain the underlying physiological processes being evaluated by measuring systolic and diastolic blood pressure.

30
Q

To assess a patient’s blood pressure, the AEMT will need a:

A) pulse oximeter.
B) sphygmomanometer.
C) pair of gloves and stethoscope.
D) pulse oximeter and stethoscope.

A

B) sphygmomanometer.

Page Ref: 455
Objective: 18.24 Demonstrate the proper techniques of obtaining blood pressure by auscultation, palpation, and noninvasive blood pressure monitoring.

31
Q

When obtaining a blood pressure, the AEMT listens for a pulse over what blood vessel?

A) Brachial artery
B) Radial artery
C) Carotid vessels
D) Antecubital vein

A

A) Brachial artery

Page Ref: 458
Objective: 18.24 Demonstrate the proper techniques of obtaining blood pressure by auscultation, palpation, and noninvasive blood pressure monitoring.

32
Q

In the prehospital care report, the AEMT should recognize that a blood pressure has been palpated when she sees:

A) 118/78 (palpated).
B) Palp: 178/118 mmHg.
C) 178/P.
D) P/118.

A

C) 178/P.

Page Ref: 458
Objective: 18.24 Demonstrate the proper techniques of obtaining blood pressure by auscultation, palpation, and noninvasive blood pressure monitoring; 18.25 Relate the methods, techniques, and equipment for obtaining a blood pressure measurement to differences in findings and potential errors in blood pressure measurement.

33
Q

Auscultation of blood pressure is dependent upon hearing the sounds of blood hitting the arterial walls, known as ________ sounds.

A) Kornberg
B) Korotkoff
C) Kobileski
D) Kunzlemann

A

B) Korotkoff

Page Ref: 456
Objective: 18.24 Demonstrate the proper techniques of obtaining blood pressure by auscultation, palpation, and noninvasive blood pressure monitoring; 18.25 Relate the methods, techniques, and equipment for obtaining a blood pressure measurement to differences in findings and potential errors in blood pressure measurement.

34
Q

Medical direction has asked that you obtain orthostatic vital signs for a 54-year-old woman complaining of dizziness and weakness. Her baseline vitals obtained while she was supine were: pulse 84, respirations 26, blood pressure 118/62 mmHg, and SpO2 95 percent. Which one of the following would indicate that the patient has a positive orthostatic test?

A) Standing SpO2 88 percent and heart rate of 96 beats per minute.
B) Standing pulse of 88 with the additional complaint of nausea.
C) Standing blood pressure of 92/54 and heart rate of 106.
D) Sitting blood pressure of 100/64 mmHg and respirations of 22.

A

C) Standing blood pressure of 92/54 and heart rate of 106.

Page Ref: 458-459
Objective: 18.24 Demonstrate the proper techniques of obtaining blood pressure by auscultation, palpation, and noninvasive blood pressure monitoring; 18.26 Determine whether a blood pressure value is consistent with expected values for the patient’s age and gender; 18.29 Explain the concept of orthostatic (postural) hypotension.

35
Q

Pulse pressure is the:

A) difference between systolic blood pressure and pulse rate.
B) sum of diastolic blood pressure and pulse rate.
C) sum of systolic and diastolic blood pressures.
D) difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressures.

A

D) difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressures.

Page Ref: 455
Objective: 18.27 Use the blood pressure value to find the patient’s pulse pressure and mean arterial pressure (MAP).

36
Q

Correctly assessing orthostatic vital signs involves:

A) determining if the patient’s respirations and heart rate are within normal limits.
B) determining if the patient’s pulse disappears during deep inspiration.
C) taking the blood pressure in the supine and standing positions.
D) taking the blood pressure and heart rate three times, two minutes apart.

A

C) taking the blood pressure in the supine and standing positions.

Page Ref: 458-459
Objective: 18.29 Explain the concept of orthostatic (postural) hypotension.

37
Q

The AEMT is CORRECT when he identifies baseline vital signs as:

A) any change in two consecutive sets of vital signs.
B) the first set of vital signs obtained.
C) a set of vital signs most close to normal.
D) the most important set of vital signs.

A

B) the first set of vital signs obtained.

Page Ref: 450
Objective: 18.1 Define key terms introduced in this chapter; 18.30 Given a patient scenario, determine the frequency with which vital signs should be reassessed.

38
Q

Which one of the following statements is TRUE about vital signs obtained on a patient with nausea and vomiting?

A) The vital signs will help to determine the relative stability or instability of the patient.
B) The vital signs will allow the AEMT to diagnose the cause of the nausea and vomiting.
C) The patient’s complaint will be significant only if the vital signs are abnormal.
D) If the vital signs are within normal limits, it is safe to let the patient refuse transport.

A

A) The vital signs will help to determine the relative stability or instability of the patient.

Page Ref: 450
Objective: 18.2 Discuss the importance of accurate assessment and documentation of vital signs over the course of contact with the patient to identify problems and changes in the patient’s condition.

39
Q

After you apply the pulse oximeter to a patient complaining of chest discomfort, she asks you what you are assessing. You would respond by telling her that the pulse oximeter:

A) can tell how much carbon dioxide she is exhaling.
B) is a tool used to see if the airway needs to be opened.
C) measures the amount of oxygen circulating in the blood.
D) provides the most accurate evaluation of the heart rate.

A

C) measures the amount of oxygen circulating in the blood.

Page Ref: 465
Objective: 18.31 Explain what is being measured when pulse oximetry is used.

40
Q

When using a pulse oximeter on an adult patient, the AEMT knows that the sensor is MOST often attached to the patient’s:

A) finger.
B) chest.
C) ear.
D) forehead.

A

A) finger.

Page Ref: 465
Objective: 18.31 Explain what is being measured when pulse oximetry is used.

41
Q

Which one of the following indicates the CORRECT documentation of a pulse oximetry reading on the prehospital care report?

A) 97 percent SpO2
B) 97 percent O2
C) 97 percent PO2
D) 97 percent PO

A

A) 97 percent SpO2

Page Ref: 465
Objective: 18.31 Explain what is being measured when pulse oximetry is used.

42
Q

When using a pulse oximeter with oxygen therapy, the goal of treatment is to maintain an SpO2 of:

A) 85 percent or higher.
B) 90 percent or higher.
C) 95 percent or higher.
D) 99 percent or higher.

A

C) 95 percent or higher.

Page Ref: 465
Objective: 18.31 Explain what is being measured when pulse oximetry is used.

43
Q

For which one of the following conditions would the AEMT MOST likely get an inaccurate pulse oximeter reading despite proper application of the sensor?

A) Increased heart rate
B) Elevated body temperature
C) Unresponsiveness
D) Low blood pressure

A

D) Low blood pressure

Page Ref: 465
Objective: 18.32 Describe factors and limitations that should be considered when interpreting the meaning of pulse oximetry findings.

44
Q

Which of the following patients requires ETCO2 monitoring in the prehospital setting?

A) Patients with respiratory complaints
B) Critically ill patients
C) Patients who are intubated
D) All of the above patients need ETCO2 monitoring.

A

D) All of the above patients need ETCO2 monitoring.

Page Ref: 465-466
Objective: 18.33 Explain what is being measured when capnography is used; 18.34 Describe factors and limitations that should be considered when interpreting the meaning of capnography findings.

45
Q

Blood glucose is measured in:

A) milligrams per deciliter (100 mL) of blood.
B) milliliters per liter (1000 mL) of blood.
C) grams per deciliter (100 mL) of blood.
D) grams per liter (1000 mL) of blood.

A

A) milligrams per deciliter (100 mL) of blood.

Page Ref: 467
Objective: 18.35 Explain what is being measured when a glucometer is used.

46
Q

In Lead II, Einthoven’s triangle shows:

A) the left arm is negative and the right arm is positive.
B) the left arm is positive and the right arm is negative.
C) the left leg is positive and the right arm is negative.
D) the left leg is negative and the right arm is positive.

A

C) the left leg is positive and the right arm is negative.

Page Ref: 469
Objective: 18.39 Obtain a Lead II ECG recording.

47
Q

Pulsus alternans results in:

A) an alternating strong-weak pulse quality.
B) a drop in systolic blood pressure based on body position.
C) profound skin cyanosis.
D) hypotension and shock.

A

A) an alternating strong-weak pulse quality.

Page Ref: 455
Objective: 18.15 Describe pulsus alternans and pulsus paradoxus.

48
Q

A heart rate of 150 is within the normal range for:

A) an infant.
B) a preschooler.
C) a school age child.
D) an adolescent.

A

A) an infant.

Page Ref: 452
Objective: 18.13 Differentiate among normal heart rates for adults, children, infants, and newborns.

49
Q

When taking the pulse of a school age child, which heart rate would be considered normal?

A) 63 beats per minute
B) 84 beats per minute
C) 119 beats per minute
D) 138 beats per minute

A

B) 84 beats per minute

Page Ref: 452
Objective: 18.13 Differentiate among normal heart rates for adults, children, infants, and newborns.

50
Q

Cushing’s reflex is associated with increasing intracranial pressure and is identified by:

A) a combination of hypotension and tachycardia.
B) a combination of hypertension and bradycardia.
C) a combination of decreased respiration and pulse rate.
D) a combination of increased respiration and pulse rate.

A

B) a combination of hypertension and bradycardia.

Page Ref: 453
Objective: 18.12 Differentiate between normal and abnormal findings when assessing a patient’s pulse to include the pulse rate, quality of the pulse, and rhythm of the pulse.

51
Q

Which of the following alterations in vital signs might you observe in a patient with increased intracranial pressure?

A) Pulsus alternans
B) Narrowing pulse pressure
C) Widening pulse pressure
D) Pulsus paradoxus

A

C) Widening pulse pressure

Page Ref: 455
Objective: 18.28 List potential causes of abnormal findings or changes in blood pressure and pulse pressure.